Diabetes Flashcards

1
Q

History of Present Illness: UR is a 48 year old male with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He presents to the clinic on 10/10 for a comprehensive visit to include initiation of diabetes treatment.

Allergies: NKDA

Past Medical History:
Gout
Diabetes mellitus type 2

Social History:
Married, 2 young children, office job with long periods of sitting, smokes ½ PPD, alcohol socially on weekends and some evenings during the week. Does not exercise or have any active hobbies.

Current Medications:
None

Immunizations History: None since childhood

Vitals:
Height: 5’11” Weight: 182 lbs
BP: 154/96 mmHg HR: 83 BPM RR: 20 BPM Temp: 98.6ºF Pain: 1/10

Labs (fasting):
AST (units/L) = 24 (10 - 40)
ALT (units/L) = 21 (10 - 40)
TC (mg/dL) = 206 (125 - 200)
TG (mg/dL) = 165 (< 150)
HDL (mg/dL) = 34 (> 40)
LDL (mg/dL) = 163 (<100)
GLU (mg/dL) = 264 (100 - 125)
Na (mEq/L) = 141 (135 - 145)
K (mEq/L) = 4.2 (3.5 - 5)
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 - 103)
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 28 (24 - 30)
BUN (mg/dL) = 22 (7 - 20)
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.2 (0.6 - 1.3)
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 - 2.1)
PO4 (mg/dL) = 4.4 (2.3 - 4.7)
Ca (mg/dL) = 9.5 (8.5 - 10.5)
TSH (mIU/L) = 1.9 (0.3 - 3.0)
Hgb A1C = 10.6 %
Urinary albumin excretion (mg/24 hours) = 20 (< 30)

Question

Which of the following should be recommended for UR at this time? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Influenza vaccine (live, Flumist)
B
Influenza vaccine (inactivated, shot)
C
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
D
Hepatitis B vaccine
E
Hepatitis A vaccine
A
B
Influenza vaccine (inactivated, shot)
C
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
D
Hepatitis B vaccine

The patient is not a candidate for the live influenza vaccine. This is not used in patients with chronic disease and no longer recommended by the CDC for any patient. He should receive the influenza shot (inactivated), the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax 23), and the hepatitis B vaccine.

Why should they receive the PPSV23 and not the Hep A?

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2
Q

History of Present Illness: UR is a 48 year old male with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He presents to the clinic on 10/10 for a comprehensive visit to include initiation of diabetes treatment.

Allergies: NKDA

Past Medical History:
Gout
Diabetes mellitus type 2

Social History:
Married, 2 young children, office job with long periods of sitting, smokes ½ PPD, alcohol socially on weekends and some evenings during the week. Does not exercise or have any active hobbies.

Current Medications:
None

Immunizations History: None since childhood

Vitals:
Height: 5’11” Weight: 182 lbs
BP: 154/96 mmHg HR: 83 BPM RR: 20 BPM Temp: 98.6ºF Pain: 1/10

Labs (fasting):
AST (units/L) = 24 (10 - 40)
ALT (units/L) = 21 (10 - 40)
TC (mg/dL) = 206 (125 - 200)
TG (mg/dL) = 165 (< 150)
HDL (mg/dL) = 34 (> 40)
LDL (mg/dL) = 163 (<100)
GLU (mg/dL) = 264 (100 - 125)
Na (mEq/L) = 141 (135 - 145)
K (mEq/L) = 4.2 (3.5 - 5)
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 - 103)
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 28 (24 - 30)
BUN (mg/dL) = 22 (7 - 20)
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.2 (0.6 - 1.3)
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 - 2.1)
PO4 (mg/dL) = 4.4 (2.3 - 4.7)
Ca (mg/dL) = 9.5 (8.5 - 10.5)
TSH (mIU/L) = 1.9 (0.3 - 3.0)
Hgb A1C = 10.6 %
Urinary albumin excretion (mg/24 hours) = 20 (< 30)

Question

According to the ADA guidelines, what is the best therapy to start in UR (in addition to lifestyle treatment)?
Answer

A
Metformin + pioglitazone 
B
Metformin + exenatide 
C
Metformin + glimepiride 
D
Basal insulin + mealtime insulin
E
Metformin + basal insulin + sulfonylurea.
A

D
Basal insulin + mealtime insulin

Combination injectable therapy should be considered in patients with severe hyperglycemia, defined as a BG ≥ 300 mg/dL or A1C ≥ 10%.

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the thiazolidinediones?
Answer

A
They act on PPAR-gamma receptors as an antagonist.
B
They stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
C
They improve insulin sensitivity in the muscle cells.
D
They act as an incretin mimetic.
E
They decrease glucagon secretion from the pancreas.

A

C
They improve insulin sensitivity in the muscle cells.

They are actually PPAR-gamma receptor agonists.

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4
Q

A physician wants to prescribe exenatide to his patient. He calls the pharmacy to ask if there are any precautions to the use of this medication. The pharmacist should relay that the drug may not be safe to use in the following situations: (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/minute
B
Decreased bone mineral density
C
Liver disease
D
Alopecia
E
History of pancreatitis
A
Byetta
A
Creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/minute
E
History of pancreatitis
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5
Q

A patient gave the pharmacist a prescription for Soliqua 100/33. Which of the following is the generic for this drug?
Answer

A
Insulin glargine + liraglutide
B
Insulin glargine + lixisenatide
C
Metformin + saxagliptin
D
Metformin + canagliflozin
E
Empaglifllozin + linagliptin
A

B

Insulin glargine + lixisenatide

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6
Q

KS is picking up a new prescription for glipizide. What are possible side effects from this medication? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Pancreatitis
B
Hypoglycemia
C
Bladder cancer
D
Thyroid cancer
E
Weight gain
A

B
Hypoglycemia
E
Weight gain

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7
Q

A patient with type 2 diabetes is beginning therapy with pramlintide. Choose the correct statement:
Answer

A
The mealtime insulin dose should be decreased by 50% when beginning pramlintide.
B
The basal insulin dose should be increased by 25% when beginning pramlintide.
C
This medication is injected after meals and with any food intake up to 250 kilocalories.
D
This medication has a boxed warning for thyroid cancer and weight gain.
E
This medication can only be used for treating type 1 diabetes.

A

A
Incorrect
Pramlintide has a boxed warning for severe hypoglycemia; the mealtime insulin dose must be decreased by 50% when starting therapy.

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8
Q

A patient is using propranolol for migraines. She has just begun therapy with glipizide. The patient may not be able to recognize the following symptoms of hypoglycemia: (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Shakiness
B
Anxiety
C
Hunger
D
Sweating
E
Palpitations
A
A
Shakiness
B
Anxiety
E
Palpitations
Incorrect
Beta blockers can block shakiness, anxiety and palpitations brought on by hypoglycemia. Sweating and hunger may still be present.
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9
Q

Plan: CT scan of the abdomen with iodinated contrast (scheduled for 9/22) to check for abdominal abscess; hold metformin and start sliding scale insulin to control blood glucose. Start cefepime 2 grams IV Q24H, levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily and metronidazole 500 mg PO TID. Patient may eat a regular diet beginning on the afternoon of 9/22 after CT scan has been completed.

Question

Based on the plan documented, which type of insulin will be added to PQ’s medication profile?
Answer

A
Insulin regular
B
Insulin NPH
C
Insulin detemir
D
Mixed insulin 75/25
E
Mixed insulin 70/30
.
A

A
Insulin regular
Incorrect
Regular (short-acting) or rapid-acting insulins are used for sliding scales and correction doses. When the blood glucose is elevated, it is best to get it controlled right away. Long-acting insulins have a slow onset of action

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10
Q

Plan: CT scan of the abdomen with iodinated contrast (scheduled for 9/22) to check for abdominal abscess; hold metformin and start sliding scale insulin to control blood glucose. Start cefepime 2 grams IV Q24H, levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily and metronidazole 500 mg PO TID. Patient may eat a regular diet beginning on the afternoon of 9/22 after CT scan has been completed.

Question

On the morning of 9/22, the pharmacist recommends an adjustment to PQ’s insulin therapy as she is hyperglycemic despite using 18 units of sliding scale insulin since admission. Which of the following is an acceptable recommendation?
Answer

A
Double the doses of the sliding scale insulin regimen.
B
Insulin glargine 20 units SC daily.
C
Start glipizide 10 mg PO daily 30 minutes before breakfast.
D
Insulin regular 6 units Q4H while awake.
E
Humalog Mix 70/30 SC BID before the morning and evening meal.
Incorrect

A

B
Insulin glargine 20 units SC daily.
Sliding scale insulins alone are no longer recommended to manage hyperglycemia in hospitalized patients. Per the 2017 ADA guidelines, patient’s with poor oral intake (this patient is not eating a regular diet until later in the day after her CT scan), a basal insulin regimen with bolus correction doses (aka sliding scale insulin) is recommended. Short- or rapid-acting insulins and agents that cause hypoglycemia (such as sulfonylureas) should not be scheduled in a patient that is not eating regular meals.

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11
Q

Which of the following are correct regarding diabetes? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Type 1 diabetes must be treated with insulin.
B
Type 2 diabetes is due to both insulin resistance and insulin deficiency.
C
Prediabetes can be treated with glipizide.
D
The C-peptide test can be used to determine if a patient is producing insulin.
E
Insulin is a hormone that conversion of glucose to glycogen

A

A
Type 1 diabetes must be treated with insulin.
B
Type 2 diabetes is due to both insulin resistance and insulin deficiency
D
The C-peptide test can be used to determine if a patient is producing insulin.
E
Insulin is a hormone that conversion of glucose to glycogen

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12
Q

HJ needs better control of his type 2 diabetes. His last A1C was 8.2% and he is compliant with his metformin 1,000 mg BID. He states he does not want to gain weight and refuses to take any kind of injectable medication. Which medication option would be most appropriate for HJ, based on his personal preferences?
Answer

A
Canagliflozin
B
Glimepiride
C
Exenatide
D
Nateglinide
E
Pioglitazone
A

A
Canagliflozin
Canagliflozin causes weight loss and comes as an oral formulation. The other agents listed cause weight gain or are only available as an injectable product.

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13
Q

MK’s mother has been hospitalized and put on insulin therapy. The mother is discharged with a prescription for Novolog FlexPen. Her insurance plan does not cover this option. Choose an acceptable alternative:
Answer

A
Humulin N
B
Humulin R
C
Humalog KwikPen
D
Novolin R ReliOn
E
Levemir FlexTouch
A

C
Humalog KwikPen
Novolog FlexPen is insulin aspart, a rapid acting insulin. The only other rapid-acting insulin shown is Humalog KwikPen which is insulin lispro.

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14
Q

History of Present Illness: KT is a 23 year-old female being seen in clinic on 2/10 for diabetes management. Of note, KT was hospitalized 2 months ago because she stopped taking her medications for a few days. Since then, she has attended a diabetes education class and met with her dietitian. She feels some tingling in her feet for which she takes gabapentin. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol only on special occasions.

Allergies: NKDA

Current Medications (2/10): 
Levemir 21 units QHS 
Insulin lispro 7 units TID before meals 
Gabapentin 300 mg TID 
Paxil 40 mg daily

Past Medical History:
Type 1 diabetes
Depression
Peripheral neuropathy

Vitals (2/10):
Height: 5’10” Weight: 155 lbs
BP: 128/77 mmHg HR: 85 BPM RR: 20 BPM
Temp: 98.6ºF Pain: 1/10

12/11 to 2/10 Blood Glucose Value Ranges (self-monitored): 
Before breakfast: 95 - 120 mg/dL 
After lunch: 110 - 125 mg/dL 
After dinner: 200 - 225 mg/dL 
At bedtime: 130 - 150 mg/dL
2/10 Labs (fasting):
AST (units/L) = 23 (10 - 40) 
ALT (units/L) = 25 (10 - 40) 
GLU (mg/dL) = 107 (100 - 125) 
Na (mEq/L) = 141 (135 - 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 4.2 (3.5 - 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 - 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 28 (24 - 30) 
BUN (mg/dL) = 18 (7 - 20) 
SCr (mg/dL) = 0.9 (0.7 - 1.3) 
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 - 2.1) 
PO4 (mg/dL) = 4.4 (2.3 - 4.7) 
Ca (mg/dL) = 9.5 (8.5 - 10.5) 
TSH (mIU/L) = 1.9 (0.3 - 3.0) 
Hgb A1C = 7.8%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (-)

2/10 Tests: Eye exam with normal findings

12/9 Labs (hospital admission): 
GLU (mg/dL) = 390 (100 - 125) 
Hgb A1C = 8.5%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (+) 
pH = 7.24 (7.35-7.45) 
pCO2 (mmHg) = 25 (35 - 45) 
pO2 (mmHg) = 92 (80 - 100)

6/14 Labs (clinic visit 8 months prior):
GLU (mg/dL) = 113 (100 - 125)
Hgb A1C = 7.9%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (-)

Question

When KT was in the hospital on 12/9 she was started on an insulin drip. What would the initial rate (units/hr) of her infusion have been?
Answer

A
1 unit/hr
B
2 units/hr
C
5 units/hr
D
7 units/hr
E
10 units/hr
A

Incorrect

The initial insulin IV infusion rate is 0.1 units/kg/hr (155 lbs/2.2 lbs/kg X 0.1 units/kg) = 7 units/hr.

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15
Q

History of Present Illness: KT is a 23 year-old female being seen in clinic on 2/10 for diabetes management. Of note, KT was hospitalized 2 months ago because she stopped taking her medications for a few days. Since then, she has attended a diabetes education class and met with her dietitian. She feels some tingling in her feet for which she takes gabapentin. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol only on special occasions.

Allergies: NKDA

Current Medications (2/10): 
Levemir 21 units QHS 
Insulin lispro 7 units TID before meals 
Gabapentin 300 mg TID 
Paxil 40 mg daily

Past Medical History:
Type 1 diabetes
Depression
Peripheral neuropathy

Vitals (2/10):
Height: 5’10” Weight: 155 lbs
BP: 128/77 mmHg HR: 85 BPM RR: 20 BPM
Temp: 98.6ºF Pain: 1/10

12/11 to 2/10 Blood Glucose Value Ranges (self-monitored): 
Before breakfast: 95 - 120 mg/dL 
After lunch: 110 - 125 mg/dL 
After dinner: 200 - 225 mg/dL 
At bedtime: 130 - 150 mg/dL
2/10 Labs (fasting):
AST (units/L) = 23 (10 - 40) 
ALT (units/L) = 25 (10 - 40) 
GLU (mg/dL) = 107 (100 - 125) 
Na (mEq/L) = 141 (135 - 145) 
K (mEq/L) = 4.2 (3.5 - 5) 
Cl (mEq/L) = 100 (95 - 103) 
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 28 (24 - 30) 
BUN (mg/dL) = 18 (7 - 20) 
SCr (mg/dL) = 0.9 (0.7 - 1.3) 
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.9 (1.3 - 2.1) 
PO4 (mg/dL) = 4.4 (2.3 - 4.7) 
Ca (mg/dL) = 9.5 (8.5 - 10.5) 
TSH (mIU/L) = 1.9 (0.3 - 3.0) 
Hgb A1C = 7.8%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (-)

2/10 Tests: Eye exam with normal findings

12/9 Labs (hospital admission): 
GLU (mg/dL) = 390 (100 - 125) 
Hgb A1C = 8.5%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (+) 
pH = 7.24 (7.35-7.45) 
pCO2 (mmHg) = 25 (35 - 45) 
pO2 (mmHg) = 92 (80 - 100)

6/14 Labs (clinic visit 8 months prior):
GLU (mg/dL) = 113 (100 - 125)
Hgb A1C = 7.9%
Urinalysis = albumin (-) and ketones (-)

Question

KT attended the grand opening of a restaurant this past weekend and sampled 8 different dishes. She tested her blood glucose when she got home, which showed 246 mg/dL. KT’s target blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. Calculate her correction dose.
Answer

A
1 unit
B
2 units
C
3 units
D
4 units
E
5 units
A

Incorrect
KT’s correction factor (43) can be calculated using the rule of 1800 since she uses rapid-acting insulin. Her correction dose is (246 -120)/43 = 3 units.

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16
Q

UV is a 58 year old female with diabetes, history of myocardial infarction, hypertension, dyslipidemia and osteoporosis. She is currently taking metformin XR 2000 mg PO daily, glipizide XL 20 mg daily, lisinopril 20 mg PO daily, metoprolol XL 100 mg PO daily, aspirin 81 mg PO daily, atorvastatin 80 mg PO daily and alendronate 35 mg PO weekly. Her A1C is 8.2%, BP 138/88 mmHg, and LDL = 100 mg/dL.
Which of the following medications could decrease the risk of death in UV if added to her regimen?
Answer

A
Valsartan
B
Insulin
C
Empagliflozin
D
Pramlintide
E
Sitagliptin
A

Incorrect
Empaglifozin and liraglutide should be considered in patients with long-standing diabetes (that is not well controlled) and established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease as data has shown a decrease in cardiovascular and all-cause mortality.

17
Q

Which of the following are side effects seen with dapagliflozin that should be discussed with the patient? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Acute liver failure
B
Hypotension
C
Urinary tract infections
D
Pancreatitis
E
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
A
Dapagliflozin is Farxiga
B
Hypotension
C
Urinary tract infections
E
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Incorrect
Refer to page 568 of the 2018 RxPrep Course Book. SGLT2 inhibitors have many side effects including acute kidney injury, hypotension and weight loss due to the loss of fluid along with glucose.
18
Q

Which of the following glucagon-like peptide 1 agonists are available as a once weekly injection? (Select ALL that apply.)

Answer

A
Lixisenatide
B
Liraglutide
C
Dulaglutide
D
Albiglutide
E
Pramlintide
Correct
.
A

Dulaglutide
D
Albiglutide

Trulicity and Tanzeum are brand names
Dulaglutide and albiglutide are given once weekly; the other once weekly agent is exenatide extended release (Bydureon). Pramlintide is not a GLP-1 agonist

19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding insulin glargine therapy is correct? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
The Toujeo brand comes in 300 units/mL.
B
It is cloudy in color.
C
One branded product is Basaglar KwikPen
D
It should not be mixed with other insulins.
E
It is available as a SoloStar pen.
A
A
The Toujeo brand comes in 300 units/mL.
C
One branded product is Basaglar KwikPen
D
It should not be mixed with other insulins.
E
It is available as a SoloStar pen.
Incorrect
Refer to page 576 of the 2018 RxPrep Course Book. Insulin glargine comes in a few different formulations and brands. Toujeo SoloStar is a more concentrated form (300 units/mL).
20
Q

AM is a 19 year-old male ( 5’11”, 176 lbs) who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. He eats 3 meals per day. The physician writes for an initial daily dose of insulin of 0.6 units/kg/day. Using a basal-bolus dosing strategy, calculate the amount of Lantus and the amount of Humalog AM should take.
Answer

A
Lantus 48 units at bedtime and Humalog 16 units before meals
B
Lantus 24 units at bedtime and Humalog 24 units before meals
C
Lantus 24 units at bedtime and Humalog 8 units before meals
D
Lantus 16 units at bedtime and Humalog 10 units before meals
E
Lantus 8 units at bedtime and Humalog 24 units before meals
Incorrect

A

C
Lantus 24 units at bedtime and Humalog 8 units before meals
When using basal and meal-time insulin (called bolus) dosing strategy, it is initiated by taking the total daily dose of insulin and giving 50% of the insulin as the basal dose and 50% as the bolus, or mealtime, dose. The bolus dose will then need to be divided up by the number of meals the patient eats (in this case, AM eats 3 meals).

21
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding metformin? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Metformin should be given with a meal to decrease GI upset.
B
Metformin lowers A1C by 1-2%.
C
Metformin works by slowing the absorption of complex carbohydrates in the small intestine.
D
Metformin can be used to treat type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
E
Metformin can cause vitamin B12 deficiency when used long-term.

A

A
Metformin should be given with a meal to decrease GI upset.
B
Metformin lowers A1C by 1-2%.
E
Metformin can cause vitamin B12 deficiency when used long-term.
Metformin is a biguanide. It is only used to treat type 2 diabetes and should be given with food (usually dinner).

22
Q

A patient has a new prescription for repaglinide 1 mg TID #30. How should the pharmacist counsel the patient to take the medication? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
This medication is safe and it will not cause hypoglycemia.
B
If you forget a dose and it has not been more than 60 minutes since you ate, you can take the missed dose.
C
This medication should be used concurrently with glipizide.
D
If you plan to skip a meal, skip the dose for that meal.
E
Take your dose 15-30 minutes prior to a meal.

A

D
If you plan to skip a meal, skip the dose for that meal.
E
Take your dose 15-30 minutes prior to a meal.
Incorrect
Repaglinide should be taken within 15-30 minutes prior to meals. If meal is consumed and the dose is missed, then skip the dose and take at the next scheduled time (i.e. the next meal).

23
Q

CD is taking pioglitazone for his diabetes management. Which of the following are possible risks when taking this medication? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Pancreatitis
B
Weight gain
C
Edema
D
Hepatic failure
E
Risk of fractures
A
B
Weight gain
C
Edema
D
Hepatic failure
E
Risk of fractures
Incorrect
Pioglitazone has multiple warnings and side effects including hepatic failure, bladder cancer, peripheral edema and weight gain, and fractures.
24
Q

A hospitalized patient has been using Humulin 70/30, 70 units in the morning and 20 units at night. He is going to be switched to a regimen of lispro and detemir. How much detemir will the patient need to take? (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number.)
Answer

A

Incorrect
Humulin 70/30 is 70% NPH and 30% regular. The patient is receiving 63 units of NPH (70% of 90 units). NPH to detemir is a 1:1 conversion.

25
Q

Which of the following is true regarding use of an ACE inhibitor or ARB in patients with diabetes according to the ADA guidelines? (Select ALL that apply.)
Answer

A
Patients with diabetes should be screened for albuminuria at least yearly.
B
ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have high blood pressure and no albuminuria.
C
ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have normal blood pressure and albuminuria.
D
ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have normal blood pressure and no albuminuria.
E
An ACE inhibitor combined with an ARB is recommended to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have normal blood pressure and albuminuria.

A

A
Patients with diabetes should be screened for albuminuria at least yearly.
C
ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have normal blood pressure and albuminuria.
Incorrect
ACE inhibitors or ARBs (not combined) are recommended for to prevent progression of diabetic kidney disease in patients with diabetes who have normal or high blood pressure and albuminuria. They are not recommended when the patient does not have albuminuria and is normotensive and the ADA no longer gives preference to ACE inhibitors or ARBs in patients with diabetes and high blood pressure if there is no evidence of albuminuria (this is now consistent with JNC 8 guidelines).

26
Q

BN comes to the pharmacy with a prescription for Invokana. Which of the following statements regarding Invokana is correct?
Answer

A
The site of action is the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney.
B
It is a glucagon-like peptide 1 agonist.
C
It can can cause weight gain.
D
It can cause vaginal yeast infections.
E
It is safe to use in patients with end-stage renal disease.
A

D
It can cause vaginal yeast infections.
Incorrect
Invokana is a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor. This class of drugs have many side effects. The one positive side effect is weight loss.

27
Q

How many days is the Humulin N pen stable at room temperature?

A

14 days