Section II: Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of a neuron is primarily characterized as the information-receiving component?

a. Axon
b. Presynaptic terminal
c. Cell body
d. Dendrite
e. Myelin

A

Which part of a neuron is primarily characterized as the information-receiving component?

a. Axon
b. Presynaptic terminal
c. Cell body
d. Dendrite
e. Myelin

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2
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of glial cells?

a. Production of action potentials
b. Immune responses of the nervous system
c. Production of the myelin sheaths of axons
d. Modulating the growth of developing or damaged
neurons
e. Buffering extracellular concentrations of some ions and
neurotransmitters

A

Which of the following is not characteristic of glial cells?

a. Production of action potentials
b. Immune responses of the nervous system
c. Production of the myelin sheaths of axons
d. Modulating the growth of developing or damaged
neurons
e. Buffering extracellular concentrations of some ions and
neurotransmitters

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3
Q

The elements of spinal and cranial nerves that carry action potential commands from the CNS to synapses at skeletal
muscles are:

a. Axons of visceral efferent neurons
b. Axons of somatic afferent neurons
c. Axons of somatic efferent neurons
d. The dorsal roots
e. Axons of visceral afferent neurons

A

The elements of spinal and cranial nerves that carry action potential commands from the CNS to synapses at skeletal
muscles are:

a. Axons of visceral efferent neurons
b. Axons of somatic afferent neurons
c. Axons of somatic efferent neurons
d. The dorsal roots
e. Axons of visceral afferent neurons

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4
Q

The thalamus and hypothalamus are components of which major brain division?

a. Medulla
b. Pons
c. Midbrain
d. Diencephalon
e. Telencephalon

A

The thalamus and hypothalamus are components of which major brain division?

a. Medulla
b. Pons
c. Midbrain
d. Diencephalon
e. Telencephalon

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5
Q

When treating critically ill patients with intravenous fluids, which two ions are most important to the neuronal membrane potential?

a. Na+ and Cl–
b. K+ and Cl–
c. Ca2+ and Cl–
d. K+ and Ca2+
e. Na+ and K+

A

When treating critically ill patients with intravenous fluids, which two ions are most important to the neuronal membrane potential?

a. Na+ and Cl–
b. K+ and Cl–
c. Ca2+ and Cl–
d. K+ and Ca2+
e. Na+ and K+

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6
Q

The energy required by the Na+, K+ neural membrane pump is derived from ATP. In the neuron, this energy results from the nearly exclusive metabolism of oxygen and:

a. Amino acids
b. Fatty acids
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen
e. Proteins

A

The energy required by the Na+, K+ neural membrane pump is derived from ATP. In the neuron, this energy results from the nearly exclusive metabolism of oxygen and:

a. Amino acids
b. Fatty acids
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen
e. Proteins

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7
Q

If the number of IPSPs on the dendritic membrane decreases while the number of EPSPs remains the same, what will happen to the action potentials on that neuron?

a. Probability of triggering action potentials increases.
b. Probability of triggering action potentials decreases.
c. Probability of triggering action potentials remains unchanged.
d. Action potentials would be eliminated.
e. Action potentials would be conducted with increased velocity

A

If the number of IPSPs on the dendritic membrane decreases while the number of EPSPs remains the same, what will happen to the action potentials on that neuron?

a. Probability of triggering action potentials increases.
b. Probability of triggering action potentials decreases.
c. Probability of triggering action potentials remains unchanged.
d. Action potentials would be eliminated.
e. Action potentials would be conducted with increased velocity

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8
Q

During an excitatory postsynaptic potential in a neural membrane, which of the following is the most important ion flow?

a. Sodium ions diffuse out of the cell.
b. Sodium ions diffuse into the cell.
c. Potassium ions diffuse out of the cell.
d. Potassium ions pumped in by the Na+, K+ pump.
e. None of the above.

A

During an excitatory postsynaptic potential in a neural membrane, which of the following is the most important ion flow?

a. Sodium ions diffuse out of the cell.
b. Sodium ions diffuse into the cell.
c. Potassium ions diffuse out of the cell.
d. Potassium ions pumped in by the Na+, K+ pump.
e. None of the above.

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9
Q

Choose the incorrect statement below:

a. Conduction velocity of action potentials is slower in myelinated than in unmyelinated axons.
b. Conduction velocity of action potentials is faster in myelinated than in unmyelinated axons.
c. In saltatory conduction of action potentials, the action potential seems to jump functionally from node to node
(nodes of Ranvier).
d. Action potentials are of equal magnitude at the beginning
and at the end of an axon.

A

Choose the incorrect statement below:

a. Conduction velocity of action potentials is slower in myelinated than in unmyelinated axons.
b. Conduction velocity of action potentials is faster in myelinated than in unmyelinated axons.
c. In saltatory conduction of action potentials, the action potential seems to jump functionally from node to node
(nodes of Ranvier).
d. Action potentials are of equal magnitude at the beginning
and at the end of an axon.

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10
Q

At the neuromuscular junction, Ca2+ ions are necessary for:

a. Binding the transmitter with the postsynaptic receptor.
b. Facilitating diffusion of the transmitter to the postsynaptic membrane.
c. Splitting the transmitter in the cleft, thus deactivating the transmitter.
d. Fusing the presynaptic vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, thus releasing the transmitter.
e. Metabolizing the transmitter within the presynaptic vesicle.

A

At the neuromuscular junction, Ca2+ ions are necessary for:

a. Binding the transmitter with the postsynaptic receptor.
b. Facilitating diffusion of the transmitter to the postsynaptic membrane.
c. Splitting the transmitter in the cleft, thus deactivating the transmitter.
d. Fusing the presynaptic vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, thus releasing the transmitter.
e. Metabolizing the transmitter within the presynaptic vesicle.

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11
Q

A drug that would prevent the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause what, if any, clinical signs?

a. Convulsions and excess muscle contractions
b. Paralysis
c. No effect on an animal’s movement

A

A drug that would prevent the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause what, if any, clinical signs?

a. Convulsions and excess muscle contractions
b. Paralysis
c. No effect on an animal’s movement

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12
Q

Which one of the following is true with regard to the termination of synaptic action at the neuromuscular junction?

a. The reuptake of intact acetylcholine molecules into the motor neuron terminal is responsible.
b. Diffusion of acetylcholine away from the synapse is solely responsible.
c. Acetylcholinesterase rapidly breaks down acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
d. Dissociation of acetylcholine from the muscarinic receptor, after binding for several seconds, is solely responsible.

A

Which one of the following is true with regard to the termination of synaptic action at the neuromuscular junction?

a. The reuptake of intact acetylcholine molecules into the motor neuron terminal is responsible.
b. Diffusion of acetylcholine away from the synapse is solely responsible.
c. Acetylcholinesterase rapidly breaks down acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
d. Dissociation of acetylcholine from the muscarinic receptor, after binding for several seconds, is solely responsible.

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13
Q

Several antagonist drugs compete with acetylcholine for the postsynaptic receptor at the neuromuscular junction. If you overdosed your patient with one of these competitive drugs, what would the antidote need to do at the synapse?

a. Decrease the release of acetylcholine.
b. Decrease the effectiveness of acetylcholinesterase.
c. Decrease the influx of Ca2+ into the motor neuron terminal.
d. Decrease the action potential frequency on the motor neuron.
e. None of the above

A

Several antagonist drugs compete with acetylcholine for the postsynaptic receptor at the neuromuscular junction. If you overdosed your patient with one of these competitive drugs, what would the antidote need to do at the synapse?

a. Decrease the release of acetylcholine.
b. Decrease the effectiveness of acetylcholinesterase.
c. Decrease the influx of Ca2+ into the motor neuron terminal.
d. Decrease the action potential frequency on the motor neuron.
e. None of the above

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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding neuron-to-neuron
synapses is false?

a. The postsynaptic membrane is always a dendrite.
b. Dendritic spines increase the surface area of the postsynaptic membrane.
c. A single action potential on a presynaptic neuron is usually
not sufficient to produce an action potential on a postsynaptic neuron.
d. The neurotransmitter is not always released from a morphologically distinct active zone of the presynaptic terminal.
e. Depending on the presynaptic neurotransmitter released
and the postsynaptic receptor activated, the postsynaptic membrane can be either depolarized or hyperpolarized.

A

Which of the following statements regarding neuron-to-neuron
synapses is false?

a. The postsynaptic membrane is always a dendrite.
b. Dendritic spines increase the surface area of the postsynaptic membrane.
c. A single action potential on a presynaptic neuron is usually
not sufficient to produce an action potential on a postsynaptic neuron.
d. The neurotransmitter is not always released from a morphologically distinct active zone of the presynaptic terminal.
e. Depending on the presynaptic neurotransmitter released
and the postsynaptic receptor activated, the postsynaptic membrane can be either depolarized or hyperpolarized.

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15
Q

Troponin and tropomyosin are components of which one of the following structures?

a. Myosin thick filament
b. Sarcolemma
c. T tubule
d. Actin thin filament
e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Troponin and tropomyosin are components of which one of the following structures?

a. Myosin thick filament
b. Sarcolemma
c. T tubule
d. Actin thin filament
e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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16
Q

Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells trigger the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of what ion critical to the muscle’s contractile process?

a. Ca2+
b. Na+
c. K+
d. Cl–
e. HCO3–

A

Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells trigger the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of what ion critical to the muscle’s contractile process?

a. Ca2+
b. Na+
c. K+
d. Cl–
e. HCO3–

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17
Q

A gross skeletal muscle belly can be instructed (by the central
nervous system) to contract more forcefully by:

a. Causing more of its motor units to contract simultaneously.
b. Increasing the amount of acetylcholine released during each neuromuscular synaptic transmission.
c. Increasing the frequency of action potentials in the α motor
neuron’s axon.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.

A

A gross skeletal muscle belly can be instructed (by the central
nervous system) to contract more forcefully by:

a. Causing more of its motor units to contract simultaneously.
b. Increasing the amount of acetylcholine released during each neuromuscular synaptic transmission.
c. Increasing the frequency of action potentials in the α motor
neuron’s axon.
d. Both a and c.
e. Both b and c.

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18
Q

Which one of the following is not found in smooth muscle?

a. Actin filaments
b. Myosin filaments
c. T tubules
d. Voltage-gated calcium channels
e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Which one of the following is not found in smooth muscle?

a. Actin filaments
b. Myosin filaments
c. T tubules
d. Voltage-gated calcium channels
e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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19
Q

Choose the incorrect statement:

a. The muscle fiber and neuronal cell membranes are similar because they both have a resting membrane potential.
b. A whole muscle, such as the gastrocnemius muscle, can be
made to contract more forcefully by increasing the number
of motor units contracting.
c. The muscle membrane’s transverse tubular system transmits the action potential to the interior of the muscle cell.
d. The muscle cell membrane transmits action potentials by saltatory conduction.
e. The shortening of a skeletal muscle during contraction is caused by the sliding of actin along myosin filaments.

A

Choose the incorrect statement:

a. The muscle fiber and neuronal cell membranes are similar because they both have a resting membrane potential.
b. A whole muscle, such as the gastrocnemius muscle, can be
made to contract more forcefully by increasing the number
of motor units contracting.
c. The muscle membrane’s transverse tubular system transmits the action potential to the interior of the muscle cell.
d. The muscle cell membrane transmits action potentials by saltatory conduction.
e. The shortening of a skeletal muscle during contraction is caused by the sliding of actin along myosin filaments.

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20
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to be significantly associated with a muscle that is primarily involved in brief, powerful movements?

a. Large α motor neuron cell body
b. Small motor unit
c. Fast-twitch fibers
d. White muscle
e. Large motor unit

A

Which one of the following is least likely to be significantly associated with a muscle that is primarily involved in brief, powerful movements?

a. Large α motor neuron cell body
b. Small motor unit
c. Fast-twitch fibers
d. White muscle
e. Large motor unit

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21
Q

Which of the following is not always a component of a reflex arc?

a. Receptor
b. Sensory neuron (CNS afferent)
c. Central nervous system (CNS) interneuron
d. Motor neuron (CNS efferent)
e. Target (effector) organ

A

Which of the following is not always a component of a reflex arc?

a. Receptor
b. Sensory neuron (CNS afferent)
c. Central nervous system (CNS) interneuron
d. Motor neuron (CNS efferent)
e. Target (effector) organ

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22
Q

Which of the following regarding sensory receptors is false?

a. They transduce environmental signals, directly or indirectly, into neuronal action potentials.
b. A primary receptor can be a specialized peripheral region of a sensory neuron.
c. They directly transduce CNS action potentials into physical activity of a target organ.
d. They are the initial component of a reflex arc.

A

Which of the following regarding sensory receptors is false?

a. They transduce environmental signals, directly or indirectly, into neuronal action potentials.
b. A primary receptor can be a specialized peripheral region of a sensory neuron.
c. They directly transduce CNS action potentials into physical activity of a target organ.
d. They are the initial component of a reflex arc.

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23
Q

When the intensity with which a receptor is stimulated is increased, what happens to the frequency of action potentials
along the sensory neuron from that receptor?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No change

A

When the intensity with which a receptor is stimulated is increased, what happens to the frequency of action potentials
along the sensory neuron from that receptor?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No change

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24
Q

Which one of the following is an example of a segmental reflex?

a. Quadriceps stretch reflex
b. Cutaneous trunci reflex
c. Vestibulospinal postural reflexes

A

Which one of the following is an example of a segmental reflex?

a. Quadriceps stretch reflex
b. Cutaneous trunci reflex
c. Vestibulospinal postural reflexes

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25
Q

An intersegmental reflex arc is one in which:

a. The course of the arc is restricted to one or a small number
of segments of the CNS.
b. No target organ is present.
c. No receptor is present.
d. The course of the arc traverses several segments of the CNS.
e. Both b and c.

A

An intersegmental reflex arc is one in which:

a. The course of the arc is restricted to one or a small number
of segments of the CNS.
b. No target organ is present.
c. No receptor is present.
d. The course of the arc traverses several segments of the CNS.
e. Both b and c.

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26
Q

If the distance between the origin and insertion tendons is increased (the muscle is stretched), what happens to the frequency of action potentials along the sensory axons leaving the muscle
spindles in that muscle?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change

A

If the distance between the origin and insertion tendons is increased (the muscle is stretched), what happens to the frequency of action potentials along the sensory axons leaving the muscle
spindles in that muscle?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change

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27
Q

Activation of the Golgi tendon organ of a given muscle:

a. Monosynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
b. Is most effectively produced by lengthening of the extrafusal
fibers of that muscle.
c. Polysynaptically produces IPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
d. Polysynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
e. Activates motor neurons that return to the Golgi tendon organ itself

A

Activation of the Golgi tendon organ of a given muscle:

a. Monosynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
b. Is most effectively produced by lengthening of the extrafusal
fibers of that muscle.
c. Polysynaptically produces IPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
d. Polysynaptically produces EPSPs on the α motor neuron that returns to that muscle.
e. Activates motor neurons that return to the Golgi tendon organ itself

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28
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of the muscle spindle?

a. Encapsulated intrafusal fibers
b. Sensitivity to muscle tension
c. Sensitivity to dynamic stretching of the muscle
d. Lying parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibers
e. Sensitivity to steady-state length of the muscle

A

Which of the following is not characteristic of the muscle spindle?

a. Encapsulated intrafusal fibers
b. Sensitivity to muscle tension
c. Sensitivity to dynamic stretching of the muscle
d. Lying parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibers
e. Sensitivity to steady-state length of the muscle

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29
Q
A
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30
Q

Gamma (γ) motor neurons:

a. Innervate and produce contraction of the equatorial
(middle) region of an intrafusal fiber.
b. Have their cell bodies in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
c. Are never activated at the same time as α motor neurons.
d. Can regulate the sensitivity of the muscle spindle sensory organ.
e. Innervate and regulate the sensitivity of the Golgi tendon
organ.

A

D

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31
Q

Chapter 9

Which of the following would not be considered an upper motor neuron?

a. Bulbospinal motor neurons
b. Corticospinal motor neurons
c. Ventral horn α motor neurons of the spinal cord
d. Corticobulbar motor neurons

A

C

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32
Q

You examine a dog that is unable to stand and bear weight on the right rear leg. The right rear leg is much smaller in diameter
than the left rear leg. Pinching the toe on the left rear leg results in withdrawal of the left rear leg, but pinching the toe on the right rear leg results in no movement of the right rear leg. The proprioceptive placing response in the left rear leg is normal, but in the right rear leg it is absent. Where is this dog’s pathological lesion?
a. Lower motor neuron to the right rear leg
b. Lower motor neuron to the left rear leg
c. Upper motor neuron controlling the right rear leg
d. Upper motor neuron controlling the left rear leg
e. Neuromuscular synapse of the left rear leg

A

A

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33
Q

You examine a dog that is bright, alert, and responsive. She can stand and bear weight on both front legs, but she cannot
stand or bear any weight on the back legs. Her knee jerk and toe-pinch withdrawal reflexes are normal in all four legs. There
is no atrophy. The proprioceptive positioning response is normal
in the front legs but absent in both rear legs. Injecting acetylcholinesterase-inhibiting drugs causes no change in the
clinical signs. Where is this dog’s pathological lesion most likely located?

a. Neuromuscular junction
b. Cervical spinal cord (spinal cord of the neck)
c. Spinal cord between the front and rear legs (thoracolumbar spinal cord)
d. Lower motor neurons to the rear legs
e. Brainstem

A

C

34
Q

You examine a dog that is bright, alert, and responsive but unable to stand on any of the four legs. Toe-pinch and knee
jerk local (segmental) reflexes are normal in all four legs. There is no atrophy. The proprioceptive positioning response is absent in all four legs. Injecting an acetylcholinesterase-inhibiting drug
does not change the clinical signs. Where is this dog’s pathological lesion most likely located?

a. Cervical spinal cord (spinal cord in the neck)
b. Spinal cord between the front and rear legs (thoracolumbar spinal cord)
c. Lower motor neurons to all four legs
d. Neuromuscular junction

A

A

35
Q

You are presented with a horse that is unable to stand or support any weight on the hind legs. You electrically stimulate both the sciatic and the femoral nerves with a sufficient stimulus, but neither stimulation results in muscular contraction. However, direct stimulation of both the gastrocnemius and the quadriceps femoris muscles of the rear leg results in muscular contraction.
From these observations, what do you logically conclude to be the location of this horse’s pathological lesion?

a. Upper motor neurons controlling the rear legs
b. Lower motor neurons to the rear legs
c. Neuromuscular synapses of the rear legs
d. Muscles of the rear legs
e. Either b or c

A

E

36
Q

You examine a cat that cannot bear weight on the hind legs. The cat is bright, alert, and responsive. Atrophy is present in the back legs. Cranial nerve reflexes are within normal limits, as are segmental reflexes and the proprioceptive positioning responses of the front legs. Knee jerk and toe-pinch withdrawal
reflexes are absent in the hind legs. What is the most likely location for this cat’s pathological lesion?

a. Brainstem
b. Cervical spinal cord (spinal cord in the neck)
c. Thoracolumbar spinal cord (spinal cord between the front and rear legs)
d. Lower motor neurons to the front legs
e. Lower motor neurons to the hind legs

A

E

37
Q

Chapter 10

A motor neuron pool located most laterally in the ventral horn of the spinal cord is most likely to operate a muscle controlling movement of the:

a. Proximal limb
b. Neck
c. Distal limb
d. Abdomen

A

C

38
Q

Which of the following is true regarding decerebrate rigidity?

a. It can result from severe forebrain disease.
b. Disruption of the cortical control of medullary reticulospinal neurons is a major contributor to the condition.
c. It can result in a fixed, rigid, hobbyhorse-like posture in the
quadruped.
d. Removal of normal inhibition to some of the antigravity
muscles contributes to the condition.
e. All of the above are true.

A

E

39
Q

Which of the following descending brainstem motor pathways controls distal limb musculature associated with skilled
movement?

a. Medial vestibulospinal tract
b. Rubrospinal tract
c. Pontine reticulospinal tract
d. Tectospinal tract
e. All of the above play a major role in such control

A

B

40
Q

The corticospinal (pyramidal) tract, in general, initiates what form of movement?

a. Antigravity movement
b. Postural adjustment
c. Skilled, voluntary, mostly flexor movement
d. Tremulous, jerky movement
e. None of the above

A

C

41
Q

You are presented with a dog with a weakness, and proprioceptive
placing reaction deficit, of his left front and left back legs. A single pathological site could cause these signs if it were located in the:

a. Left side of the cervical spinal cord
b. Left cerebral cortex
c. Right cerebral cortex
d. Either a or b
e. Either a or c

A

E

42
Q

The corticospinal tract simultaneously co-activates both the αand the γ lower motor neurons. If the initial coactivation fails
to be sufficient to cause the intended shortening of the muscle, sensory neuron activity of the muscle spindle of that muscle will have what influence on the α motor neurons to the same muscle?

a. Addition of EPSPs
b. Addition of IPSPs
c. No influence
d. Decrease in action potential frequency
e. Either b or d

A

A

43
Q

Chapter 11

The receptor organ detecting rotary acceleration and deceleration
of the head is located in the:

a. Utricle
b. Saccule
c. Ampulla of the semicircular duct
d. Scala media of the cochlea
e. Vestibular nuclear complex

A

C

44
Q

Which two of the following are not generally associated with the macula?

a. Otoliths
b. Cupula
c. Detection of linear acceleration of the head
d. Hair cells
e. Normal nystagmus

A

B,E

45
Q

You are presented with a dog with a head tilt, compulsive circling, and spontaneous nystagmus. The most likely site of
this dog’s pathological lesion is the:

a. Oculomotor nucleus
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Vestibular system
d. Cervical spinal cord
e. Spinal accessory (eleventh cranial) nerve

A

C

46
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?

a. In a given utricle, the cilia of all of the hair cells are oriented in the same horizontal direction.
b. In a single vestibular hair cell, displacement of the cilia toward the largest cilium increases the firing rate of the hair cell’s associated sensory neuron.
c. The axons of sensory neurons synaptically associated with vestibular hair cells form the eighth cranial nerve.
d. A gelatinous layer is associated with the vestibular macula.
e. The vestibular nuclear complex is located in the brainstem.

A

A

47
Q

If a normal dog is sitting on a piano stool and I start to spin (accelerate) the stool to the right, which two of the following
will be false regarding the observed nystagmus?

a. The pattern of nystagmus observed at the start of rotation will be seen in reverse briefly after the spinning is abruptly
stopped.
b. An intact medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) is important for producing the nystagmus.
c. The nystagmus will continue long after constant velocity is achieved.
d. The eyes will drift slowly to the left, as far as they can go,
and then flip rapidly back to the right.
e. Nystagmus will often be observed long after the spinning
has stopped, while the dog is stationary

A

C,E

48
Q

Chapter 12

Which of the following is principally involved in planning ahead for the next appropriate movement?

a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
d. Archicerebellum
e. Both a and b

A

C

49
Q

Loss of the cerebellum causes immediately obvious sensory
deficits and prevents the initiation of movement.

a. True
b. False

A

B

50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding cerebellar Purkinje cells?

a. They are located in the cerebellar cortex.
b. They have large cell bodies.
c. They have an extensive dendritic tree.
d. When active, they inhibit the activity of cells in deep cerebellar nuclei, whose axons leave the cerebellum.
e. All the above

A

E

51
Q

Loss of the cerebellum causes loss of the muscle stretch reflex.

a. True
b. False

A

B

52
Q

Cats with congenital malformations of the cerebellum often have ataxia, intention tremor, and wide gait.

a. True
b. False

A

A

53
Q

Which one of the following regarding the spinocerebellum is false?

a. It receives inputs from muscle and cutaneous receptors.
b. It occupies the lateral zone of the cerebellar hemispheres.
c. It receives some input from primary somatosensory cortex.
d. It is sometimes called the paleocerebellum.
e. It receives some input from primary motor cortex.

A

B

54
Q

With regard to symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction, movements that continue either too long, or not long enough, are most correctly referred to as which one of the following?

a. Ataxia
b. Asynergia
c. Hypoplasia
d. Dysmetria

A

D

55
Q

Chapter 13

Choose the incorrect statement below:

a. A ganglion is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
b. Acetylcholine is a chemical transmitter at the parasympathetic postganglionic–to–target organ synapse.
c. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons are usually longer than those of the parasympathetic system.
d. The adrenal medulla secretes mostly norepinephrine and relatively little epinephrine.
e. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are found on peripheral targets of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

A

D

56
Q

A chemical neurotransmitter between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic component of
the autonomic nervous system is:

a. Norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Serotonin
e. γ-Aminobutyric acid

A

B

57
Q

A neurotransmitter most often found at the synapse between sympathetic postganglionic neurons and their targets is:

a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Dopamine
e. γ-Aminobutyric acid

A

A

58
Q

Which of the following is true regarding sympathetic preganglionic neurons?

a. Their cell bodies are located in thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
b. Their axons synapse within the sympathetic ganglion chain.
c. Their axons form splanchnic nerves.
d. Their axons travel in the ventral root.
e. All the above are true.

A

E

59
Q

Horner’s syndrome is caused by the loss of:

a. Sympathetic innervation to the eye.
b. Parasympathetic postganglionic innervation to the eye.
c. Peripheral muscarinic receptors.
d. Vagus nerve fibers.
e. Smooth muscle of the iris

A

A

60
Q

Chapter 14

A patient whose left pupil diameter is smaller than normal,whose left upper eyelid droops, and whose left “third eyelid”
is abnormally displaced likely has a lesion of which of the following structures?

a. Left oculomotor nerve
b. Left vagosympathetic nerve trunk
c. Right oculomotor nerve
d. Right vagosympathetic nerve trunk
e. Left optic tract

A

B

61
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of the cone system?

a. Many photoreceptors converging on single bipolar cell
b. Good visual acuity
c. Multiple photopigments
d. Day vision
e. Color vision
f. All the above are characteristic of the cone system

A

A

62
Q

In the veterinarian’s waiting room, your friend, a member of the soccer team, is trying without much success to explain the cause for the team’s recent losing trend. A variety of implausible explanations are proposed until she mentions that she is progressively losing vision, but only in her left visual field, and has frequent headaches. You recommend that she see a neurologist because she likely has a lesion in her:

a. Left optic tract
b. Right optic nerve
c. Right optic tract
d. Optic chiasm
e. Left optic radiations

A

C

63
Q

Which of the following regarding the lens is false?

a. It lies behind the iris.
b. It plays an important role in focusing a visual image on the retina.
c. It contains layered fibers in an “onion-like” arrangement.
d. Its shape does not normally change.
e. An increase in its opacity is called a cataract.

A

D

64
Q

You examine a patient’s pupillary light reflexes. Shining a light into the left eye produces both a positive direct and a positive consensual pupillary response. However, shining the light into the right eye produces neither a direct nor an indirect pupillary response. This patient’s pathological lesion is located in which
one of the following structures?

a. Left optic nerve
b. Left oculomotor nerve
c. Right optic nerve
d. Right oculomotor nerve
e. Left primary visual cortex

A

C

65
Q

Chapter 15

Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow at the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) would lead to dilation (enlargement) of the:

a. Lateral ventricles
b. Fourth ventricle
c. Central canal of the spinal cord
d. Subarachnoid space
e. Conus medullaris

A

A

66
Q

CSF is principally formed at the:

a. Arachnoid villi
b. Aqueduct of Sylvius
c. Choroid plexuses
d. Subarachnoid space
e. Dorsal sagittal sinus

A

C

67
Q

You are performing a spinal tap on an anesthetized horse and measuring CSF pressure. Cellular debris has obstructed the arachnoid villi following meningitis. What would you expect regarding CSF pressure?

a. Pressure would be higher than normal
b. Pressure would be lower than normal
c. Pressure would be normal

A

A

68
Q

For many veterinary species, diagnostic sampling of CSF is often performed by placing a sampling needle in the:

a. Lateral ventricles
b. Dorsal sagittal sinus
c. Third ventricle
d. Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
e. Cisterna magna

A

E

69
Q

Which two of the following are false regarding the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?

a. The BBB is very effective at the circumventricular organs of the brain.
b. Astrocytic end-feet are part of the neurovascular unit.
c. Brain capillaries generally have a high number of endothelial tight junctions.
d. Many dyes injected into the blood can typically penetrate most tissues of the body but usually not the brain.
e. Small, uncharged, lipid-soluble molecules do not generally
pass through the BBB

A

A, E

70
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the glymphatic system is false?

a. Venous perivascular spaces are a major component.
b. It plays an important role in clearance of interstitial fluid waste products from the brain.
c. Brain arterial pulsatility is a driving force for the system.
d. Movement of water through aquaporin water channels on microglial end-feet is an important functional component.
e. Intracranial lymphatic vessels may represent an important drainage route for the system.

A

D

71
Q

Chapter 16 The Electroencephalogram and Sensory-Evoked Potentials

Which of the following regarding EEG is false?

a. Its measurement relies on volume conduction.
b. It predominantly measures postsynaptic potentials in the
cerebral cortex.
c. It is commonly used to measure the activity of a small number of neurons.
d. It is a measure of the spontaneous activity of brain tissue.
e. Both a and d.

A

C

72
Q

Chapter 16 The Electroencephalogram and Sensory-Evoked Potentials

A lesion in which of the following brain structures would be least likely to have a significant effect on the EEG?

a. Cerebral cortex
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebellum
e. Reticular activating system

A

D

73
Q

Chapter 16 The Electroencephalogram and Sensory-Evoked Potentials

Which of the following statements is true?

a. A slow-frequency, high-amplitude EEG is said to be “desynchronized.”
b. The EEG alone is used to confirm brain death.
c. There are some periods of high-frequency, low-amplitude EEG during sleep.
d. The EEG is usually measured in response to the stimulation of a sensory receptor organ.

A

C

74
Q

Chapter 16 The Electroencephalogram and Sensory-Evoked Potentials

The BAER requires averaging out the random background EEG activity before it can be observed.

a. True
b. False

A

A

75
Q

Chapter 16 The Electroencephalogram and Sensory-Evoked Potentials

A brain tumor may cause focal slowing of the EEG from the brain tissue immediately surrounding the tumor.

a. True
b. False

A

A

76
Q

Chapter 17

Which one of the following is the first to be displaced by sound energy entering the ear?

a. Oval window
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Basilar membrane
d. Tympanic membrane
e. Stapes

A

D

77
Q

Hair cells similar to those of the organ of Corti are important for the function of which two of the following sensory organs?

a. Muscle spindle
b. Retina
c. Crista ampullaris
d. Golgi tendon organ
e. Utricular macula

A

C, E

78
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?
a. An increase in sound wave frequency is perceived as an increase in pitch.
b. The area of greatest displacement of the basilar membrane moves closer to its base (toward the oval window) as the
sound wave frequency decreases.
c. A decrease in sound wave amplitude is perceived as decreased loudness.
d. An increase in sound wave amplitude displaces a longer region of the basilar membrane.
e. Contraction of muscles attached to the ossicles reduces the sound energy reaching the inner ear

A

B

79
Q

Which one of the following cranial nerves transmits sound to the brain?

a. Second
b. Seventh
c. Eighth
d. Tenth

A

C

80
Q

Of the following brain nuclei, which one receives auditory information last?

a. Medial geniculate nucleus
b. Cochlear nuclei
c. Superior olivary complex
d. Inferior colliculus

A

A