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NASM personal training > Section 5 - Exercise Technique and Training instruction > Flashcards

Section 5 - Exercise Technique and Training instruction Flashcards

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1
Q

Integrated training

A

A training concept that applies all forms of exercise, such as flexibility; cardiorespiratory; core; balance; plyometric; speed, agility, quickness; and resistance training, into one system.

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2
Q

Progressive overload

A

Increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach.

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3
Q

Self-efficacy

A

One’s belief that they can complete a task, goal, or performance; also known as self-confidence.

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3
Q

Fundamental movement patterns

A

Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session.

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4
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

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5
Q

Posture

A

The relative disposition of the body parts in relation to the physical position, such as standing, lying down, and sitting.

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6
Q

Muscle imbalance

A

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

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7
Q

Unilateral

A

Relating to one side of the body.

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8
Q

Bilateral

A

Relating to two sides of the body.

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9
Q

Range of motion (ROM)

A

The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.

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10
Q

Acute variables

A

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed; also known as exercise training variables.

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11
Q

Repetition

A

One complete movement of an exercise.

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12
Q

Set

A

A group of consecutive repetitions.

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13
Q

Training intensity

A

An individual’s level of effort compared with his or her maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

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14
Q

Superset

A

Two exercises performed back to back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest.

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14
Q

Training volume

A

The sum of the repetitions performed in a given set during each training session, multiplied by the resistance used.

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14
Q

Rate of force production

A

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

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15
Q

Rest interval

A

The time taken to recuperate between sets.

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16
Q

Flexibility

A

The normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of motion of a joint.

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17
Q

Extensibility

A

Capability to be elongated or stretched.

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17
Q

Range of motion (ROM)

A

The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.

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18
Q

Mobility

A

Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.

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19
Q

Myofascial

A

The body’s connective tissue that includes muscles and fascia.

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20
Q

Relative flexibility

A

The process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance during functional movements.

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21
Q

Soft tissue

A

Tissue connecting, supporting, and surrounding bodily structures and organs.

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22
Q

Which portion of a client’s exercise program should be designed first?

A

The flexibility portion

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23
Q

Postural distortion patterns

A

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances.

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24
Q

Underactive

A

When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment.

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24
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.

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24
Q

Force-couple relationships

A

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.

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25
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.

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26
Q

Overactive

A

When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.

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27
Q

Synergistic dominance

A

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist).

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28
Q

Muscle spindle

A

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.

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28
Q

Neuromuscular efficiency

A

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

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29
Q

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

A

A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.

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29
Q

Stretch reflex

A

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

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30
Q

Autogenic inhibition

A

The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

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30
Q

What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?

A

Synergistic dominance

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31
Q

Lengthening reaction

A

When a muscle is lengthened, a cascade of neurological reactions occur that allows the muscle to be stretched.

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32
Q

Static stretching

A

A type of stretch where the muscle is passively lengthened to the point of tension and held for a sustained amount of time.

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33
Q

Pattern overload

A

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion over long periods of time that can lead to dysfunction or injury.

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34
Q

Cumulative injury cycle

A

A cycle whereby tissue trauma will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances.

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35
Q

Nociceptors

A

Pain receptors located in the skin and fascial connective tissues.

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36
Q

Davis’s law

A

States that soft tissue models along the line of stress.

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37
Q

Collagen matrix

A

A complex meshwork of connective tissue, including collagen proteins.

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38
Q

Self-myofascial techniques

A

Techniques used for treating and breaking up adhesions of the fascia and the surrounding muscle tissues; examples include foam rolling or self-massage.

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39
Q

Fascial system

A

A web of connecting fibers made of connective tissues that are found just under the skin.

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40
Q

mechanical effect

A

having a physical effect

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41
Q

Neurophysiological effect

A

having an effect on the nervous system

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42
Q

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

A

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

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43
Q

Medical precautions

A

Any medical conditions that could be potentially unsafe for a client.

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44
Q

Contraindication

A

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

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45
Q

Stretch tolerance

A

The ability to experience the physical sensations of stretching to reduce the discomfort felt at the end range of motion.

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46
Q

Active stretching

A

A type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion; includes holding the stretched position for 1–2 seconds and repeating for 5–10 repetitions.

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47
Q

Dynamic stretching

A

A type of stretching that uses the force production of a muscle and the body’s momentum to take a joint through the full available range of motion.

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48
Q

Controversial stretches

A

Stretches that have the potential for injury risk.

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49
Q

Cardiorespiratory fitness

A

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to provide the body with oxygen during activity.

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50
Q

Activities of daily living (ADL)

A

The fundamental tasks needed to manage basic self-care activities, such as bathing, dressing, grooming, meal preparation and feeding, and homemaking.

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51
Q

Rate of progression

A

The process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased.

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52
Q

Frequency

A

The number of training sessions in a given timeframe.

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52
Q

Intensity

A

The level of demand placed on the body by a given activity.

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53
Q

Tanaka formula

A

A mathematical formula used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate: 208 – (0.7 × age).

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54
Q

Target heart rate

A

A predetermined exercising heart rate.

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55
Q

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

A

The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.

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55
Q

Overtraining

A

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery.

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56
Q

Steady-state (SS) aerobic exercise

A

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

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57
Q

General warm-up

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

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58
Q

Specific warm-up

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

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59
Q

Principle of specificity

A

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands (SAID) principle.

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60
Q

Ventilation

A

Process by which oxygen is transferred to the muscles from the lungs.

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60
Q

Midpoint

A

Refers to the intensity level halfway between ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) and ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2).

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61
Q

Inspiration

A

The process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.

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62
Q

Core stability

A

The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.

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63
Q

Core endurance

A

The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration.

64
Q

Core strength

A

The ability to control the motion of the spine.

65
Q

Core

A

The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint.

66
Q

Lordotic/Lordosis

A

The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine.

67
Q

Kyphotic/Kyphosis

A

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.

68
Q

Anterior pelvic tilt

A

An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.

69
Q

Posterior pelvic tilt

A

An excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis.

70
Q

Scoliosis

A

An abnormal curve of the spine from side to side.

71
Q

Drawing-in maneuver

A

A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing in the navel toward the spine.

72
Q

Bracing

A

Contracting the global abdominals such as the rectus abdominis and obliques at the same time.

73
Q

What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?

A

Poor activation of the local core

74
Q

Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?

A

Kneeling Pallof press

75
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

A

Local muscles

76
Q

What is the superior boundary of the core?

A

Diaphragm

77
Q

Which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?

A

Iliopsoas

78
Q

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

A

multifidus

79
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?

A

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

80
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

A

Hip extension

81
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

A

Side plank

82
Q

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

A

Transverse abdominis

83
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

A

Gluteus medius

84
Q

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

A

Rotatores

85
Q

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

A

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

86
Q

Center of gravity

A

The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.

87
Q

Base of support

A

The area beneath a person that consists of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface.

88
Q

Limits of stability

A

The area within which an individual can move one’s center of gravity without changing the base of support (i.e., moving the feet) without falling.

89
Q

Semi-dynamic balance

A

The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.

90
Q

Static balance

A

The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.

91
Q

Dynamic balance

A

The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.

92
Q

Vestibular system

A

Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance.

93
Q

Sensorimotor function

A

The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.

93
Q

Neuromuscular control

A

The response (conscious or unconscious) of the muscles within the body to control purposeful movement.

94
Q

Somatosensory system

A

Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface.

95
Q

Systematic review

A

A type of research article that synthesizes and summarizes findings from multiple existing research articles on a specific topic.

96
Q

Perturbation

A

An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force.

97
Q

Proprioceptively enriched environment

A

An unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.

98
Q

What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?

A

Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position

99
Q

Plyometric training

A

Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.

100
Q

Neuromuscular efficiency

A

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

100
Q

Ground reaction force

A

Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.

101
Q

Integrated performance paradigm

A

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

101
Q

Amortization phase

A

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.

102
Q

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

A

Tissue overload

103
Q

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?

A

Landing mechanics

104
Q

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

105
Q

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?

A

Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

106
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

107
Q

What is plyometric training also known as?

A

Reactive training

108
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

A

Isometric

109
Q

Speed

A

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

110
Q

Agility

A

The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control.

111
Q

Quickness

A

The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during dynamic activities.

112
Q

Stride rate

A

The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).

113
Q

Stride length

A

The distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle.

114
Q

Frontside mechanics

A

Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and a neutral pelvis.

115
Q

Backside mechanics

A

Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and a neutral pelvis.

116
Q

What term is used to describe ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg while sprinting?

A

Triple extension

117
Q

Bone density

A

The amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus, in a segment of bone

118
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

118
Q

Osteopenia

A

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

119
Q

Sarcopenia

A

An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.

120
Q

When performing the T-Drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?

A

Backpedal

121
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?

A

0 to 60 seconds

122
Q

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

A

10%

123
Q

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

A

Describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

124
Q

Alarm reaction stage

A

The initial reaction to a stressor.

125
Q

Resistance development

A

The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to a stressor.

126
Q

Exhaustion

A

Prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system.

127
Q

Mechanical specificity

A

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.

128
Q

Neuromuscular specificity

A

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

129
Q

Metabolic specificity

A

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.

130
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

131
Q

Stabilization

A

The body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.

132
Q

Muscular endurance

A

The ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.

133
Q

Acute Variables

A

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed; also known as exercise training variables.

134
Q

Acute variables include the following

A

Repetitions
Sets
Training intensity
Repetition tempo
Rest intervals
Training volume
Training frequency
Training duration
Exercise selection
Exercise order

135
Q

Repetition

A

One complete movement of an exercise.

136
Q

Training intensity

A

An individual’s level of effort compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

137
Q

Set

A

A group of consecutive repetitions.

138
Q

Repetition tempo

A

The speed at which each repetition is performed.

139
Q

Rest interval

A

The time taken to recuperate between sets.

140
Q

The five components of fitness include the following:

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Muscular strength
Muscular endurance
Flexibility
Body composition

140
Q

Training duration

A

the length of a training session

141
Q

What is calculated by totaling the number of repetitions performed in a set during a training session, then multiplying it by the resistance used?

A

Training volume

141
Q

Post-activation potentiation (PAP)

A

The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle.

142
Q

Vertical loading

A

Alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving toward the lower extremity.

143
Q

Horizontal loading

A

Performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part.

144
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

145
Q

Proprioception

A

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

146
Q

Bilateral

A

Relating to two sides of the body.

147
Q

Unilateral

A

Relating to one side of the body.

148
Q

Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?

A

Single-leg squat to row

149
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?

A

Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

150
Q

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

A

The fitness professional should spot underneath the client’s armpits.

151
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?

A

Transverse abdominis

151
Q

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?

A

As far as can be controlled without compensating

152
Q

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

A

10 minutes

153
Q

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?

A

no more than 10%

154
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

A

Ankle plantar flexion

155
Q

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?

A

Speed

156
Q

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?

A

This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

157
Q

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?

A

A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

158
Q

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?

A

Inferiorly

159
Q

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?

A

Ball squat, curl to press

160
Q

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?

A

208 - (0.7 x age)

161
Q

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?

A

stage 2

162
Q

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

A

Isometrically contracted

163
Q

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

A

75 minutes per week

164
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

A

Neuromuscular function

165
Q

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?

A

Hip extension

166
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

A

Hip extension

167
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

NASM personal training (7 decks)

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