Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM personal training > Section 3 - Basic and applied sciences and Nutritional concepts > Flashcards

Section 3 - Basic and applied sciences and Nutritional concepts Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

Human movement system (HMS)

A

The collective components and structures that work together to move the body: muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Kinetic chain

A

A concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nervous system

A

A network of specialized cells called neurons that transmit and coordinate signals, providing a communication network within the human body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neuron

A

Specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nucleus

A

Cellular structure or organelle that contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material in the form of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Organelles

A

Tiny cellular structures that perform specific functions within a cell. Examples include nuclei, mitochondria, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mitochondria

A

The parts of the cell that use nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouses of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Effector sites

A

A part of the body, such as a muscle or organ, that receives a signal from a neuron to produce a physiological response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Electrolytes

A

Minerals that have an electrical charge to help transmit nerve impulses throughout the body, such as sodium, potassium, and magnesium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Central nervous system (CNS)

A

A division of the nervous system that includes the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

Nerves that connect the rest of the body to the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Afferent pathway

A

Sensory pathway that relays information to the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Efferent pathway

A

A motor pathway that relays information from the central nervous system to the rest of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Interneurons

A

Neurons located within the spinal cord and brain that transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

Nerves that serve the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle and are largely responsible for the voluntary control of movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

A division of the peripheral nervous system that supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body (e.g., circulating blood, digesting food, producing hormones).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that works to increase neural activity and put the body in a heightened state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that works to decrease neural activity and put the body in a more relaxed state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sensory function

A

Ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Proprioception

A

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Integrative function

A

The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret the sensory information to allow for proper decision-making, which produces an appropriate response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Motor function

A

The neuromuscular (or nervous and muscular systems) response to the integrated sensory information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Muscle spindles

A

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Stretch reflex

A

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

A

A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Joint receptors

A

Receptors located in and around the joint capsule that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

The concept that the brain will continually change or grow, reforming neural pathways throughout an individual’s entire life span.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Neurocircuitry

A

The interconnection of neurons in the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Motor skills

A

Specific movements through the coordinated effort of the sensory and motor subsystems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Skeletal system

A

A description of the bones of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Joints

A

The sites where two bones meet and movement occurs as a result of muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Axial skeleton

A

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, the rib cage, and the vertebral column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Levers

A

Rigid rods where muscles attach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Remodeling

A

The process by which bone is constantly renewed by the resorption and formation of the bone structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Special cells that break down and remove old bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Special cells that form and lay down new bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Wolff’s law

A

Scientific explanation of how remodeling (new bone growth) occurs along the lines of stress placed on the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Depressions

A

Flattened or indented portions of bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Processes

A

Projections protruding from the bone where tendons or ligaments can attach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Vertebral column

A

Bones that house the spinal cord; consists of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbosacral regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Spinal cord

A

Bundle of nerves housed within the vertebrae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Intervertebral discs

A

Fibrous cartilage structures between vertebrae that act as shock absorbers and assist with movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Neutral Spine

A

Represents a position in which the vertebrae and associated structures are under the least amount of load and can most optimally support functional movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Osteokinematics

A

movement of a limb that is visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Synovial joints

A

a joint with a fluid filled joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Non Axial

A

A gliding joint that moves in only one plane, either back and forth or side to side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Nonsynovial joints

A

Joints that have no joint capsule, fibrous connective tissue, or cartilage in the uniting structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ligament

A

A fibrous connective tissue that connects bone to bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Collagen

A

A protein found in connective tissue, muscles, and skin that provides strength and structure. It is the most abundant protein in the human body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Elastin

A

A protein that provides elasticity to skin, tendons, ligaments, and other structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Growth Plate

A

A specialized cartilage disc located in the epiphysis that is responsible for longitudinal bone growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

The type of muscle tissue that connects to bones and generates the forces that create movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fascia

A

Connective tissue that surrounds muscles and bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Epimysium

A

Inner layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle, commonly referred to as the “deep fascia.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Fascicles

A

Largest bundles of fibers within a muscle. Fascicles are surrounded by perimysium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Perimysium

A

Connective tissue surrounding a muscle fascicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Endomysium

A

Connective tissue that wraps around individual muscle fibers within a fascicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Glycogen

A

Glucose that is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Myoglobin

A

Protein-based molecule that carries oxygen molecules into the muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Myofibrils

A

The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within a myofibril.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Myofilaments

A

The filaments of a myofibril; include actin and myosin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Actin

A

The thin, stringlike, myofilament that acts along with myosin to produce muscular contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Myosin

A

The thick myofilament that acts along with actin to produce muscular contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sarcomere

A

The structural unit of a myofibril composed of actin and myosin filaments between two Z-lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Z-line

A

the meeting point of each Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Neural activation

A

The nervous system’s signal that tells a muscle to contract.

Neuromuscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

The specialized site where the nervous system communicates directly with muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Synapse

A

A junction or small gap between the motor neuron and muscle cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Motor unit

A

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Action potential

A

Nerve impulse that is relayed from the central nervous system, through the peripheral nervous system, and into the muscle across the neuromuscular junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemical messengers that cross the synapse between neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

A neurotransmitter that helps the action potential cross the synapse into the muscle, which initiates the steps in a muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Sliding filament theory

A

The series of steps in muscle contraction involving how myosin (thick) and actin (thin) filaments slide past one another to produce a muscle contraction, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Excitation-contraction coupling

A

The physiological process of converting an electrical stimulus to a muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Power stroke

A

The myosin heads bind to actin and pull them toward the sarcomere center, which slides the filaments past each other, shortening the muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Resting length

A

The length of a muscle when it is not actively contracting or being stretched.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Type I muscle fibers

A

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Type II muscle fibers

A

Muscle fibers that are larger in size, generate higher amounts of force, and are faster to fatigue.

All-o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

All-or-nothing principle

A

Motor units cannot vary the amount of force they generate; they either contract maximally or not at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Capillaries

A

The smallest blood vessels and the site of exchange of elements between the blood and the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following refers to the series of steps in muscle contraction?

A

The sliding filament theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cardiorespiratory system

A

A system of the body composed of the heart, blood, blood vessels, lungs, and airways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cardiovascular system

A

A system of the body, also known as the circulatory system, that transports blood to tissues of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Thoracic cavity

A

Chamber within the chest that contains the heart and lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Mediastinum

A

The space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs of the chest (e.g., heart, esophagus) except the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Muscle of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Smooth muscle

A

An involuntary nonstriated muscle type that is found in organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Atrium (atria)

A

Superior chamber(s) of the heart that gathers blood returning to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Ventricle

A

Inferior chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs and body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Intercalated discs

A

Found in the heart, these formations help hold together muscle cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Resting heart rate (RHR)

A

The number of heart beats per minute while at complete rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

Located in the right atrium, this node initiates an electrical signal that causes the heart to beat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

Located between the atria and ventricles, this node delays the impulse from the sinoatrial node before allowing it to pass to the ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Stroke volume

A

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

End-diastolic volume

A

The filled volume of the ventricle before contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

End-systolic volume

A

The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after ejection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Heart rate (HR)

A

The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Bradycardia

A

When the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Tachycardia

A

When the heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Cardiac output (Q)

A

The overall performance of the heart (heart rate × stroke volume).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Blood

A

Fluid that circulates in the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins; it carries nutrients and oxygen to all parts of the body and also transports waste products from the body to other compartments or organs for either processing (e.g., liver) or excretion (e.g., kidney).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Growth factors

A

Substances within the blood that attach to cells, aid in growth and development, and help with healing after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Stem cells

A

Cells within the body that divide and develop into specialized cells, such as brain cells, blood cells, heart cells, and bone cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Blood vessels

A

Network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Arteries

A

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Veins

A

Vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart and then to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Arterioles

A

Small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Venules

A

Small veins that allows blood to drain from capillaries into the larger veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Vasculogenesis

A

The formation of new capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Angiogenesis

A

The formation of new capillaries from existing blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Venous pooling

A

The accumulation of blood into the extremities due to slow blood flow though the veins (venous return) or backflow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Peripheral resistance

A

The amount of resistance in the arteries that must be overcome for blood to flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Hypertension

A

Consistently elevated blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the right side of the heart referred to as?

A

The pulmonic side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Respiratory system

A

A bodily system, also known as the pulmonary system, that brings oxygen into the lungs from breathed air while removing carbon dioxide from the lungs into the outside air; includes airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Respiratory pump

A

Composed of skeletal structures (bones) and soft tissues (muscles) that work together to allow for proper respiratory mechanics as well as pumping blood back to the heart during inspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Inspiration

A

The process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Expiration

A

The process of actively or passively relaxing the inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Diffusion

A

The process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Tachypnea

A

Respiratory rate that is too fast; greater than 24 breaths per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Bradypnea

A

Respiratory rate that is too slow; fewer than 8 breaths per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Dyspnea

A

Shortness of breath or labored breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Diaphragmatic breathing

A

Breathing deeply by allowing the expansion of the abdominal area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the primary role of the respiratory system?

A

To ensure proper cellular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Lipolysis

A

The breakdown and utilization of fat for energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Enzyme

A

A substance in the body that causes a specific reaction or change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Glands

A

Organs that release substances into the bloodstream (such as hormones) or other surface of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Hormone

A

Chemical messenger released from a gland that travels to cells to activate a specific function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Target (receptor) cell

A

Cell that receives a message from a hormone or enzyme. Target cells exert an action after being stimulated or activated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Hypothalamus

A

A gland located in the brain that communicates with the pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Pineal gland

A

A small gland in the brain that secretes the hormone melatonin, which helps regulate sleep cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pancreas

A

An organ with numerous functions, including the production of insulin, glucagon, and digestive juices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Thyroid gland

A

An endocrine gland, located in the anterior neck, responsible for the secretion of many hormones, including thyroxin and calcitonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Pituitary gland

A

An endocrine gland that controls the secretion of many hormones, including growth hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Adrenal gland

A

A gland, located just above the kidneys, responsible for the secretion of catecholamines and cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Reproductive glands

A

Glands, such as the ovaries or testes, that serve sex-specific functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Insulin

A

A hormone secreted by the pancreas that is responsible for glucose metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Glucagon

A

A hormone secreted by the pancreas that regulates blood glucose and functions opposite to insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Gylcogen

A

Glucose that is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Growth hormone

A

An anabolic hormone produced by the pituitary gland that is responsible for growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Catecholamines

A

Hormones produced by the adrenal glands that are part of the stress response known as the fight-or-flight response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Catabolic

A

Metabolic process that breaks down molecules into smaller units used for energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources (proteins and fats).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Overtraining

A

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Testosterone

A

A hormone producing secondary male sex characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Anabolic

A

Metabolic process that synthesizes smaller molecules into larger units used for building and repairing tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Insulin-like growth factors (IGF)

A

Anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Calcitonin

A

Thyroid hormone that helps the body use calcium properly to aid with maintaining bone mineral density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Glucose intolerance

A

A condition that results in elevated blood glucose levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Gall bladder

A

An organ found below the liver, on the right side of the body, that receives bile from the liver and secretes it into the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Liver

A

An organ in the upper-right abdominal cavity with numerous functions, including the production and secretion of bile, which is stored and concentrated in the gall bladder prior to release into the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Motility

A

In the digestive system, refers to movements of the anatomical structures that allow contents to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Mastication

A

The mechanical process whereby the oral muscles break down food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Peristalsis

A

The muscle action of the gastrointestinal system that pushes food through the body during digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Digestion

A

Multistep process that describes the passage of food through the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Ingestion

A

The act of taking food, liquid, or other substances into the body in preparation for digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Absorbtion

A

The process of nutrients being absorbed into the body during the digestive process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Esophagus

A

The anatomical part of the digestive tract that allows food to pass from oral cavity to stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Chyme

A

A semifluid mass of digested food that is passed from the stomach to the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Duodenum

A

Part of the small intestine that resides between the stomach and the jejunum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Jejunum

A

Part of the small intestine that resides between the duodenum and the ileum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Regional interdependence model

A

The concept describing the integrated functioning of multiple body systems or regions of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Ileum

A

The final section of the small intestine, located between the jejunum and the cecum and leads to the large intestine.

172
Q

Biomechanics

A

The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.

173
Q

Kinesiology

A

Study of movement as it relates to anatomy and physiology.

174
Q

Anatomic position

A

The position with the body erect, the arms at the sides, and the palms forward. It is the position of reference for anatomic nomenclature.

175
Q

Sagittal plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves.

176
Q

Flexion

A

A bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases.

177
Q

Extension

A

A straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases.

178
Q

Hyperextension

A

Extension of a joint beyond the normal limit or range of motion.

179
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Flexion occurring at the ankle.

180
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Extension occurring at the ankle. Pointing the foot downwards.

181
Q

Frontal plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves. Movement in the frontal plane includes abduction, adduction, and side-to-side motions.

182
Q

Abduction

A

A movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body.

183
Q

Adduction

A

Movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body.

184
Q

Lateral Flexion

A

Bending of the spine from side to side.

185
Q

Eversion

A

A movement in which the inferior calcaneus (heel bone) moves laterally. The bottom of foot faces outward.

186
Q

Inversion

A

A movement in which the inferior calcaneus (heel bone) moves medially. Bottom of foot faces inward.

187
Q

Transverse plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves.

188
Q

Internal rotation

A

Rotation of a body segment toward the middle of the body.

189
Q

External rotation

A

Rotation of a body segment away from the middle of the body.

190
Q

Horizontal Abdution

A

Movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from an anterior position to a lateral position.

191
Q

Horizontal Adduction

A

Movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position.

192
Q

Radioulnar pronation

A

Inward rotation of the forearm from a palm-up position to a palm-down position.

193
Q

Radioulnar supination

A

Outward rotation of the forearm from a palm-down position to a palm-up position.

194
Q

Pronation of the foot

A

Multiplanar movement of the foot and ankle complex consisting of eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction; associated with force reduction.

195
Q

Supination of the foot

A

Multiplanar movement of the foot and ankle complex consisting of inversion, plantar flexion, and ankle adduction; associated with force production.

196
Q

Gait

A

Biomechanical motion of the lower extremities during walking, running, and sprinting.

197
Q

Scapular retraction

A

Adduction of scapulae; shoulder blades move toward the midline.

198
Q

Scapular protraction

A

Abduction of scapulae; shoulder blades move away from the midline.

199
Q

Scapular depression

A

Downward (inferior) motion of the scapulae.

200
Q

Scapular elevation

A

Upward (superior) motion of the scapulae.

201
Q

Flexibility

A

The normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of motion of a joint.

202
Q

Hypermobility

A

A state where a lack of neuromuscular support leads to a joint having more range of motion than it should, greatly increasing the risk of injury at that joint.

203
Q

Hypomobility

A

When range of motion at a joint is limited.

204
Q

Eccentric muscle action

A

A muscle action that occurs when a muscle develops tension while lengthening.

205
Q

Motor unit

A

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.

206
Q

Concentric Muscle Action

A

A muscle action that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle.

207
Q

Isometric muscle action

A

When a muscle is exerting force equal to the force being placed on it leading to no visible change in the muscle length.

208
Q

Core

A

The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint.

209
Q

Muscle action spectrum

A

The full range of eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle contractions required to perform a movement.

210
Q

What are the three overarching types of muscle actions?

A

Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic

211
Q

Agonists

A

The primary muscles providing force for a movement.

212
Q

Synergists

A

Muscles that assist agonists to produce a movement.

213
Q

Stabilizers

A

Muscles that contract isometrically to stabilize the trunk and joints as the body moves.

214
Q

Feed-forward activation

A

When a muscle is automatically activated in anticipation of a movement.

215
Q

Antagonists

A

Muscles on the opposite side of a joint that are in direct opposition of agonist muscles.

216
Q

Muscle balance

A

When all muscles surrounding a joint have optimal length-tension relationships, allowing the joint to rest in a neutral position.

217
Q

Altered length relationship

A

When a muscle’s resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.

218
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.

219
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.

220
Q

Muscle imbalance

A

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

221
Q

Neutral position

A

The optimal resting position of a joint that allows it to function efficiently through its entire normal range of motion.

222
Q

Stretch-shortening cycle

A

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.

223
Q

Series elastic component

A

Springlike noncontractile component of muscle and tendon that stores elastic energy.

224
Q

Amortization phase

A

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.

225
Q

Stretch reflex

A

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

226
Q

Integrated performance paradigm

A

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

227
Q

Force-couple relationship

A

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.

228
Q

Joint support systems

A

Muscular stabilization systems located in joints distal of the spine.

229
Q

Rotary motion

A

Movement of the bones around the joints.

230
Q

Torque

A

A force that produces rotation; common unit of measurement is the Newton meter (Nm).

231
Q

What does the term force refer to?

A

The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration

232
Q

Motor behavior

A

Motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli.

233
Q

Motor control

A

How the central nervous system integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response.

234
Q

Motor learning

A

Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior.

235
Q

Motor development

A

Change in skilled motor behavior over time throughout the life span.

236
Q

Muscle synergies

A

Groups of muscles that are recruited simultaneously by the central nervous system to provide movement.

237
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

238
Q

Proprioception

A

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

239
Q

Sensorimotor integration

A

Cooperation of the nervous and muscular system in gathering and interpreting information and executing movement.

239
Q

Feedback

A

Use of sensory information and sensorimotor integration to help the human movement system in motor learning.

240
Q

Internal feedback

A

Process whereby sensory information is used by the body to reactively monitor movement and the environment.

241
Q

External feedback

A

Information provided by some external source, such as a fitness professional, video, mirror, or heart rate monitor, to supplement the internal environment.

242
Q

Neuromuscular efficiency

A

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

243
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

244
Q

Bioenergetics

A

The study of energy in the human body.

245
Q

Metabolism

A

All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself.

246
Q

Exercise metabolism

A

The examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands placed on the body during exercise.

247
Q

Macronutrients

A

Food substances required in large amounts to supply energy and include protein, carbohydrate, and fat.

247
Q

First law of thermodynamics

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed but merely converted from one form to another.

248
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

249
Q

Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)

A

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

250
Q

Ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)

A

The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity.

251
Q

Free fatty acids

A

The by-products of the breakdown of stored or consumed fats, metabolized exclusively via the aerobic pathway, which uses oxygen to create adenosine triphosphate

251
Q

Fats

A

One of the three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body. Fats help the body use some vitamins and keep the skin healthy. They also serve as energy stores for the body. In food, there are two types of fats: saturated and unsaturated.

251
Q

Triglyceride

A

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

252
Q

Protein

A

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds; the building blocks of body tissues.

253
Q

Essential amino acid (EAA)

A

Amino acid that must be obtained through the diet as the body does not make it; there are nine essential amino acids.

254
Q

Nonessential amino acids

A

Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body and do not, under normal circumstances, need to be obtained in the diet.

254
Q

Negative energy balance

A

When calorie intake is lower than the number of calories expended.

255
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources (proteins and fats).

256
Q

Ketogenesis

A

The formation of ketone bodies from nonfat sources, such as certain amino acids.

257
Q

Ketone bodies

A

Water-soluble molecules produced in the liver as a result of fatty acid oxidation. They can then be oxidized in the mitochondria to produce adenosine triphosphate.

258
Q

Ketosis

A

A state of carbohydrate depletion where the liver manufactures ketone bodies to meet energy demands that free fatty acid oxidation cannot support

259
Q

Exogenous ketones

A

Isolated ketone bodies usually consumed in supplement form.

260
Q

Insulin resistance

A

The inability of the cells to respond to insulin; occurs in type 2 diabetes.

261
Q

Ketoacidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis induced by very high levels of ketone bodies such as seen in type 1 diabetes or severe insulin resistance.

262
Q

For conversion purposes, how many calories equals 1 pound (about 0.5 kilogram) of body fat?

A

3,500 calories

262
Q

Of the 20 amino acids used by the human body, how many are called essential amino acids?

A

9

263
Q

Mechanical work

A

The physical processes that move the body and keep it alive, such as muscle contraction.

264
Q

Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

A

A high-energy compound occurring in all cells from which adenosine triphosphate is formed

265
Q

Phosphorylation

A

The addition of a phosphate group to a molecule, such as in the transfer of a phosphate group to adenosine diphosphate to create adenosine triphosphate.

266
Q

ATP-PC System

A

An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10–15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism.

267
Q

Anaerobic

A

Processes relating to the absence of oxygen.

268
Q

Glycolysis

A

A metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell that converts glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate. Anaerobic glycolysis refers to when this process occurs in the absence of oxygen.

269
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation

A

A series of reactions inside the mitochondria that uses oxygen to produce adenosine triphosphate.

270
Q

Aerobic

A

Processes relating to, involving, or requiring oxygen.

271
Q

Deamination

A

The breakdown of amino acids into substrates that can be used for energy metabolism.

272
Q

Mitochondria

A

The parts of the cell that use nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouses of the cell.

273
Q

Electron transport chain (ETC)

A

A series of protein complexes that transfer protons and electrons received from the citric acid cycle through a series of reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

274
Q

Acetyl coenzyme A

A

Produced by the breakdown of carbohydrates through glycolysis and by the fatty acids through beta-oxidation and is the precursor for these substrates to the citric acid cycle.

275
Q

Beta-oxidation

A

The first step in the process to break down fats via oxidative phosphorylation.

276
Q

What is the primary energy-providing molecule in the human body?

A

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

277
Q

Steady-state aerobic exercise

A

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

278
Q

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

A

The state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise.

279
Q

Total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)

A

The total amount of energy expended in one day.

280
Q

Kilocalorie (kcal)

A

One food calorie. Also, the amount of energy needed to raise one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius.

281
Q

Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

A

The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly.

282
Q

Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)

A

The calories expended through structured exercise or training.

283
Q

Thermic effect of food (TEF)

A

The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.

284
Q

Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs.

285
Q

Physical activity level (PAL)

A

The number of calories a person expends through physical activity and structured exercise.

286
Q

Metabolic equivalent (MET)

A

A measurement used to describe the energy cost of physical activity as multiples of resting metabolic rate. One MET is 3.5 mL of oxygen consumption per kilogram per minute.

287
Q

What are the components of ATP?

A

Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

288
Q

Nutrition

A

A process of obtaining nutrients through food and/or food products to support energy requirements and cellular processes, including growth, repair and maintenance of tissues, reproduction, digestive processes, and respiration.

289
Q

CDN

A

Certified Dietitian Nutritionist: state certified dietitian/nutritionist.

290
Q

Nutrition claim

A

Claim that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit.

291
Q

Macronutrients

A

Food substances required in large amounts to supply energy; include protein, carbohydrate, and fat.

292
Q

Micronutrients

A

Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients. These are nonenergy yielding nutrients that have important regulatory functions in metabolic pathways.

293
Q

Vitamins

A

Group of organic compounds required in small quantities in the diet to support growth and metabolic processes.

294
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition. There are two kinds of minerals: major minerals (aka, macrominerals) and trace minerals.

295
Q

Protein

A

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds; the building blocks of body tissues.

296
Q

Peptide bond

A

A chemical bond that connects two amino acids.

296
Q

Protein turnover

A

A process in which the body breaks down existing proteins and recycles the component amino acids for incorporation into new proteins or other nitrogen-containing compounds.

297
Q

Complete protein

A

A protein source that provides all essential amino acids.

298
Q

Omnivorous diet

A

A diet that consists of both animals and plants.

298
Q

Incomplete protein

A

A protein that lacks one or more of the amino acids required to build cells.

299
Q

Mutual supplementation

A

Combination of two incomplete protein sources that together provide all of the essential amino acids.

300
Q

Protein quality

A

Refers to the amino acid profile and the digestibility of a protein source.

301
Q

Low biological value (LBV) proteins

A

Foods missing one or more of the essential amino acids.

302
Q

High biological value (HBV) proteins

A

Foods containing all the essential amino acids.

303
Q

Protein efficiency ratio (PER)

A

A measure of assessing proteins, based on the amount of weight gained by a test subject divided by the amount of intake of a protein food.

304
Q

Biological value (BV)

A

A reference amount used to describe the extent to which the amino acids in a protein source are absorbed.

305
Q

Protein digestibility– corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS)

A

A measure for evaluating a protein source based on the composition of amino acids and its digestibility.

306
Q

Net protein utilization (NPU)

A

The ratio of amino acid mass turned into proteins compared to the total amino acid mass consumed in the diet.

307
Q

Enterocyte

A

Intestinal cells that absorb nutrients.

308
Q

Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)

A

The recommended amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of most healthy individuals within specific age and gender groups.

309
Q

Negative energy balance

A

When calorie intake is lower than the number of calories expended.

310
Q

Acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR)

A

Ranges of intake for nutrients that are estimated to meet the needs of 97–98% of the population and that are associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease. AMDRs are established by the National Academy of Medicine.

311
Q

Carbohydrates

A

Compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules that include simple sugars, complex carbohydrates, glycogen, and fiber.

312
Q

Simple sugars

A

Include the monosaccharides and disaccharides; easily absorbed into the bloodstream.

313
Q

Monosaccharides

A

Simplest form of carbohydrate; single sugar molecules (e.g., glucose).

314
Q

Disaccharides

A

Two monosaccharides joined together to form a simple sugar. The three disaccharides of nutritional importance include lactose, sucrose, and maltose.

315
Q

Polysaccharides

A

A type of carbohydrate composed of long chains of glucose units; starch and glycogen are examples of polysaccharides.

316
Q

Starch

A

Storage form of carbohydrate in plants.

317
Q

Fiber

A

An indigestible carbohydrate present in plant foods, such as fruit, vegetables, and legumes.

318
Q

Adipose tissue

A

An alternative term for fat, used primarily to store energy.

319
Q

Complex carbohydrates

A

Polysaccharides; long chains of simple sugars. Examples include whole grains, legumes, and vegetables.

320
Q

Glycemic index (GI)

A

Number (0–100) assigned to a food source that represents the rise in blood sugar after consuming the food.

321
Q

Glycemic load (GL)

A

Similar to glycemic index but takes into account the amount of food (carbohydrate) eaten.

322
Q

Muscle protein synthesis

A

Process by which new muscle proteins are formed and a muscle grows or repairs at the molecular level.

323
Q

Lipids

A

Group of fats/fatty acids and their derivatives, including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols.

323
Q

Triglycerides

A

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

324
Q

Phospholipids

A

Type of lipid (fat) comprised of glycerol, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group.

325
Q

Sterols

A

A group of lipids with a ringlike structure. Cholesterol is a type of sterol.

326
Q

Unsaturated fats

A

Fatty acids with one or more points of unsaturation (double bond) in their chemical structure.

327
Q

Saturated fat

A

A type of triglyceride; chemical structure has no double bonds (points of unsaturation); usually solid at room temperature. Examples: butter, lard, whole milk, beef, processed meats, and tropical oils.

328
Q

Pancreatic enzymes

A

Digestive enzymes produced by the body to help digest fats, starches, and proteins.

329
Q

Lingual lipase

A

An enzyme in saliva that begins the process of lipid digestion in the mouth.

330
Q

Lipase

A

Enzyme that digests lipids.

331
Q

Chylomicrons

A

Molecules of fat that contain triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, fat-soluble vitamins, and protein. They are formed by intestinal cells after the digestion of lipid-containing foods.

332
Q

Lipoprotein

A

A group of soluble proteins that combine with and transport fat or other lipids in the blood plasma.

333
Q

Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)

A

An enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids.

334
Q

Metabolites

A

The formation of a substance required for metabolism.

335
Q

What is the optimal ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids in the diet?

A

About 4:1

336
Q

Major minerals

A

Minerals present in the body in larger amounts.

337
Q

Trace minerals

A

Minerals present in small amounts in the body. They include iron, zinc, copper, selenium, iodine, manganese, chromium, fluoride, and molybdenum.

338
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

A condition that occurs when the body becomes overheated. It can occur from dehydration in a hot climate, and symptoms include heavy sweating, rapid pulse, low blood pressure, nausea, dizziness, and muscle cramps.

339
Q

Heatstroke

A

A condition that can develop if heat exhaustion is not treated quickly. Heatstroke symptoms include headache, fever, confusion and disorientation, and flushed skin. Heatstroke is a medical emergency and can be fatal if not quickly treated.

340
Q

Sports drink

A

Drink with a combination of carbohydrate and/or electrolytes used for rehydration and carbohydrate replenishment during physical activity; may be isotonic, hypotonic, or hypertonic.

341
Q

Electrolytes

A

Minerals that have an electrical charge to help transmit nerve impulses throughout the body, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride.

342
Q

Hypotonic

A

A solution with a lower solute load/concentration than body fluids.

343
Q

Isotonic

A

A solution with a similar solute load/concentration as body fluids.

344
Q

Hypertonic

A

A solution with a higher solute load/concentration than body fluids.

345
Q

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

A

Vitamin K

346
Q

Endocrine (hormonal) disorders

A

When the body produces too little or too much of an endocrine hormone.

346
Q

Added sugars

A

Sugars that are not naturally found in food but have been added to a food product.

347
Q

Satiating

A

Satisfying; feeling of fullness.

348
Q

Peptide YY

A

Called peptide tyrosine and is a peptide that is released in the colon during feeding.

349
Q

Ghrelin

A

The hunger hormone that stimulates appetite.

350
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

A hormone disorder that causes abnormally high levels of cortisol in the body.

351
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

A

A hormone disorder that occurs in women of childbearing age that causes irregular periods, excess levels of the male hormone androgen, small cysts on the outer edges of the ovaries, and obesity.

352
Q

Adaptive thermogenesis

A

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure as a result of changes in energy intake.

353
Q

Percent daily value (%DV)

A

A reference value on the nutrition label that indicates what percentage of the recommended daily value for a nutrient is met by the specified serving size of a food product, based on a 2,000-calorie diet.

354
Q

Percent reference intake (% RI)

A

Used on food labels in the United Kingdom and the European Union. It is a reference value that indicates what percentage of the recommend amount of a nutrient is met by the specified amount (100 g or 100 mL) of the food product.

355
Q

For most consumers, which of the following are the two most informative features of a food label?

A

The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list

356
Q

Dietary supplement

A

A product (other than tobacco) intended to supplement the diet that bears or contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients: vitamin; mineral; herb or other botanical; amino acid; substance used by man to supplement the diet by increasing the total dietary intake; or concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or combination of any previously described ingredient.

356
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

357
Q

Essential nutrient

A

Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own.

358
Q

Toxicity

A

When too much of a vitamin or mineral accumulates within the body, resulting in illness or other symptoms.

359
Q

Tolerable upper limit

A

The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect.

360
Q

Adverse effect

A

Any unfavorable medical occurrence associated with the use of a medication, medical intervention, or dietary supplement.

361
Q

Stimulant

A

An agent that increases physiologic or metabolic activity. Common stimulants include caffeine and nicotine.

361
Q

Creatine

A

Molecule made from amino acids and used as a dietary supplement to facilitate adenosine triphosphate regeneration for improved training capacity, strength, power, and muscle mass.

362
Q

Banned

A

A dietary supplement that may be prohibited from use in a specific sport or sport league. These supplements may not be illegal or prohibited at all times during the year.

363
Q

Anabolic steroid

A

Compound made from testosterone or another hormone that acts on hormone receptors to produce increases in muscle size or strength.

364
Q

Active ingredient

A

Any component of a dietary supplement included for the purpose of causing a physiologic effect; displayed on the main body of the supplement facts panel.

365
Q

Other ingredient

A

Any component of a dietary supplement included for taste, bulk, or as a preservative; displayed beneath the main body of the supplement facts panel.

366
Q

Supplement facts panel

A

Portion of a dietary supplement’s label that displays the active ingredients, other ingredients, serving size, number of servings, quantity of ingredients, and the percent daily value.

367
Q

Health supplement

A

A dietary supplement used to improve a component of well-being.

368
Q

Performance supplement

A

A dietary supplement that may enhance performance or body composition; may also be referred to as an ergogenic aid.

369
Q

Biologically active

A

The form in which a vitamin must be to exert an effect within the body.

370
Q

Biologically inactive

A

Any form of vitamin that cannot exert its effect within the body.

371
Q

Beta-carotene

A

The red-orange pigment found in vegetables and fruits that is converted to vitamin A in the body.

372
Q

Lactose intolerance

A

A sensitivity to lactose (milk sugar) typically resulting in gastrointestinal distress.

373
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome

A

Gastrointestinal discomfort, sometimes severe, triggered by certain foods but is not a food allergy.

374
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

375
Q

Rickets

A

A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.

376
Q

Heart arrhythmias

A

Irregular heartbeat.

377
Q

Platelet aggregation

A

An accumulation of blood cells prior to a clot.

378
Q

Immunodeficiency

A

A weakened immune system.

379
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A

Nerve damage not occurring in the brain or spinal cord.

380
Q

Skeletal myopathy

A

Muscle degeneration

381
Q

Scurvy

A

A disease resulting from insufficient vitamin C and characterized by spontaneous bleeding (usually of the gums), anemia, swelling, weakened joints, and loss of teeth.

382
Q

Pellagra

A

A niacin or tryptophan deficiency that leads to a skin rash (dermatitis), digestive disorders (diarrhea), and mood or cognitive decline (dementia).

382
Q

Beriberi

A

A thiamine deficiency that can result in inflammation or degeneration of the heart and nerves, peripheral neuropathy, and impaired motor function.

383
Q

Anorexia

A

A loss of appetite or the conscious decision to avoid eating, often leading to dangerously low body weight and/or malnourishment

384
Q

Anemia

A

A condition of poor iron status.

385
Q

Dermatitis

A

Inflammation of the skin, rashes, excessive dryness, and/or blistering.

386
Q

Spina bifida

A

A birth defect, and type of neural tube defect, when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly.

387
Q

Amenorrheic

A

Absence of menstruation.

388
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

Excess blood calcium levels.

388
Q

Lacto-ovo vegetarian

A

A vegetarian diet that also includes dairy and eggs.

388
Q

Osteopenia

A

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

389
Q

Ovo-vegetarian

A

A vegetarian diet that also includes eggs.

390
Q

Heme

A

A type of iron found in animal foods.

391
Q

Nonheme

A

A type of iron found in plant foods.

392
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

A disease in which the body absorbs too much iron from consumed foods.

393
Q

Omega-3

A

The polyunsaturated fats, eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), and alpha-linolenic acid (ALA).

394
Q

Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)

A

A type of omega-3 fatty acid found in the flesh of cold-water fish, such as tuna, mackerel, salmon, and herring.

395
Q

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

A

A type of omega-3 fatty acid that is found in seafood, such as fish and fish oils.

396
Q

Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)

A

One type of omega-3 fatty acid found in seeds and oils, such as walnuts and flaxseed, and many common vegetable oils.

397
Q

Triglycerides

A

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body

398
Q

Ergogenic aid

A

A dietary supplement that may enhance performance or body composition; it may also be referred to as a performance supplement.

399
Q

Phosphagen

A

High-energy molecule that releases energy when its bonds are broken.

400
Q

Creatine monohydrate

A

The most common, and likely most effective, form of creatine available as a dietary supplement.

400
Q

Loading

A

Practice of using large doses of a supplement to saturate muscle tissues or other body stores prior to resorting to a lesser, maintenance dose.

401
Q

Endogenous

A

Produced or synthesized within an organism.

402
Q

Adrenaline

A

Hormone, also known as epinephrine, that excites bodily processes, increasing alertness and cell metabolism.

403
Q

Caffeine anhydrous

A

A highly concentrated caffeine powder made from the seeds and leaves of coffee plants.

404
Q

DMAA

A

Dimethylamylamine; a stimulant and amphetamine once legal for use as a dietary supplement.

404
Q

Ephedra

A

A plant-sourced alkaloid with metabolism-enhancing effects. It is an illegal supplement in the United States and the European Union.

405
Q

Testosterone

A

A hormone producing secondary male sex characteristics.

405
Q

Serious adverse effect

A

Any adverse effect that results in any life-threatening situation, inpatient hospitalization, persistent incapacity of a person’s ability to conduct a normal life, a congenital anomaly, reproductive harm, or death.

406
Q

Hormone precursor

A

A hormone used to create another hormone or hormone-like agent.

407
Q

Gynecomastia

A

A condition in males characterized by breast tissue growth.

NASM personal training (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions