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Semester 1 > section 4 micro > Flashcards

section 4 micro Flashcards

1
Q

functions of the respiratory system

A 
air conduction
gas exchange 
olfaction
heat regulation
acid-base homeostasis
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2
Q

what makes up the conduction system

A

nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchi

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3
Q

transitional system components

A

terminal bronchioles

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4
Q

gas exchange system components

A

respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

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5
Q

system that brings air into the respiratory portion

A

conducting system

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6
Q

system that cleanses, moistens, and warms incoming air

A

conducting system

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7
Q

what regulates temperature of inhaled air in the nasal cavity

A

blood in venous plexuses of the mucous membrane

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8
Q

traps particulate matter in the nasal cavity

A

hair and secretions

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9
Q

Is the conducting system ciliated or nonciliated cells

A

ciliated

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10
Q

consists exclusively of terminal bronchioles

A

transitional system

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11
Q

T/F

healthy bronchioles have goblet cells

A

FALSE they do not have goblet cells if they are healthy

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12
Q

thin walled structures enveloped by a rich network of capillaries

A

alveoli

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13
Q

what cells are alveoli lined by

A

type 1 and type 1 pneumocytes

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14
Q

what is the non-specific defense mechanism of the respiratory system

A

it is not immune mediated
mucous trapping, mucociliary clearance
phagocytosis
air turbulence

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15
Q

what is the specific defense mechanism of the respiratory system

A

this is immune mediated
antibody producing and antibody mediated phagocytosis
cell-mediated immunity

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16
Q

epithelium lining of the conducting system

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar with secretory goblet cells and submucosal serous cells

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17
Q

nasal cavity epithelium

A

pseudostratified columnar with goblet cells

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18
Q

explain the lamina propria of the nasal cavity

A

contains many tubulo-alveolar glands that are mainly serous with lesser mucous and mixed glands

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19
Q

Bowmans glands

A

olfaction – odorant binding

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20
Q

olfactory epithelium contains ______

A

olfactory sensory cells

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21
Q

bone supported cavity within the skull divided by nasal cartilaginous septum into two halves

A

nasal cavity

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22
Q

three regions of each half of the nasal cavity

A
  1. vestibular
  2. respiratory
  3. olfactory
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23
Q

the initial and external part of the nasal cavity that has a cutaneous membrane and haired skin and glands

A

vestibular region

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24
Q

vestibular region epithelium

A

stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

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25
Q

largest part of the nasal cavity

A

respiratory region

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26
Q

pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium combined with goblet cells is called what

A

mucociliary apparatus – responsible for clearance

**in the respiratory region of the nasal cavity

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27
Q

projections from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity that narrow the lumen and increase the area of contact of inhaled air with respiratory mucous membrane

A

Conchae Turbinates

** increase the quality and quantity of inhaled air

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28
Q

goblet cells produce ____

A

mucinogen granules

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29
Q

goblet cells are present along the airways until the level of _____

A

large bronchioles

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30
Q

secretion of goblet cells serves what function

A

to trap particulate matter in the airways

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31
Q

goblet cells reaction to injury

A

increased numbers – hyperplasia – smokers

metaplasia

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32
Q

a change from ciliated stratified epithelium to squamous stratified epithelium

A

metaplasia

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33
Q

ciliated epithelial cells are connected by _____

A

gap junctions

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34
Q

ciliated epithelial cells have “claws” of ________ to beat in unison and move mucus

A

dynein

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35
Q

dysfunction when dynein claws are missing

A

immotile cilia syndrome – kartageners

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36
Q

T/F

olfactory epithelium has goblet cells

A

false – lacks goblet cells

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37
Q

T/F

olfactory epithelium is thicker than respiratory epithelium

A

TRUE – much thicker

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38
Q

supporting cells of olfactory epithelium

A

sustentacular

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39
Q

olfactory neurons come from

A

the axons of Cr. N. 1 for smell

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40
Q

the olfactory region is in the dorsal or ventral part of the nasal cavity?

A

dorsal

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41
Q

stem cells in the olfactory epithelium

A

basal cells

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42
Q

venous plexuses distended with blood found in both the olfactory and the respiratory regions of the nasal cavity

A

swell bodies

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43
Q

organ used for sensing pheromones and sexual behavior

A

vomeronasal organ

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44
Q

larynx epithelium

A

initially is stratified squamous

after the vocal cords it is pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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45
Q

trachea epithelium

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

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46
Q

T/F

serous glands are in the lamina propria and submucosa of the trachea

A

true

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47
Q

T/F

the lamina propria and the submucosa are clearly demarcated in the trachea

A

FALSE

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48
Q

what supports the tracheal wall

A

rings of cartilage which are incomplete dorsally

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49
Q

T/F

birds trachea have complete rings of cartilage

A

TRUE

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50
Q

a __________ completes the wall of the trachea

A

connective tissue adventitia

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51
Q

trachea bifurcates into _____

A

bronchi – plates of hyaline cartilage are present here

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52
Q

bronchi lining epithelium

A

pseudostratified cilited columnar

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53
Q

what surrounds the bronchus lamina propria

A

smooth muscle

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54
Q

bronchi branch into ____

A

bronchioles

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55
Q

what do bronchioles lack

A

cartilage and glands !

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56
Q

T/F

a muscular mucosae is present in the terminal bronchioles

A

TRUE

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57
Q

epithelial lining of the terminal bronchioles

A

ciliated cuboidal cells with few to no goblet cells

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58
Q

cells located in terminal and respiratory bronchioles that bulge at the surface

A

club/clara cells

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59
Q

source of surfactant-like substance which aids in maintaining patency of airways

A

CLUB CELLS

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60
Q

metabolize airborne toxins and may have an immune function

A

club cells

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61
Q

function is conduction and gas exchange

A

respiratory bronchioles

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62
Q

respiratory bronchioles epithelium

A

ciliated cuboidal epithelium that becomes flattened distalyl

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63
Q

T/F

respiratory bronchioles have an incomplete muscularis mucosea

A

TRUE

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64
Q

respiratory bronchioles subdivide into ___

A

alveolar ducts

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65
Q

the walls of the alveolar ducts are composed entirely of ________ lined by ____ epithelial cells

A

alveoli lined by simple squamous

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66
Q

The edge surrounding the opening of each alveoli of an alveolar duct contains ______ cells

A

smooth muscle

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67
Q

alveolar ducts empty into

A

alveolar sacs and alveoli

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68
Q

The presence of _____ gives the lip of the alveolus a knob like appearance

A

smooth muscle

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69
Q

T/F

alveolar sacs do not have smooth muscle

A

TRUE

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70
Q

alveolar spaces filled with proteinaceous fluid

A

pulmonary edema

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71
Q

allow macrophage passage from one alveolus to another

A

pores

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72
Q

provide equalization of pressure and collateral ventilation if a bronchiole is obstructed

A

alveolar pores

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73
Q

connect alveoli

A

alveolar pores

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74
Q

what type of collagen is present in the alveolar wall

A

type 3

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75
Q

type ___ collagen always present in the conducting airways

A

one

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76
Q

cells that form the walls of the alveoli

A

type 1 pneumocytes – squamous alveolar type 1

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77
Q

compose 95% of alveolar surface area

A

type 1 pneumocytes – squamous alveolar type 1

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78
Q

T/F

type one pneumocytes are mitotic cells

A

FALSE

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79
Q

extremely thin cells with occluding junctions to prevent fluid passage

A

type 1 pneumocytes – squamous alveolar type 1

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80
Q

T/F

gas permeability is a desired function of type 1 pneumocytes

A

TRUE

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81
Q

account for 5% alveolar surface area

A

type II pneumocytes – granular alveolar type II

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82
Q

secretory cell that produces surfactant via lamellar bodies

A

type II pneumocytes – granular alveolar type II

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83
Q

T/F

type II pneumocytes can be mitotic to produce BOTH type 1 and type II pneumocytes

A

TRUE

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84
Q

also called the “Great alveolar cell”

A

type II pneumocytes – granular alveolar type II

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85
Q

lamellar granules contain ____

A

recently synthesized surfactant

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86
Q

mono-molecular layer of phospholipoprotein

A

surfactant

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87
Q

constantly produced by type II pneumocytes

A

surfactant

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88
Q

functions to reduce surface tension, reducing effort needed to inflate alveoli to prevent collapse

A

surfactant

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89
Q

stimulates production of surfactant in a fetus just prior to parturition

A

cortisol

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90
Q

Hyaline Membrane Disease

A

absence of surfactant in newborns

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91
Q

alveolar collapse

A

atelectasis

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92
Q

4 components of Blood-Air Barrier

A
  1. the vascular endothelium
  2. basement membrane of endothelial cells
  3. basement membrane of type 1 pneumocyte
  4. cytoplasm of type 1 pneumocyte
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93
Q

alveolar macrophages

A

PAM

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94
Q

intravascular macrophages

A

PIM

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95
Q

dust cell

A

alveolar macrophages

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96
Q

T/F

there are lymphatic vessels in the alveolar walls

A

FALSE

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97
Q

type of capillary in the respiratory system

A

continuous

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98
Q

lungs are covered by ____

A

visceral pleura – connective tissue lined by simple squamous epithelium

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99
Q

the pleura is composed of simple squamous epithelium known as _______ cells

A

mesothelial cells

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100
Q

epithelial lining from the lips to the non-glandular stomach

A

stratified squamous

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101
Q

epithelial lining of glandular stomach and the intestines

A

simple columnar

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102
Q

formed by the lips, cheek, pharynx, palate and tongue

A

oral cavity

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103
Q

oral cavity mucosa is lined by

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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104
Q

T/F

the submucosa is missing in the oral cavity

A

TRUE

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105
Q

oral cavity feature in ruminants

A

dental pad

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106
Q

what is the dental pad

A

has a keratinized layer of epithelium

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107
Q

main component of the tongue

A

skeletal muscle

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108
Q

doral/upper surface of tongue is irregular due to…

A

papillae overgrowths – some have tastebuds

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109
Q

T/F

tunica submucosa is present in the tongue

A

false – it is missing

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110
Q

mucosa epithelium in tongue

A

stratified squamous

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111
Q

what are the 3 hard structures of a tooth

A
  1. enamel
  2. dentin
  3. cementum
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112
Q

cells that make enamel

A

ameloblasts – tall columnar cells

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113
Q

dentin, the layer beneath enamel is produced by ….

A

odontoblasts

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114
Q

two soft tissues of tooth

A

pulp and peridontal ligament

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115
Q

cementoblasts

A

produce cementum

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116
Q

loose connective tissue and nerves derived from neural crest cells in a tooth

A

pulp

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117
Q

what cells make up the peridontal ligament in teeth

A

fibroblasts

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118
Q

loose connective tissue, looser than lamina propria

A

tunica submucosa

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119
Q

facilitates motility of the mucosa and may contain glands, vessels, nerve plexus, or lymphatic nodules

A

tunica submucosa

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120
Q

controls lumen size and tube motility

A

tunica muscularis

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121
Q

name of nerve plexus in submucosa

A

submucous plexus of Meissner

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122
Q

myenteric plexus name in tunica muscularis

A

Auberbach plexus

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123
Q

could be smooth or skeletal muscle, but is usually two layers of smooth. one inner circular and one outer longitudinal

A

tunica muscularis

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124
Q

the _______ plexus controls the glands and smooth muscle of the organ

A

enteric

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125
Q

tunica serosa components

A

HAS MESOTHELIUM
loose connective tissue
may have adipose tissue

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126
Q

T/F

tunica adventitia has mesothelium

A

FALSE

has only loose/dense connective tissue

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127
Q

most external tunic

A

serosa

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128
Q

tunic that is continuous with the mesentery, omentum, and pleura

A

serosa

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129
Q

covers portions of esophagus, bronchi, trachea, vagina, rectum, where passing through mediastinum, body wall or neck

A

TUnica adventitia

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130
Q

esophagus innervation

A

Cranial nerve X

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131
Q

heals poorly and has tunica adventitia over most of course

A

esophagus

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132
Q

Is the cutaneous mucous membrane of the stomach glandular or non??

A

non-glandular

**the glandular part is simple columnar epithelium

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133
Q

junction between glandular and non-glandular stomach in ponies

A

margo plicatus

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134
Q

simple stomach has _____ mucosa ONLY

A

glandular

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135
Q

parts of the ruminant stomach that are non glandular

A

the forestomach/proventricles

rumen, reticulum, omasum

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136
Q

glandular region of ruminant stomachs

A

abosmasum – true stomach

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137
Q

composite stomach and species

A

pig and horse

has glandular and cutaneous membranes

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138
Q

rumen, reticulum, and omasum epithelial linings

A

stratified squamous

139
Q

the _____ squeezes ingesta, liquifies and moves it to the abosmasum

A

omasum

140
Q

part of ruminant stomach with honeycomb mucosa

A

reticulum

141
Q

function of what two compartments is mixing, absorption, eructation, movement of ingesta and absorbing VFA

A

reticulum and rumen

142
Q

in the rumen to increase surface area and absorption

A

stratified sqamous epithelium with low papilla, cells have desmosomes

143
Q

proventricles are lined with what

A

stratified squamous KERATINIZED epithelium

144
Q

three glandular regions of the stomach in all domestic species

A
  1. cardiac
    2, fundic
  2. pyloric
145
Q

invaginations of epithelium lining in stomach

A

gastric pits

146
Q

longitudinal ___ allow distention of the tummy

A

rugae

147
Q

region of stomach mostly composed of mucous glands

A

cardiac

148
Q

region of stomach mostly proper gastric glands with parietal and chief cells

A

fundic

149
Q

region with mucous glands and G cells that produce the GI hormone gastrin

A

pyloric

150
Q

all gastric glands are _____ and empty into ____

A

exocrine

gastric pits

151
Q

T/F

chief cells are basophilic

A

TRUE

152
Q

T/F

parietal cells are acidophilic

A

TRUE

153
Q

chief cells secrete _____ in adults

A

pepsinogen

154
Q

chief cells secrete _____ in infants

A

Chymosin – to curdle milk

**called rennin in ruminants

155
Q

Parietal cells secrete ….

A

HCl and intrinsic factor for vitamin B12 absorption

156
Q

blind ended lymphatic vessels in intestinal villi

A

lacteals – filters chyle

157
Q

aggregations of lymphatic nodules present in the lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine

A

peyers patches

158
Q

cells located near the crypt base in species such as the primates, horses, and rodents

A

paneth cells

159
Q

cells considered to have both a secretory and phagocytic function and produce lysins and cryptidin

A

paneth cells

160
Q

cells primarily localized in the crypts

A

enteroendocrine cells

161
Q

T/F

large intestines have villi

A

FALSE

162
Q

pigs and horses have flat bands in there large intestine composed of smooth muscle and elastic fibers called

A

taenia coli

163
Q

large intestine innervation is via…

A

vagus nerve, celiacomesenteric ganglia, caudal mesenteric ganglia, hypogastic and pelvic nerves

164
Q

T/F

large intestine has goblet cells

A

TRUE

165
Q

T/F

large intestine has crypts of lieberkuhn

A

TRUE

166
Q

duodenum has ______ glands in the tunica submucosa

A

brunners

167
Q

in the rectum/anus the epithelium is keratinized near the ____________ junction

A

muco-cutaneous junction

168
Q

stores feces and secretes mucus

A

rectum

169
Q

type of anal gland present in pigs and pups

A

tubuloacinar

** located in the submucosa and muscularis of the anal canal

170
Q

instead of rectum, birds and reptiles have

A

cloaca

171
Q

anal glands

A

empty into lumen of anus

172
Q

anal sac glands

A

empty into anal sacs

173
Q

circumanal glands

A

in dogs

have non-patent ducts with unknown function and may form benign tumors

174
Q

the glands of anal sacs are ______ in dogs

A

apocrine tubular sweat glands

175
Q

the glands of anal sacs are ______ in cats

A

both apocrine tubular sweat glands and sebaceous

176
Q

circumanal gland composition

A

modified sebaceous glands in the upper portion and non-sebaceous in the lower portion

present in the subcutis around the anus in dogs

177
Q

haptoid glands

A

non-sebaceous glands resemble hepatocytes so they get this name

178
Q

accessory ocular structures

A

adnexa

179
Q

the skulls bony socket

A

the orbit

180
Q

located in the orbit

A

the globe/eyeball

181
Q

components of the fibrous tunic

A

sclera and cornea and limbus

182
Q

components of the vascular tunic

A

iris
ciliary body
choroid
iridocorneal angle

183
Q

components of the neuroepithelial tunic

A

retina

184
Q

posterior portion of the eye that is composed white opaque layer of dense irregular connective tissue

A

sclera

185
Q

protects and maintains shape of the eye

A

sclera

186
Q

provides insertion points for tendons of extraocular muscles

A

sclera

187
Q

avascular, transparent convex-concave lens in the anterior portion of the eye

A

cornea

188
Q

richly supplied by sensory nerves and is relatively dehydrated to maintain transparency

A

cornea

189
Q

T/F

the cornea has regenerative capacity

A

TRUE

190
Q

posterior limiting lamina/membrane that supports the endothelium of the cornea

A

Descemet’s Membrane

191
Q

posterior epithelium of cornea

A

corneal endothelium

192
Q

T/F

the anterior corneal epithelium is keratinized

A

FALSE – it is nonkeratinized stratified squamous

193
Q

what four factors contribute to corneal transparency

A
  1. avascular
  2. collagen arrangement (fibers from fibrocytes that are parallel to corneal surface)
  3. proteoglycans between the collagen
  4. Na+ pumps to transport water out and keep it dehydrated
194
Q

T/F

the cornea is highly vascularized

A

FALSE – avascular

195
Q

corneoscleral junction

A

limbus

196
Q

has epithelium that is continuous with the conjuctiva that lines the eyelids

A

limbus

197
Q

where does corneal nutrition come from

A

the microvasculature of the limbus and aqueous humor

198
Q

determines the eye color

A

iridial melanin

blue = minimal melanin

199
Q

iris stroma

A

pigmented loose connective tissue that is very vascular

200
Q

where are the dilator and sphincter pupillae muscles located

A

in the iris

201
Q

present in equids and ruminants at the dorsal and ventral pupillary margins

A

iridic granules called corpora nigra

202
Q

at the convergence of the corneoscleral junction (limbus), ciliary body, and iris

A

iridocorneal angle

203
Q

composed of pectinate ligament, trabecular meshwork, and trabecular/aqueous veins

A

iridocorneal angle

204
Q

draining point for aqueous humor

A

iridocorneal angle

205
Q

anterior expansion of the choroid at the level of the lens

A

ciliary body

206
Q

T/F

the ciliary body has BOTH mechanical and secretory functions

A

TRUE

207
Q

the ciliary processes are at the ____ of the iris

A

base

208
Q

the ciliary body receives its innervation from

A

CN III – oculomotor nerve

209
Q

smooth muscle, surrounded by loose connective tissue and contracts during accommodation

A

ciliary muscle of the ciliary body

210
Q

ciliary body epithelium

A

2 layers of low columnar epithelium

nonpigmented layer – ion transporting an forms the aqueous humor

pigmented layer – BLACK, basement membrane extends to form zonular fibers that suspend the lens

211
Q

suspends the lens

A

zonular fibers

212
Q

the posterior epithelium of the iris are continuous with __________ of the ciliary body

A

nonpigmente epithelium

213
Q

nourishes the cornea and is glucose rich

A

aqueous humor

214
Q

maintains intraocular pressure

A

aqueous humor

215
Q

formed by the nonpigmented cells of the ciliary process

A

aqueous humor

216
Q

requires constant drainage

A

aqueous humor

217
Q

highly vascularized and nourished the retina

A

choroid

218
Q

external part of the choroid attaches to the

A

sclera

219
Q

internal part of the choroid attaches to the

A

retinal pigmented epithelium

220
Q

increases light perception under conditions of poor illumination

A

tapedum lucidum

221
Q

sends visual images to the brain

A

sensory/optical retina

222
Q

holds the sensory retina in place

A

vitreous body

223
Q

photoreceptor cells

A

rods and cones

224
Q

contain flattened membranous disks with pigment Rhodopsin

A

RODS

225
Q

responsible for vision in dim lighting

A

rods

226
Q

T/F

rods and cones are highly advanced neuron cells

A

TRUE

227
Q

contain flattened membranous disks with pigment Iodopsin

A

cones

228
Q

responsible for vision in bright light and color vision

A

cones

229
Q

occupies the space between the lens and retina

A

vitreous body

230
Q

is composed of 99% water and is rich in hyaluronic acid

A

vitreous body

has gel cortex and liquid center

231
Q

aids in maintaining shape and retinal apposition

A

vitreous body

232
Q

T/F

the lens is entirely surrounded by capsule that is thick on the anterior surface

A

TRUE

233
Q

T/F

lens loses its vascular supply after development

A

TRUE

234
Q

T/F

humans have a 3rd eyelid

A

FALSE

235
Q

nicitating membrane

A

third eyelid

236
Q

protects eye and removes foreign materials

A

third eyelid

237
Q

contributes 30-50% of the aqueous portion of the tear film via small ductules

A

Gland of the third eyelid

238
Q

gives cobblestone look and is located under the conjunctiva surface

A

aggregated lymphatic nodules

239
Q

lines the third eyelid

A

conjuctiva

240
Q

present at the base of lacrimal glands

A

myoepithelial cells

241
Q

tear film moistures, lubricates, protects the eye

A

lacrimal gland

242
Q

has tuboalveolar seromucinous acini composed of secretory cells filled with small granules

A

lacrimal glands

243
Q

superficial layer of the tear film

A

Meibomian (tarsal) glands

244
Q

the oily component of tears

A

meibomian/tarsal glands

245
Q

aqueous component of tears

A

seromucous from lacrimal glands

246
Q

mucous component of tears

A

produced by goblet cells in the conjunctiva

247
Q

list the 4 urinary organs

A
  1. kidneys
  2. ureter
  3. urinary bladder
  4. urethra
248
Q

functional unit of the kidney

A

nephrons

249
Q

nephrons are the site of _______

A

osmoregulation

250
Q

renal corpuscles are located in the ____ of the kidney

A

cortex

251
Q

T/F

collecting ducts and tubules are part of nephrons

A

FALSE

252
Q

includes the glomerulus and all tubule segments through the connecting segment

A

nephrons

253
Q

what is also known as Bowmans capsule

A

glomerular capsule

254
Q

visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

A

podocytes

255
Q

parietal layer of the glomerular capsule

A

squamous cells

256
Q

from fenestrated glomerular capillaries

A

endothelial cells

257
Q

cells between the fenestrated capillaries in the renal corpuscle

A

mesangial cells

258
Q

produced by ultrafiltration of blood in the renal corpuscle

A

primary/glomerular filtrate

259
Q

T/F

98% of filtrate is reabsorbed

A

TRUE

260
Q

3 components of the blood-urine barrier

A
  1. endothelium of glomerular capillaries with fenestrations
  2. glomerular basement membrane = fused basal lamina of capillaries and podocytes
  3. podocytes
261
Q

where are filtration slits

A

between pedicels of foot processes of podocytes

262
Q

phagocytic and contractile cells

A

mesangial cells

263
Q

provide structural support to capillaries

A

mesengial cells

264
Q

have receptors angiotensin II

A

mesengial cells

265
Q

what three parts make up the loops of henle

A

thin segment and two straight segments of the proximal and distal of the renal segment

confusing ?^

266
Q

tubules in the kidney with brush borders

A

proximal tubules

267
Q

proximal convoluted tubules are present only in the _____

A

cortex

268
Q

T/F

proximal convoluted tubules appear more numerous than distal convoluted tubules

A

TRUE

269
Q

T/F

proximal convoluted tubules serve in absorption

A

TRUE

270
Q

nephron loops parallel the ______ and facilitate _____ and water exchange

A

vasa recta

ion

271
Q

begin at the vascular pole of the renal corpsucle

A

distal convoluted tubules

272
Q

Do distal convoluted tubules have a brush border?

A

NO

273
Q

main target of aldosterone

A

cells of the distal convoluted tubules

274
Q

specialized cells in the distal convoluted tubules

A

macula densa

275
Q

regulates blood pressure

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

276
Q

cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus that are chemoreceptors that sense Na+ concentrations in filtrate

A

Macula Densa cells – part of distal convoluted tubules

277
Q

mainly smooth muscle cells that are of afferent (and some efferent) arterioles that detect variations in blood pressure

A

juxtaglomerular cells

278
Q

sense blood pressure changes

A

baroreceptors

279
Q

secreted into vessel lumen by juxtaglomerular cells in response to blood pressure changes

A

renin

280
Q

collecting ducts lumen contains….

A

urine of variable concentration

281
Q

collecting duct lining epithelium

A

low columnar to cuboidal composed of principle and intercalated cells

282
Q

cells that participate in acid-base balance in collecting ducts

A

intercalated cells

283
Q

cells that resorb Na and H2O under ADH control

A

principle cells

284
Q

terminal portion of collecting ducts

A

papillary ducts

285
Q

where do papillary ducts empty

A

at area of cribrosa of renal crest or papilla

286
Q

take away water passing collecting ducts and papillary ducts

A

vasa recta

287
Q

uterus, bladder, urethra epithelium

A

transitional

288
Q

urinary bladder tunica mucosa lining

A

urothelium – type of transitional epithelium

289
Q

tunica serosa in urinary bladder lined by

A

mesothelium

290
Q

male urethra lining

A

transitional but last part is stratified squamous

291
Q

deferent ducts and accessory sex glands of the male all empty into ___

A

urethra

292
Q

male urethra vascular stratum

A

corpus spongiosum

293
Q

derived from either mesoderm or ectoderm

A

mesenchyme

294
Q

develops from intermediate mesoderm and urogenital sinus

A

urinary tract

295
Q

comprises loosely associated nonpolarized cells

A

mesenchyme

296
Q

a continuous sheet of polarized cells whose apical and basal regions are separated by tight junctions

A

epithelium

297
Q

forms the definitive kidney

A

metanephros

298
Q

first stage of a developing kidney

A

pronephros

299
Q

accumulation of saliva forming a fluid filled mass adjacent to a ruptured salivary gland

A

sialocele

300
Q

liquid secreted by salivary glands

A

saliva

301
Q

type of salivary gland secretions

A

mixed, serous, mucous

302
Q

secretory units

A

adenomeres

303
Q

largest visceral organ of the body (1-4% body weight) in abdominal cavity

A

liver

304
Q

have dual blood supply sinusoids

A

liver

**from portal vein (70-80%)
and hepatic artery (O2 rich)

305
Q

lobules of the liver are separated by

A

connective tissue septa

306
Q

each liver lobe is covered by

A

mesothelium

307
Q

parenchymal cells arranged in plates with adjacent sinusoids in liver

A

hepatocytes – the plates are organized at hepatic lobules (what we see in the microscope)

308
Q

thick connective tissue layer under the mesothelium on the liver

A

capsule of Glisson

309
Q

an exocrine secretion of the liver that is important in digestion

A

bile

310
Q

in between hepatocytes

A

bile canaliculi - where the bile goes to be secreted into the bile ductules and then into bile ducts

311
Q

complex lipids transported by lymph vessels of liver

A

chylomicrons

312
Q

brings blood from intestines to the liver, rich in nutrients

A

portal vein

313
Q

space of disse

A

site of exchange between blood and hepatocyte

314
Q

2 poles of hepatocyte

A

bile and vascular

315
Q

T/F

hepatic sinusoids have fenestrated capillaries

A

TRUE

**but without basal lamina

316
Q

lipids and carbohydrates are stored in the liver in the form of _______

A

triglycerides and glycogen

**VERY important because it supplies the body with energy between meals

317
Q

shape of hepatic lobules

A

hexagonal

318
Q

blood leaves the liver via the hepatic vein vis the ____

A

caudal vena cava

319
Q

local macrophages of the livers located adjacent to the sinusoids

A

Kupffer cells

320
Q

Bile in the canaliculi flows in the _____ direction of blood to reach the bile ductules within the portal triads

A

opposite

321
Q

structural unit of the liver

A

hepatic lobule

322
Q

blood goes from portal vein to ____ vein

A

central vein

323
Q

type of fibers in the liver that helps keep the hepatocytes organized

A

reticular fibers

**need silver stain

324
Q

another name for the portal triad

A

portobiliary space

325
Q

bile flows towards ___

A

axis (portal triad)

326
Q

physiological unit of live

A

portal lobule – triangular in shape

327
Q

hepatocytes nearest ____ receive lowest O2 blood

A

central vein

328
Q

first to be damaged if vascular compromise exists in the liver

A

hepatocytes nearest the central vein

329
Q

refers to the vascular flow pattern between liver lobules

A

hepatic acinus

330
Q

zone that has high O2, high pathogen exposure, and high nutrients

A

zone 1 – perilobular

331
Q

zone with moderate 02, moderate pathogen exposure and moderate nutrients

A

zone 2 –

332
Q

zone with low 02, low pathogen exposure and low nutrients

A

zone 3 — centrilobular

333
Q

accepts bile from cystic duct for storage

A

gall bladder

334
Q

seen when the gall bladder is empty

A

abundant mucosal folds

335
Q

T/F

epithelial cells of the gall bladder are capable of modifying bile

A

TRUE

** they can concentrate it by absorption of H2O and inorganic salts

336
Q

T/F

gall bladder does not have muscularis mucosa

A

TRUE

337
Q

epithelial lining of gall bladder

A

simple columnar and microvilli

338
Q

dual gland with exocrine and endocrine functions

A

pancreas

339
Q

part of pancreas composed of tubuloacinar secretory units

A

exocrine

340
Q

T/F

pancreas has striated ducts

A

FALSE

341
Q

are islets of langerhaan in the pancreas endocrine or exocrine

A

endocrine

342
Q

95% of parenchyma in pancreas

A

exocrine

**only 5% is endocrine

343
Q

pancreatic acinus

A

secretory part of exocrine pancreas – go to the ducts

344
Q

T/F

everything surrounding the islets of langerhaan (endocrine pancreas) is the exocrine pancreas

A

TRUE

Semester 1 (5 decks)

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