PID final lectures Flashcards
1
Q
a chemical substance that is produced by microorganisms and has the capacity in dilute solutions to selectively inhibit the growth of or to kill other microorganisms
A
antibiotic
2
Q
a substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms/bacteria but causes little or no damage to the host
A
antimicrobial
3
Q
T/F
all antibiotics are antimicrobials
A
TRUE
4
Q
Are all antimicrobials also antibiotics
A
no
5
Q
when diseased animals are treated to cure infection
A
therapeutic antimicrobial use
6
Q
when healthy herds or animals are treated to prevent infection
A
prophylactic antimicrobial use
7
Q
when diseased herds are treated to cure
infection in some individuals and prevent infection in others
A
metaphylactic antimicrobial use
8
Q
when healthy animals are treated with low concentrations in feed to improve growth rate and efficiency of feed utilization and improve reproductive performance
A
growth promotion antimicrobial use
9
Q
chemically designed by man
A
synthetic
10
Q
chemically altered natural compounds
A
semi-synthetic
11
Q
produced by fungi and bacteria
A
natural (antibiotics)
12
Q
Name 2 synthetic classes of antibacterial agents
A
- quinolones
2. sulfonamides
13
Q
bacteriocidal drugs
A
kills the bacteria
14
Q
bacteriostatic drugs
A
inhibits growth
15
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Aminoglycosides
A
cidal
16
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Cephalosporins
A
cidal
17
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Glycopeptides
A
cidal
18
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Lincosamides
A
static
19
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Macrolides
A
static
20
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Penicillins
A
Cidal
21
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Phenicols
A
static
22
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Quinolones
A
Cidal
23
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Rifamycins
A
cidal
24
Q
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
Sulfonamides
A
static
25
Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?
| Tetracyclines
static
26
drugs that have an activity restricted to a few bacterial groups
narrow spectrum
27
drugs that have an activity against a wide range of different bacterial organisms
broad-spectrum
28
the drugs spectrum is assessed before marketing by what official document?
Summary of Product Characteristics (SPC)
29
Name the 3 classes of B-lactams
1. Penicillins
2. Cephalosporins
3. Carbapenems
30
1st generation cephalosporins spectrum
MAINLY GRAM +
31
broadest spectrum cephalosporins
3rd generation -- includes pseudomonas
32
Gram + penicillin with a narrow spectrum
Penicillin G / V
33
gram - penicillin
aminopenicillins
34
two Carbapenems that are highly resistant to B-lactamases and are injectable
Imipenem and meropenem
35
Drugs with the best activity against Non-penicillinase producing gram+ cocci
Penicillins and Aminopenicillins
36
Non-Penicillinase producing gram+ cocci
enterococcus and streptococcus
37
Drugs with the NO activity against Non-penicillinase producing gram+ cocci
metronidazole
38
Drugs with the best activity against penicillinase producing staphylococcus
```
amoxicillin/clavulanate
cephalosporins
sulfonamides
aminoglycosides
fluoroquinolones
```
39
Drugs with the NO activity against penicillinase producing staphylococcus
penicillins
aminopenicillins
metronidazole
40
glucose fermentative gram negative rods
```
escherichia
enterobacter
klebsiella
proteus
pasteurella
```
41
drugs with BEST activity against glucose fermentative gram negative rods
```
amoxicillin/clavulante
cephalosporins
sulfonamides
fluoroquinolones
aminoglycosides
```
42
drugs with NO activity against glucose fermentative gram negative rods
Metronidazole
penicillins
lincosamides
macrolides
43
Anaerobe examples
```
actinomyces
clostridium
bacteroides
fusobacterium
prevotella
```
44
drugs with BEST activity against anaerobes
penicillins
aminopenicillins
lincosamides
metronidazole
45
drugs with NO activity against anaerobes
aminoglycosides
46
5 antimicrobial modes of action
1. inhibition of cell wall synthesis (penicillins)
2. inhibition of protein synthesis (tetracyclines)
3. inhibition of DNA synthesis (fluoroquinolones)
4. inhibitors of cell membrane integrity (colistin)
5. inhibitors of other cell metabolic activities (sulphonamides)
47
4 drivers of antimicrobial resistance
1. antibiotics
2. metals
3. biocides
4. genes
48
refers to the co-existence of multiple genes or mutations encoding resistance to different drugs within the same strain or genetic element
Co-Resistance
49
the selection of multiple resistance genes when one of these genes is selected
co-selection
50
drugs that effect RNA elongation
actinomycin
51
drugs that effect DNA gyrase
quinolones
| novobiocin
52
3 drug classes not authorized for veterinary use
1. carbapenems
2. glycopeptides
3. oxazolidinones
53
What class do chloramphenicol and florfenicol belong to?
Phenicols
54
```
What class do sulfadiazine and
sulfadiazine/trimethoprim belong to?
```
Sulfonamides
55
3 drugs in the tetracycline class
1. tetracycline
2. oxytetracycline
3. doxycycline
56
Class that these drugs and combos belong to:
penicillin G/V
Ampicillin/amoxicyllin
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
Penicillins
57
What class do these belong to:
oxolinic acid
enrofloxacin/marbofloxacin
pradofloxacin/norfloxacin
Quinolones
58
What class do these belong to:
colistin
polymixin
polypeptides
59
what class do these belong to:
streptomycin
gentamicin/neomycin
amikacin
aminoglycosides
60
```
what class do these belong to:
lyncomycin/clindamycin
```
lincoamindes
61
What 3 drugs belong to the Macrolides class?
1. erythromycin
2. tiamulin
3. tilmicosin
62
```
What class do these belong to?
cefalexin/cephadroxil
cefpodoxime/ceftiofur
cefovecin
cefquinome
```
cephalosporins
63
Class that linezolide belongs to
oxazolidinones
64
Gylcopeptides
vancomycin/teicoplanin
65
```
What class do these belong to:
imipenem/meropenem
ertapenem/doripenem
```
carbapenems
66
Is vancomycin authorized for vet use?
NO
67
Is linezolide authorized for vet use?
NO
68
Is erythromycin authorized for vet use?
YES
69
what is the first and most critical step for accurate diagnostic testing
proper specimen collection
70
what are some critical things to do when collecting a specimen for testing
1. avoid contamination
2. collect as specifically as possible
3. collect before antibiotics are used and before the acute phase
71
what is an acute phase
very pronounced symptoms, typically a strong immune reaction and active replication of pathogen
72
common places for BACTERIAL infections in a dog
```
skin
ear
urine
wounds
blood
```
SAME AS CAT
73
common places for BACTERIAL infections in a cat
```
wounds
ear
skin
blood
urine
```
SAME AS DOG
74
common places for BACTERIAL infections in a cow
milk
75
common places for BACTERIAL infections in a HORSE
nasal
| wound
76
common places for BACTERIAL infections in food animals
post mortem tissue
77
it can be hard to distinguish the difference between bacterial infections and ________ or _______
normal flora or environmental contamination
78
specimen collection sites for PARASITE infections
```
feces
sputum
urine
blood
vomit
muscle
skin
```
79
What does parasite specimen collection depend on?
a suspected parasite collection depends on the symptoms and the life cycle stage of the suspected parasite
80
common collection sites for VIRAL infections
```
nasal
eye swab
feces
blood
post mortem tissue
```
81
phenotypical testing methods for parasites
1. direct blood smear and visualize
| 2. concentration techniques such as centrifuge/filtration or flotation of feces
82
success of parasite diagnosis by phenotypic techniques depends on these 4 factors
1. stage/life cycle or type and sex of parasite
2. animal age and species
3. technique procedure
4. number of eggs shed
CAN HAVE MANY FALSE NEGATIVES AND NEED RETESTED
83
disadvantages of cytology
mild/chronic are not readily detected
| not all samples are appropriate
84
can magnification cytology see viruses?
NO
85
magnification -- cytology
shows the morphology of cells, bacteria, and parasites but NOT viruses
staining can enhance the visualization and it gives an immediate analysis and idea of severity
86
stain that uses one dye, and shows the morphology/cell arrangement but not the individual cell components
simple stain
87
stain that uses multiple dyes and cell structures and types can be seen
differential stain
88
common tissue stain that can show viral, bacterial, parasite and fungi
Hematoxylin and eosin stain
89
which is acidic and which is basic in an H&E stain
H - basic: stains acids purple
E - acidic: stains bases red
90
can identify sample abnormalities, parasite and bacterial infections
is a multispecimens dye
Romanowsky Stain "Diff-Quick"
91
can distinguish between Gram negative and Gram positive bacteria
shows cell arrangement and morphology
gram stain
G+ purple -- thick PG
G - Pink -- thin PG
92
anaerobic
cant grow in O2
93
capnophiles
needs CO2 to grow
94
bacteria that require specific nutrients and culture conditions
fastidious
95
blood agar
differential media that shows hemolysis
alpha- damaged cell
beta - complete lyse
gamma - no damage
96
MacConkey agar
differential media
gram negative selective
lactose fermentation = turns pink
97
mannitol salt agar
differential media
gram positive selective
mannitol fermentation - turns yellow
98
CLED agar
differential media for urinary bacteriology
cysteine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient
supports growth of common urinary pathogens
lactose fermentation
99
economical test that generates a code for organism ID
ID test strips/plates
100
urine paddle test incubation
37 degrees for 18-24 hours
101
urine paddle test
used in clinics or in labs
one side is gram negative selection and the other side is differential media
it gives a semi-quantitative colony count in UTI and presumptive uropathogen identification
102
breaks down hydrogen peroxide
catalase
103
T/F
| presence of an antibody means there is an active infection
false
absence of antibody does not = absence of pathogen
104
can detect pathogen specific antibodies or antigens
immunochemical tests
105
exploit the principles of pathogen-specific immune response to detect and ID pathogens
immunochemical tests
106
T/F
| Cultures can detect parasites and viruses
FALSE THEY CANT
107
AMR consequences on animal and public health
increased patient mortality and morbidity
| risks of zoonotic transmission
108
economic consequences of AMR
loss of customers as a vet
longer hospital stays
lab tests
reduced food gain in animals
109
every year AR causes approximately _____ deaths in the US per year
23,000
110
resistant bacteria are responsible for approximately ______ infections every year
2 million
111
Name 2 important superbugs that are present in the hospital and community including animals
Methicillin-resistant S. aureus MRSP
| ESBL producing E.coli
112
MSRA/MSRP mechanisms of bacteria resistance
target modification/protection on the ribosomal sites
113
ESBP mechanism of bacterial resistance
enzymatic drug inactivation
114
antibiotic therapy is only recommended for _______ infections
invasive
115
salmonella resistant phenotype
resistance to cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones
116
campylobacter resistant phenotypes
resistance to macrolides or fluoroquinolones
117
resistance phenotype in MRSA MRSP and ESBL
beta-lactam resistance
all are resistant to cephalosporins and are often multi-drug resistant
118
bacteria that mainly affects dogs
MRSP
119
what does MRSA stand for
methicillin
resistant
staphylococcus
aureus
120
WHAT gene was acquired to make MRSA resistant and how does it work
it acquired the resistance gene mecA which encodes a penicillin-binding protein (PBP2A) that has a low affinity for beta lactams
121
MRSA strand cc8 is most common in what species
horses
122
MRSA strand cc22 is most common in what species
dogs/cats
123
MRSA strand cc9 is most common in what species
pigs
124
MRSA strand cc398 is most common in what species
horses and pigs
| this is the "live-stock" associated strand MRSA
125
How do MRSA carriage rates in the normal populate compare to in vets worldwide?
vets have a significantly higher percentage of carriage for MRSA
126
What does MRSP stand for
methicillin
resistant
staphylococcus
pseudintermedius
127
T/F
| MRSP and MRSA have acquired the same resistant gene, mecA
TRUE
128
approximately what percentage of cases of MRSP are from skin and wound infections acquired in the clinic?
AND
what are these pathogens called?
70%
nosocomial pathogens
129
T/F
| antimicrobial choice is hard because MRSP strains may be resistant to all antibiotics licensed for veterinary use
TRUE
130
T/F
| vets make act as a vector for animal infection of MRSP
TRUE
131
MRSP in humans due to transmission from household pets is _______ but carriage is higher in dog owners and vets
RARE
132
what does ESBL stand for
extended
spectrum
beta
lactamase
133
ESBL is an enzyme that _______ most b-lactams produced by ______ bacteria, except for ________
hydrolyses/inactivates
gram negative bacteria
carbapenems
134
what are the three main classes of ESBL
1. CTX-M
2. SHV
3. TEM
135
most common type of ESBL in animals/livestock
CTX-M-1
136
what is a false ESBL, and which one is widespread in small animals/limited to poultry in Europe?
resistant to beta lactamase inhibitors
CMY-2
137
what is a true ESBL?
they are susceptible to beta lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid
138
which CTX-M stain is variable across the world but is most prevalent in human e.coli infections
CTX-M-15
139
how do bacteria acquire resistance?
1. mutation
| 2. horizontal gene transfer
140
3 distinct methods of horizontal gene transfer
1. transformation
2. transduction
3. conjugation
141
what is transformation>
uptake of free DNA
142
what is transduction
transfer mediated by phage delivery
143
what is conjugation
cell to cell contact plasmid transfer
144
T/F
| source attribution is easy for ESBL
FALSE
| difficult due to involvement of different genes and plasmids
145
what 3 things can antigens from pathogens be?
1. the whole pathogen itself (only as small part on the surface is the antigen)
2. a molecule produced by the pathogen
3. pathogen molecules presented on the surface of host cells
146
do you find antigens in the erythrocytes or plasma?
plasma/serum
147
two common antibodies detected
IgM and IgG
148
common specimens for IgM
blood
149
common specimens for IgG
blood and tissue fluids
150
common specimens for antigens
primarily the area of infection or where the pathogen replicates or antigen is present
ex: for a GI tract infection you can use feces as a sample
151
what is KEY for accurate immunochemical test results
TIMING
152
3 indicators of an active or recent infection
1. pathogen detection by phenotypic methods or detection of an antigen
2. present or recent clinical symptoms of infection
3. titre of antibodies (decreases with time)
153
What is an ELISA test
it does specific Ag/Ab detection and can detect a response to a parasite, virus, fungi, or bacteria
has HIGH specificity and sensitivity and gives a quantitative idea of Ag/Ab present
154
What is an IDEXX Snap Test
it has lateral flow and can detect Ab/Ag in a specimen
can be used for Bacteria, Parasites, and Virus
ex: whole blood/plasma or fecal tests
155
Agglutination tests
Ag/Ab clump together due to specificity to detect an immune response
indirect -- uses a latex bead with the antigen on it so antibodies will clump to it and make it more visible for presence detection
156
immunochemical test advantages
1. ID when it cannot be cultured
2. most have high sensitivity and specificity
3. mid to high volume testing is possible
157
immunochemical test disadvantages
1. antibody may not show an active infection
2. if tested too early the Ab may not even show up
3. some pathogens may have the same antigen and so more than one could be detected by one antibody
158
ID of markers in the genome or proteome of a pathogen
molecular diagnostics
159
MALDI-TOF tests are mainly for what
bacterial ID (sometimes fungi)
160
mass spectrometry test that gives a finger print of the components of a pathogen for identification, but is limited to the database
MALDI-TOF test
161
T/F
| MALDI-TOF test requires a pure culture
TRUE
162
Test used for high scale ID of many pathogens
multiple PCR or microarrays
163
detects nucleic acids and amplifies them using tagged oligonucleotide probes in a digested sample to identify present pathogens
Multiple PCR or microarrays
164
advantages of using molecular diagnostics
it is rapid, highly sensitive, accurate and can do high volume testing
165
disadvantages of using molecular diagnostics
it is expensive, can have possible false negatives, and only gives yes/no answers (except for real time PCR)
166
what things make a good diagnostic lab
```
guidance
accredited
skilled workers to interpret the data
quality assurance measures
state of the art techniques
```
167
OH NOoOOooO
| we dont have a diagnosis.... what happened?
1. incorrect sample collection or handling
2. incorrect test for the pathogen or infection stage
3. BAD timing for parasite life cycle or AB/AG test
** monitor and repeat diagnostic tests
168
a suspension of antigens administered to induce immunity
vaccine
169
currently the majority of vaccines are derived from _____
microbial pathogens
170
what is an adjuvant
it enhances the immune response to antigens
delays the release of Ag from site of infection, induces the secretion of chemokines by leukocytes
2 examples are: aluminum hydroxide and saponin
171
what makes an ideal vaccine?
```
cheap
long lived immunity
no adverse side effects
immunological memory
range of epitopes
stable shelf life
proper immune response induced
consistent in formation
```
172
3 types of infectious vaccines
1. live attenuated
2. recombinant organism vaccine
3. marker vaccine
173
2 types of non-infectious vaccines
1. subunit
| 2. naked DNA vax
174
what is a live attenuated vaccine
attenuated yet in tact and viable organism
175
T/F
| live attenuated vaccines have a low level of infection
TRUE
176
vaccine type that does not induce significant tissue pathology or clinical disease
live attenuated
177
T/F
| live attenuated vaccines require and adjuvant
FALSE
178
pros to live attenuated vaccines
rapid onset immunity
| sustained immunity after a single dose
179
T/F
| live attenuated vaccines have a great shelf life stability
false they are less stable bc live
180
cons of live attenuated vaccines
they have the potential for reversion to virulence and can cause virulence in immunocompromised people or cause immune suppression
181
recombinant organism vaccines
carrier organisms do not cause disease in vaccinated animals
adjuvant is NOT required
will NOT revert to virulence
182
permits discrimination between a vaccinal and an exposure immune response
marker vaccine
183
example of a marker vaccine?
IBR in cows -- deletes a gene GpE in cattle so anti-GpE cows have been vaccinated
184
killed, whole organism vaccines that are antigenically intact
non-infectious vaccines
185
T/F
| Non-infectious vaccines are able to replicate
false
186
T/F
| Non-infectious vaccines can induce pathology or clinical disease
FALSE THEY CANT
187
chemical killing formalin, alcohols, and alkylating agents are examples of what kind of vaccines
non-infectious
188
pros of inactivated vaccines
safe
no interference with other vaccines
stable in storage
189
T/F
| inactivated vaccines have a fast onset immunity
false - slow onset immunity
190
CONS of inactivated vaccines
may need boosters
adjuvant required and may cause adverse effects
lower degree of protection as compared to live vax
191
vaccine containing immunological structural proteins or metabolites of an organism
subunit vaccines
| --can be purified proteins, synthetic peptides, or recombinant proteins
192
a gene of interest is cloned from a pathogen to a plasmid and is delivered directly to an animal
naked DNA vaccines
193
the pathogen gene is expressed on the APCs for antigen presentation to create and immune response
NAKED DNA Vax
194
vaccination = ?
immunization
195
performed antibodies are administered to a particular antigen
passive immunization
196
provides immediate immunological protection that is temporary
passive immunization
197
tetanus antitoxins and antivenoms are an example of what type of immunization?
PASSIVE
198
immunization type that sensitizes the recipient for a hypersensitive reaction
passive immunization
199
inhibits the endogenous antibody response of the recipient
passive immunization
200
3 methods of delivering vaccines
1. injection
2. internasal
3. needle free
201
antigens are administered to create immunological memory
active immunization
202
an immune response is generated/induced in the recipient (humoral or cell mediated)
active immunization
203
adverse side effects to vaccines
type 1 hypersensitivity
| --- facial or periorbital edema / pruritis
204
Feline injection site sarcoma
example of an adverse side effect
poor prognosis
205
why do we need antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
guidance to antimicrobial therapy in labs
surveillance of antimicrobial resistance
antimicrobial drug discovery
206
2 methods for AST
1. dilution method
| 2. agar diffusion method
207
the lowest concentration that inhibits complete growth of the test strain
MIC = minimum inhibitory concentration
208
lowest concentration that kills the test strain
MBC = minimum bactericidal concentration
209
______ methods enable quantification of antimicrobial susceptibility by determining MIC and MBC
dilution
210
T/F
| MIC and MBC are accurate
false -- gives a range
211
2 broth dilution methods
macrodilution and microdilution
212
________ gives automated or semiautomated readings
microdilutions
213
primarily used for research purposes, for example when many strains needs tested in one drug
agar dilution
214
pros and cons of dilution methods
pro:
has a high reproducibility and robustness
Cons:
very expensive
215
pros and cons of diffusion methods
pro: medium reproducibility and robustenss
con: cheap
216
T/F
| Standardization and quality control are required for reproducibility of AST
TRUE
217
laboratory AST procedure steps
1. adjust inoculum of bacteria
2. add to plate
3. incubate at 35 for 16-20 hours
4. read plate
218
a drug specific value to interpret the results of susceptibility testing and determine if an antibacterial in potentially useful in the treatment of a bacterial infection
breakpoint
219
a strain is defined as ______ by a level of antimicrobial activity associated with a high likelihood of therapeutic success
susceptible
220
a strain is defined as ______ by a level of antimicrobial activity associated with a high likelihood of therapeutic failure
resistant
221
a strain is defined as ______ for a species by the absences of any required resistant genes and/or mutations increasing the MIC of the antimicrobial agent
wild type WT
222
data needed for setting breakpoints
1. MIC distribution to determine the MIC value that separates the wild type from resistant populations
2. PD/PK index
3. clinical and bacteriological outcome data from clinical trials
223
what is the PD/PK index?
relationship between drug concentrations, the MIC value, and antimicrobial effects
224
category that is also considered a buffer zone in AST
intermediate
225
the strain is inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug
susceptible
226
clinical efficacy is possible if the strain infects body sites where the drug concentrates or if the dosage can be increased compared to standard dosage
intermediate
227
the strain is not inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug
resistant
228
drugs with no breakpoints available
topical drugs
229
most frequent bacterial contaminants
1. coagulase-negative staphylococci (SKIN)
2. bacillus spp (soil)
3. enterococci (fecal)
230
problems interpreting AST results
mixed cultures
absence of antimicrobials used in clinical practice
presence of antimicrobials not used in clinical practice
231
frequent with otitis, UTI, and wound infections
mixed cultures
232
used in the lack of approved clinical breakpoints to predict susceptibility to other drugs belonging to the same class
surrogate antimicrobials
233
ampicillin surrogate
amoxicilin
234
sulfamethoxazole surrogate
sulfadiazine
235
lincomycin surrogate
clindomycin
236
tertracyclin surrogate
doxytetracycline
237
what 2 drugs are used for the detection of MRSA/MRSP and why
1. oxacillin
2. cefoxitin
because their methicillin resistant gene mecA is poorly expressed in laboratory media
238
T/F
| invitro susceptibility testing does not take into account in vivo factors
TRUE
239
T/F
| if more tetracycline is used, it is more likely that there will be resistant e.coli stains
true
240
what species uses the most antimicrobials in Denmark and therefore has more bacteria with resistant strains
pigs
241
T/F
| antimicrobial resistance can be eradicated
FALSE
242
use of antimicrobial agents aimed at maximal therapeutic efficacy while minimizing the risks of developing resistance, in the strain causing infection and the patient's commensal flora
rational antimicrobial use
243
provides international guidelines on major infections in companion animals
International Society for Companion Animals Infectious Diseases (ISCAID)
244
are national or international guidelines better?
national
245
what should all clinics have in place
infection-specific antibiotic formularies
246
what are the 3 last resort drugs for human use?
carbapenems
linezolid
vancomycin
247
what are some conditions in which a laboratory culture should be used?
1. no response to therapy
2. previous antibiotic treatment
3. immunocompromised patients
4. life threatening infections
5. patients at risk of multiple drug resistance
6. long treatment course
248
T/F
| doing in-clinic cultures is a great idea
FALSE -- avoid kitchen microbiology
249
"shoot" regular -- dose
uses time dependent drugs such as beta lactams at regular intervals and owners must know the importance of compliance
250
prescribe high doses for concentration dependent drugs like fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides
"shoot" high dosage
251
MPC
mutant prevention concentration
252
Do humans or animals typically get treated for longer periods by antimicrobials
animals
253
latest trend in human medicine is that......
unnecessary treatment should be avoided after clinical resolution of symptoms
254
4 ways to control AMR transmission
1. hospital infection control
2. farm biosecurity
3. slaughterhouse hygiene
4. educated consumers and owners
255
3 ways to control AMR antimicrobial use
1. legal interventions like bans and penalties
2. preventative vet med
3. antimicrobial stewardship
256
refers to coordinated interventions designed to improve and measure the appropriate use of antimicrobials by promoting the selection of the optimal antimicrobial drug regimen, dose, duration of therapy, and route of administration
antimicrobial stewardship
257
where are antimicrobial stewardship programs normally underdeveloped ?
vet clinics
258
what 3 things does the establishment of antimicrobial stewardship programs require?
1. commitment of staff
2. collaboration with microbiology lab
3. infectious disease specialist or educated clinician in antimicrobials and resistance
259
the discipline concerned with preventing nosocomial or health-care related infections
hospital infection control
260
regardless of type or size, every vet clinic should have these three things
1. formal infection control program
2. written manual
3. infection control practitioner
261
what does ICP stand for
infection control practitioner
262
how long and when should you wash your hands.....
at least 20 seconds
| before and after every patient
263
building block of nucleic acidz
nucleotidez
264
T/F
| purines have 2 rings one with 5 and one with 6 atoms
TRUE
265
the sugar is connected to the nitrogenous base at what position
1 -- by a glycosidic bond
266
A matches to T with how many hydrogen bonds
2
267
C matches to G with how many hydrogen bonds
3
268
DNA sequence is read in this order
5' - 3'
269
has same sequence of mRNA
coding or sense strand
270
directs synthesis of mRNA via complementary base pairing
antisense or template strand
271
DNA to RNA
transcription
272
RNA to protein
translation
273
T/F
| both DNA and RNA can replicate themselves
TRUE
274
when there is a parent strand and a new strand in a new molecule of DNA
DNA is semiconservative
275
T/F
| DNA is very conservative. modest is hottest
FALSE -- only semiconservative
276
unwinds the DNA double helix
helicase
277
T/F
| the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously
TRUE
278
T/F
| bacterial transcription and translation all occur in the same location
TRUE
279
T/F
| animal cell transcription and translation occur in the same location
false
transcription in the nucleus
translation in the cytoplasm
280
what cells have introns
eukaryotic
281
T/F
| eukaryotic cells do not have polyadenylation
TRUE
but eukaryotic cells do at the 3' end
282
has a 5' methylated cap
eukaryotic cells only
283
how many nucleotides are in each codon
64
284
T/F
| any base pair of DNA can be mutated
TRUE
285
mutations from the background/locus/generation
spontaneous
286
mutagens by mutagens
induced
287
act directly by modifying a particular base or being incorporated into the nucleic acid
mutagen
288
mutations without an apparent effect
| either no change in AA or a change in aa that doesnt change the proteins function
silent mutation
289
a mutation that changes the codon and therefore changes the amino acid and protein function
missense mutation
290
change in a coding codon to a terminal codon resulting in premature termination
nonsense mutation
291
inserts or deletes a number of bp other than a multiple of 3
frameshift mutation
292
acquisition of new genetic markers by incorporation of added DNA
transformation -- a type of genetic transfer in bacteria
293
mating between two bacteria involving transfer of genetic material
conjunction -- a type of genetic transfer in bacteria
294
transfer of bacterial gene to another bacterium by a phage
transduction -- a type of genetic transfer of bacteria
295
movement of a transposon to a new site in the genome
transposition -- a type of genetic transfer of bacteria
296
electrophoresis
separates molecules by charge on an electrophoretic field -- commonly DNA RNA and proteins (negatively charged and move to the positive end)
297
what determines electrophoresis particle mobility
SIZE -- smaller go further/faster
**also structure plays a role.. is it a monomer/trimer/dimer/supercoiled ect
298
cut DNA at or near specific recognition nucleotide sequences
restriction enzymes
**sequence specific
299
What do restriction enzymes come from
bacteria to defend from viral infections
300
restriction fragment length polymorphism
cutting sequence specific DNA
301
number of restriction enzymes studied
3000
600 available commercially
302
is EcoRI sticky or blunt end cutting
STICKY
303
is smaI sticky or blunt end cutting
BLUNT
304
common uses of RFLP
forensic analysis
parent identification
mixed infections
305
denatured, single stranded DNA with a probe complementary single strand bound to it
hybridization
306
T/F
| probes have a high degree of specificity
TRUE
307
fragment of nucleic acids that is used for detecting complementary sequences in samples
Probe
308
examples of what a probe could be
labeled, radioisotope, enzyme, or chemiluminescence
309
enzyme-mediated process to synthesize copies of target nucleic acid
target amplification -- type of nucleic acid amplification
310
two types of primers
random
| specific
311
signal amplification
bDNA assays or hybrid capture assays
312
polymerase chain reaction
isothermal amplification..
has high sensitivity and also could give a false positive -- type of nucleic acid amplification
313
steps of cycle 1 of PCR
1. denature to separate DNA strands
2. anneal/cool to allow primer to form the hydrogen bond with target sequence
3. extension -- DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end of each primer
314
products of PCR
products = 2^n
n= number of cycles run
315
what determines the size of the PCR product?
the distance between the primer binding sites
316
singe-stranded DNA fragments, complementary to sequences flanking the region to be amplified
primers (for PCR)
317
what determines the specificity during PCR?
the PCR primer
318
what type of enzymes are needed in PCR
THERMOSTABLE polymerases -- to survive the denaturation stage heat stage
319
what determines how long the lag phase is in real time PCR
the starting amount of the material
less = shorter lag phase/cycles
320
allows quantification of starting material
real time PCR / quantitative PCR
321
LAMP pros
no thermal cycler needed
fast (less than an hour)
sensitivity > PCR
gives visible results
322
LAMP cons
design of primer sets complicated
