PID final lectures Flashcards by Farren Ann | Brainscape

Q

a chemical substance that is produced by microorganisms and has the capacity in dilute solutions to selectively inhibit the growth of or to kill other microorganisms

A

antibiotic

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Q

a substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms/bacteria but causes little or no damage to the host

A

antimicrobial

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Q

T/F

all antibiotics are antimicrobials

A

TRUE

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Q

Are all antimicrobials also antibiotics

A

no

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Q

when diseased animals are treated to cure infection

A

therapeutic antimicrobial use

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Q

when healthy herds or animals are treated to prevent infection

A

prophylactic antimicrobial use

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Q

when diseased herds are treated to cure

infection in some individuals and prevent infection in others

A

metaphylactic antimicrobial use

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Q

when healthy animals are treated with low concentrations in feed to improve growth rate and efficiency of feed utilization and improve reproductive performance

A

growth promotion antimicrobial use

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Q

chemically designed by man

A

synthetic

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Q

chemically altered natural compounds

A

semi-synthetic

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Q

produced by fungi and bacteria

A

natural (antibiotics)

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Q

Name 2 synthetic classes of antibacterial agents

A

quinolones

2. sulfonamides

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Q

bacteriocidal drugs

A

kills the bacteria

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Q

bacteriostatic drugs

A

inhibits growth

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Aminoglycosides

A

cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Cephalosporins

A

cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Glycopeptides

A

cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Lincosamides

A

static

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Macrolides

A

static

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Penicillins

A

Cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Phenicols

A

static

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Quinolones

A

Cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Rifamycins

A

cidal

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Sulfonamides

A

static

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Q

Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

Tetracyclines

A

static

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Q

drugs that have an activity restricted to a few bacterial groups

A

narrow spectrum

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Q

drugs that have an activity against a wide range of different bacterial organisms

A

broad-spectrum

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Q

the drugs spectrum is assessed before marketing by what official document?

A

Summary of Product Characteristics (SPC)

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Q

Name the 3 classes of B-lactams

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

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Q

1st generation cephalosporins spectrum

A

MAINLY GRAM +

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Q

broadest spectrum cephalosporins

A

3rd generation – includes pseudomonas

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Q

Gram + penicillin with a narrow spectrum

A

Penicillin G / V

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Q

gram - penicillin

A

aminopenicillins

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Q

two Carbapenems that are highly resistant to B-lactamases and are injectable

A

Imipenem and meropenem

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Q

Drugs with the best activity against Non-penicillinase producing gram+ cocci

A

Penicillins and Aminopenicillins

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Q

Non-Penicillinase producing gram+ cocci

A

enterococcus and streptococcus

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Q

Drugs with the NO activity against Non-penicillinase producing gram+ cocci

A

metronidazole

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Q

Drugs with the best activity against penicillinase producing staphylococcus

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate 
cephalosporins 
sulfonamides 
aminoglycosides 
fluoroquinolones

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Q

Drugs with the NO activity against penicillinase producing staphylococcus

A

penicillins
aminopenicillins
metronidazole

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Q

glucose fermentative gram negative rods

A

escherichia
enterobacter
klebsiella 
proteus 
pasteurella

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Q

drugs with BEST activity against glucose fermentative gram negative rods

A

amoxicillin/clavulante
cephalosporins 
sulfonamides 
fluoroquinolones 
aminoglycosides

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Q

drugs with NO activity against glucose fermentative gram negative rods

A

Metronidazole
penicillins
lincosamides
macrolides

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Q

Anaerobe examples

A

actinomyces
clostridium
bacteroides 
fusobacterium
prevotella

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Q

drugs with BEST activity against anaerobes

A

penicillins
aminopenicillins
lincosamides
metronidazole

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Q

drugs with NO activity against anaerobes

A

aminoglycosides

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Q

5 antimicrobial modes of action

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis (penicillins)
inhibition of protein synthesis (tetracyclines)
inhibition of DNA synthesis (fluoroquinolones)
inhibitors of cell membrane integrity (colistin)
inhibitors of other cell metabolic activities (sulphonamides)

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Q

4 drivers of antimicrobial resistance

A

antibiotics
metals
biocides
genes

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Q

refers to the co-existence of multiple genes or mutations encoding resistance to different drugs within the same strain or genetic element

A

Co-Resistance

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Q

the selection of multiple resistance genes when one of these genes is selected

A

co-selection

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Q

drugs that effect RNA elongation

A

actinomycin

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Q

drugs that effect DNA gyrase

A

quinolones

novobiocin

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Q

3 drug classes not authorized for veterinary use

A

carbapenems
glycopeptides
oxazolidinones

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Q

What class do chloramphenicol and florfenicol belong to?

A

Phenicols

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Q

What class do sulfadiazine and 
sulfadiazine/trimethoprim belong to?

A

Sulfonamides

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Q

3 drugs in the tetracycline class

A

tetracycline
oxytetracycline
doxycycline

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Q

Class that these drugs and combos belong to:
penicillin G/V
Ampicillin/amoxicyllin
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid

A

Penicillins

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Q

What class do these belong to:
oxolinic acid
enrofloxacin/marbofloxacin
pradofloxacin/norfloxacin

A

Quinolones

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Q

What class do these belong to:
colistin
polymixin

A

polypeptides

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Q

what class do these belong to:
streptomycin
gentamicin/neomycin
amikacin

A

aminoglycosides

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Q

what class do these belong to:
lyncomycin/clindamycin

A

lincoamindes

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Q

What 3 drugs belong to the Macrolides class?

A

erythromycin
tiamulin
tilmicosin

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Q

What class do these belong to?
cefalexin/cephadroxil
cefpodoxime/ceftiofur
cefovecin
cefquinome

A

cephalosporins

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Q

Class that linezolide belongs to

A

oxazolidinones

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Q

Gylcopeptides

A

vancomycin/teicoplanin

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Q

What class do these belong to:
imipenem/meropenem
ertapenem/doripenem

A

carbapenems

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Q

Is vancomycin authorized for vet use?

A

NO

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Q

Is linezolide authorized for vet use?

A

NO

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Q

Is erythromycin authorized for vet use?

A

YES

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Q

what is the first and most critical step for accurate diagnostic testing

A

proper specimen collection

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Q

what are some critical things to do when collecting a specimen for testing

A

avoid contamination
collect as specifically as possible
collect before antibiotics are used and before the acute phase

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Q

what is an acute phase

A

very pronounced symptoms, typically a strong immune reaction and active replication of pathogen

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Q

common places for BACTERIAL infections in a dog

A

skin
ear
urine
wounds 
blood

SAME AS CAT

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Q

common places for BACTERIAL infections in a cat

A

wounds
ear
skin
blood
urine

SAME AS DOG

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Q

common places for BACTERIAL infections in a cow

A

milk

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Q

common places for BACTERIAL infections in a HORSE

A

nasal

wound

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Q

common places for BACTERIAL infections in food animals

A

post mortem tissue

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Q

it can be hard to distinguish the difference between bacterial infections and ________ or _______

A

normal flora or environmental contamination

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Q

specimen collection sites for PARASITE infections

A

feces 
sputum
urine
blood
vomit
muscle
skin

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Q

What does parasite specimen collection depend on?

A

a suspected parasite collection depends on the symptoms and the life cycle stage of the suspected parasite

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Q

common collection sites for VIRAL infections

A

nasal
eye swab
feces 
blood 
post mortem tissue

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Q

phenotypical testing methods for parasites

A

direct blood smear and visualize

2. concentration techniques such as centrifuge/filtration or flotation of feces

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Q

success of parasite diagnosis by phenotypic techniques depends on these 4 factors

A

stage/life cycle or type and sex of parasite
animal age and species
technique procedure
number of eggs shed

CAN HAVE MANY FALSE NEGATIVES AND NEED RETESTED

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Q

disadvantages of cytology

A

mild/chronic are not readily detected

not all samples are appropriate

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Q

can magnification cytology see viruses?

A

NO

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Q

magnification – cytology

A

shows the morphology of cells, bacteria, and parasites but NOT viruses

staining can enhance the visualization and it gives an immediate analysis and idea of severity

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Q

stain that uses one dye, and shows the morphology/cell arrangement but not the individual cell components

A

simple stain

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Q

stain that uses multiple dyes and cell structures and types can be seen

A

differential stain

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Q

common tissue stain that can show viral, bacterial, parasite and fungi

A

Hematoxylin and eosin stain

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Q

which is acidic and which is basic in an H&E stain

A

H - basic: stains acids purple

E - acidic: stains bases red

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Q

can identify sample abnormalities, parasite and bacterial infections
is a multispecimens dye

A

Romanowsky Stain “Diff-Quick”

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Q

can distinguish between Gram negative and Gram positive bacteria

shows cell arrangement and morphology

A

gram stain

G+ purple – thick PG
G - Pink – thin PG

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Q

anaerobic

A

cant grow in O2

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Q

capnophiles

A

needs CO2 to grow

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Q

bacteria that require specific nutrients and culture conditions

A

fastidious

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Q

blood agar

A

differential media that shows hemolysis
alpha- damaged cell
beta - complete lyse
gamma - no damage

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Q

MacConkey agar

A

differential media
gram negative selective
lactose fermentation = turns pink

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Q

mannitol salt agar

A

differential media
gram positive selective
mannitol fermentation - turns yellow

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Q

CLED agar

A

differential media for urinary bacteriology
cysteine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient
supports growth of common urinary pathogens
lactose fermentation

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Q

economical test that generates a code for organism ID

A

ID test strips/plates

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Q

urine paddle test incubation

A

37 degrees for 18-24 hours

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Q

urine paddle test

A

used in clinics or in labs
one side is gram negative selection and the other side is differential media
it gives a semi-quantitative colony count in UTI and presumptive uropathogen identification

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Q

breaks down hydrogen peroxide

A

catalase

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Q

T/F

presence of an antibody means there is an active infection

A

false

absence of antibody does not = absence of pathogen

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Q

can detect pathogen specific antibodies or antigens

A

immunochemical tests

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Q

exploit the principles of pathogen-specific immune response to detect and ID pathogens

A

immunochemical tests

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Q

T/F

Cultures can detect parasites and viruses

A

FALSE THEY CANT

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Q

AMR consequences on animal and public health

A

increased patient mortality and morbidity

risks of zoonotic transmission

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Q

economic consequences of AMR

A

loss of customers as a vet
longer hospital stays
lab tests
reduced food gain in animals

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Q

every year AR causes approximately _____ deaths in the US per year

A

23,000

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Q

resistant bacteria are responsible for approximately ______ infections every year

A

2 million

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Q

Name 2 important superbugs that are present in the hospital and community including animals

A

Methicillin-resistant S. aureus MRSP

ESBL producing E.coli

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Q

MSRA/MSRP mechanisms of bacteria resistance

A

target modification/protection on the ribosomal sites

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Q

ESBP mechanism of bacterial resistance

A

enzymatic drug inactivation

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Q

antibiotic therapy is only recommended for _______ infections

A

invasive

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Q

salmonella resistant phenotype

A

resistance to cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones

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Q

campylobacter resistant phenotypes

A

resistance to macrolides or fluoroquinolones

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Q

resistance phenotype in MRSA MRSP and ESBL

A

beta-lactam resistance

all are resistant to cephalosporins and are often multi-drug resistant

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Q

bacteria that mainly affects dogs

A

MRSP

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Q

what does MRSA stand for

A

methicillin
resistant
staphylococcus
aureus

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Q

WHAT gene was acquired to make MRSA resistant and how does it work

A

it acquired the resistance gene mecA which encodes a penicillin-binding protein (PBP2A) that has a low affinity for beta lactams

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Q

MRSA strand cc8 is most common in what species

A

horses

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Q

MRSA strand cc22 is most common in what species

A

dogs/cats

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Q

MRSA strand cc9 is most common in what species

A

pigs

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Q

MRSA strand cc398 is most common in what species

A

horses and pigs

this is the “live-stock” associated strand MRSA

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Q

How do MRSA carriage rates in the normal populate compare to in vets worldwide?

A

vets have a significantly higher percentage of carriage for MRSA

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Q

What does MRSP stand for

A

methicillin
resistant
staphylococcus
pseudintermedius

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Q

T/F

MRSP and MRSA have acquired the same resistant gene, mecA

A

TRUE

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3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

approximately what percentage of cases of MRSP are from skin and wound infections acquired in the clinic?
AND
what are these pathogens called?

A

70%

nosocomial pathogens

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

T/F

antimicrobial choice is hard because MRSP strains may be resistant to all antibiotics licensed for veterinary use

A

TRUE

Q

T/F

vets make act as a vector for animal infection of MRSP

A

TRUE

Q

MRSP in humans due to transmission from household pets is _______ but carriage is higher in dog owners and vets

A

RARE

Q

what does ESBL stand for

A

extended
spectrum
beta
lactamase

Q

ESBL is an enzyme that _______ most b-lactams produced by ______ bacteria, except for ________

A

hydrolyses/inactivates
gram negative bacteria
carbapenems

Q

what are the three main classes of ESBL

A

CTX-M
SHV
TEM

Q

most common type of ESBL in animals/livestock

A

CTX-M-1

Q

what is a false ESBL, and which one is widespread in small animals/limited to poultry in Europe?

A

resistant to beta lactamase inhibitors

CMY-2

Q

what is a true ESBL?

A

they are susceptible to beta lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid

Q

which CTX-M stain is variable across the world but is most prevalent in human e.coli infections

A

CTX-M-15

Q

how do bacteria acquire resistance?

A

mutation

2. horizontal gene transfer

Q

3 distinct methods of horizontal gene transfer

A

transformation
transduction
conjugation

Q

what is transformation>

A

uptake of free DNA

Q

what is transduction

A

transfer mediated by phage delivery

Q

what is conjugation

A

cell to cell contact plasmid transfer

Q

T/F

source attribution is easy for ESBL

A

FALSE

difficult due to involvement of different genes and plasmids

Q

what 3 things can antigens from pathogens be?

A

the whole pathogen itself (only as small part on the surface is the antigen)
a molecule produced by the pathogen
pathogen molecules presented on the surface of host cells

Q

do you find antigens in the erythrocytes or plasma?

A

plasma/serum

Q

two common antibodies detected

A

IgM and IgG

Q

common specimens for IgM

A

blood

Q

common specimens for IgG

A

blood and tissue fluids

Q

common specimens for antigens

A

primarily the area of infection or where the pathogen replicates or antigen is present

ex: for a GI tract infection you can use feces as a sample

Q

what is KEY for accurate immunochemical test results

A

TIMING

Q

3 indicators of an active or recent infection

A

pathogen detection by phenotypic methods or detection of an antigen
present or recent clinical symptoms of infection
titre of antibodies (decreases with time)

Q

What is an ELISA test

A

it does specific Ag/Ab detection and can detect a response to a parasite, virus, fungi, or bacteria

has HIGH specificity and sensitivity and gives a quantitative idea of Ag/Ab present

Q

What is an IDEXX Snap Test

A

it has lateral flow and can detect Ab/Ag in a specimen

can be used for Bacteria, Parasites, and Virus

ex: whole blood/plasma or fecal tests

Q

Agglutination tests

A

Ag/Ab clump together due to specificity to detect an immune response

indirect – uses a latex bead with the antigen on it so antibodies will clump to it and make it more visible for presence detection

Q

immunochemical test advantages

A

ID when it cannot be cultured
most have high sensitivity and specificity
mid to high volume testing is possible

Q

immunochemical test disadvantages

A

antibody may not show an active infection
if tested too early the Ab may not even show up
some pathogens may have the same antigen and so more than one could be detected by one antibody

Q

ID of markers in the genome or proteome of a pathogen

A

molecular diagnostics

Q

MALDI-TOF tests are mainly for what

A

bacterial ID (sometimes fungi)

Q

mass spectrometry test that gives a finger print of the components of a pathogen for identification, but is limited to the database

A

MALDI-TOF test

Q

T/F

MALDI-TOF test requires a pure culture

A

TRUE

Q

Test used for high scale ID of many pathogens

A

multiple PCR or microarrays

Q

detects nucleic acids and amplifies them using tagged oligonucleotide probes in a digested sample to identify present pathogens

A

Multiple PCR or microarrays

Q

advantages of using molecular diagnostics

A

it is rapid, highly sensitive, accurate and can do high volume testing

Q

disadvantages of using molecular diagnostics

A

it is expensive, can have possible false negatives, and only gives yes/no answers (except for real time PCR)

Q

what things make a good diagnostic lab

A

guidance
accredited 
skilled workers to interpret the data 
quality assurance measures 
state of the art techniques

Q

OH NOoOOooO

we dont have a diagnosis…. what happened?

A

incorrect sample collection or handling
incorrect test for the pathogen or infection stage
BAD timing for parasite life cycle or AB/AG test

** monitor and repeat diagnostic tests

Q

a suspension of antigens administered to induce immunity

A

vaccine

Q

currently the majority of vaccines are derived from _____

A

microbial pathogens

Q

what is an adjuvant

A

it enhances the immune response to antigens

delays the release of Ag from site of infection, induces the secretion of chemokines by leukocytes

2 examples are: aluminum hydroxide and saponin

Q

what makes an ideal vaccine?

A

cheap
long lived immunity
no adverse side effects 
immunological memory
range of epitopes
stable shelf life 
proper immune response induced 
consistent in formation

Q

3 types of infectious vaccines

A

live attenuated
recombinant organism vaccine
marker vaccine

Q

2 types of non-infectious vaccines

A

subunit

2. naked DNA vax

Q

what is a live attenuated vaccine

A

attenuated yet in tact and viable organism

Q

T/F

live attenuated vaccines have a low level of infection

A

TRUE

Q

vaccine type that does not induce significant tissue pathology or clinical disease

A

live attenuated

Q

T/F

live attenuated vaccines require and adjuvant

A

FALSE

Q

pros to live attenuated vaccines

A

rapid onset immunity

sustained immunity after a single dose

Q

T/F

live attenuated vaccines have a great shelf life stability

A

false they are less stable bc live

Q

cons of live attenuated vaccines

A

they have the potential for reversion to virulence and can cause virulence in immunocompromised people or cause immune suppression

Q

recombinant organism vaccines

A

carrier organisms do not cause disease in vaccinated animals

adjuvant is NOT required
will NOT revert to virulence

Q

permits discrimination between a vaccinal and an exposure immune response

A

marker vaccine

Q

example of a marker vaccine?

A

IBR in cows – deletes a gene GpE in cattle so anti-GpE cows have been vaccinated

Q

killed, whole organism vaccines that are antigenically intact

A

non-infectious vaccines

Q

T/F

Non-infectious vaccines are able to replicate

A

false

Q

T/F

Non-infectious vaccines can induce pathology or clinical disease

A

FALSE THEY CANT

Q

chemical killing formalin, alcohols, and alkylating agents are examples of what kind of vaccines

A

non-infectious

Q

pros of inactivated vaccines

A

safe
no interference with other vaccines
stable in storage

Q

T/F

inactivated vaccines have a fast onset immunity

A

false - slow onset immunity

Q

CONS of inactivated vaccines

A

may need boosters
adjuvant required and may cause adverse effects
lower degree of protection as compared to live vax

Q

vaccine containing immunological structural proteins or metabolites of an organism

A

subunit vaccines

–can be purified proteins, synthetic peptides, or recombinant proteins

Q

a gene of interest is cloned from a pathogen to a plasmid and is delivered directly to an animal

A

naked DNA vaccines

Q

the pathogen gene is expressed on the APCs for antigen presentation to create and immune response

A

NAKED DNA Vax

Q

vaccination = ?

A

immunization

Q

performed antibodies are administered to a particular antigen

A

passive immunization

Q

provides immediate immunological protection that is temporary

A

passive immunization

Q

tetanus antitoxins and antivenoms are an example of what type of immunization?

A

PASSIVE

Q

immunization type that sensitizes the recipient for a hypersensitive reaction

A

passive immunization

Q

inhibits the endogenous antibody response of the recipient

A

passive immunization

Q

3 methods of delivering vaccines

A

injection
internasal
needle free

Q

antigens are administered to create immunological memory

A

active immunization

Q

an immune response is generated/induced in the recipient (humoral or cell mediated)

A

active immunization

Q

adverse side effects to vaccines

A

type 1 hypersensitivity

— facial or periorbital edema / pruritis

Q

Feline injection site sarcoma

A

example of an adverse side effect

poor prognosis

Q

why do we need antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

A

guidance to antimicrobial therapy in labs
surveillance of antimicrobial resistance
antimicrobial drug discovery

Q

2 methods for AST

A

dilution method

2. agar diffusion method

Q

the lowest concentration that inhibits complete growth of the test strain

A

MIC = minimum inhibitory concentration

Q

lowest concentration that kills the test strain

A

MBC = minimum bactericidal concentration

Q

______ methods enable quantification of antimicrobial susceptibility by determining MIC and MBC

A

dilution

Q

T/F

MIC and MBC are accurate

A

false – gives a range

Q

2 broth dilution methods

A

macrodilution and microdilution

Q

________ gives automated or semiautomated readings

A

microdilutions

Q

primarily used for research purposes, for example when many strains needs tested in one drug

A

agar dilution

Q

pros and cons of dilution methods

A

pro:
has a high reproducibility and robustness
Cons:
very expensive

Q

pros and cons of diffusion methods

A

pro: medium reproducibility and robustenss
con: cheap

Q

T/F

Standardization and quality control are required for reproducibility of AST

A

TRUE

Q

laboratory AST procedure steps

A

adjust inoculum of bacteria
add to plate
incubate at 35 for 16-20 hours
read plate

Q

a drug specific value to interpret the results of susceptibility testing and determine if an antibacterial in potentially useful in the treatment of a bacterial infection

A

breakpoint

Q

a strain is defined as ______ by a level of antimicrobial activity associated with a high likelihood of therapeutic success

A

susceptible

Q

a strain is defined as ______ by a level of antimicrobial activity associated with a high likelihood of therapeutic failure

A

resistant

Q

a strain is defined as ______ for a species by the absences of any required resistant genes and/or mutations increasing the MIC of the antimicrobial agent

A

wild type WT

Q

data needed for setting breakpoints

A

MIC distribution to determine the MIC value that separates the wild type from resistant populations
PD/PK index
clinical and bacteriological outcome data from clinical trials

Q

what is the PD/PK index?

A

relationship between drug concentrations, the MIC value, and antimicrobial effects

Q

category that is also considered a buffer zone in AST

A

intermediate

Q

the strain is inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug

A

susceptible

Q

clinical efficacy is possible if the strain infects body sites where the drug concentrates or if the dosage can be increased compared to standard dosage

A

intermediate

Q

the strain is not inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug

A

resistant

Q

drugs with no breakpoints available

A

topical drugs

Q

most frequent bacterial contaminants

A

coagulase-negative staphylococci (SKIN)
bacillus spp (soil)
enterococci (fecal)

Q

problems interpreting AST results

A

mixed cultures
absence of antimicrobials used in clinical practice
presence of antimicrobials not used in clinical practice

Q

frequent with otitis, UTI, and wound infections

A

mixed cultures

Q

used in the lack of approved clinical breakpoints to predict susceptibility to other drugs belonging to the same class

A

surrogate antimicrobials

Q

ampicillin surrogate

A

amoxicilin

Q

sulfamethoxazole surrogate

A

sulfadiazine

Q

lincomycin surrogate

A

clindomycin

Q

tertracyclin surrogate

A

doxytetracycline

Q

what 2 drugs are used for the detection of MRSA/MRSP and why

A

oxacillin
cefoxitin

because their methicillin resistant gene mecA is poorly expressed in laboratory media

Q

T/F

invitro susceptibility testing does not take into account in vivo factors

A

TRUE

Q

T/F

if more tetracycline is used, it is more likely that there will be resistant e.coli stains

A

true

Q

what species uses the most antimicrobials in Denmark and therefore has more bacteria with resistant strains

A

pigs

Q

T/F

antimicrobial resistance can be eradicated

A

FALSE

Q

use of antimicrobial agents aimed at maximal therapeutic efficacy while minimizing the risks of developing resistance, in the strain causing infection and the patient’s commensal flora

A

rational antimicrobial use

Q

provides international guidelines on major infections in companion animals

A

International Society for Companion Animals Infectious Diseases (ISCAID)

Q

are national or international guidelines better?

A

national

Q

what should all clinics have in place

A

infection-specific antibiotic formularies

Q

what are the 3 last resort drugs for human use?

A

carbapenems
linezolid
vancomycin

Q

what are some conditions in which a laboratory culture should be used?

A

no response to therapy
previous antibiotic treatment
immunocompromised patients
life threatening infections
patients at risk of multiple drug resistance
long treatment course

Q

T/F

doing in-clinic cultures is a great idea

A

FALSE – avoid kitchen microbiology

Q

“shoot” regular – dose

A

uses time dependent drugs such as beta lactams at regular intervals and owners must know the importance of compliance

Q

prescribe high doses for concentration dependent drugs like fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides

A

“shoot” high dosage

Q

MPC

A

mutant prevention concentration

Q

Do humans or animals typically get treated for longer periods by antimicrobials

A

animals

Q

latest trend in human medicine is that……

A

unnecessary treatment should be avoided after clinical resolution of symptoms

Q

4 ways to control AMR transmission

A

hospital infection control
farm biosecurity
slaughterhouse hygiene
educated consumers and owners

Q

3 ways to control AMR antimicrobial use

A

legal interventions like bans and penalties
preventative vet med
antimicrobial stewardship

Q

refers to coordinated interventions designed to improve and measure the appropriate use of antimicrobials by promoting the selection of the optimal antimicrobial drug regimen, dose, duration of therapy, and route of administration

A

antimicrobial stewardship

Q

where are antimicrobial stewardship programs normally underdeveloped ?

A

vet clinics

Q

what 3 things does the establishment of antimicrobial stewardship programs require?

A

commitment of staff
collaboration with microbiology lab
infectious disease specialist or educated clinician in antimicrobials and resistance

Q

the discipline concerned with preventing nosocomial or health-care related infections

A

hospital infection control

Q

regardless of type or size, every vet clinic should have these three things

A

formal infection control program
written manual
infection control practitioner

Q

what does ICP stand for

A

infection control practitioner

Q

how long and when should you wash your hands…..

A

at least 20 seconds

before and after every patient

Q

building block of nucleic acidz

A

nucleotidez

Q

T/F

purines have 2 rings one with 5 and one with 6 atoms

A

TRUE

Q

the sugar is connected to the nitrogenous base at what position

A

1 – by a glycosidic bond

Q

A matches to T with how many hydrogen bonds

A

2

Q

C matches to G with how many hydrogen bonds

A

3

Q

DNA sequence is read in this order

A

5’ - 3’

Q

has same sequence of mRNA

A

coding or sense strand

Q

directs synthesis of mRNA via complementary base pairing

A

antisense or template strand

Q

DNA to RNA

A

transcription

Q

RNA to protein

A

translation

Q

T/F

both DNA and RNA can replicate themselves

A

TRUE

Q

when there is a parent strand and a new strand in a new molecule of DNA

A

DNA is semiconservative

Q

T/F

DNA is very conservative. modest is hottest

A

FALSE – only semiconservative

Q

unwinds the DNA double helix

A

helicase

Q

T/F

the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously

A

TRUE

Q

T/F

bacterial transcription and translation all occur in the same location

A

TRUE

Q

T/F

animal cell transcription and translation occur in the same location

A

false

transcription in the nucleus

translation in the cytoplasm

Q

what cells have introns

A

eukaryotic

Q

T/F

eukaryotic cells do not have polyadenylation

A

TRUE

but eukaryotic cells do at the 3’ end

Q

has a 5’ methylated cap

A

eukaryotic cells only

Q

how many nucleotides are in each codon

A

64

Q

T/F

any base pair of DNA can be mutated

A

TRUE

Q

mutations from the background/locus/generation

A

spontaneous

Q

mutagens by mutagens

A

induced

Q

act directly by modifying a particular base or being incorporated into the nucleic acid

A

mutagen

Q

mutations without an apparent effect

either no change in AA or a change in aa that doesnt change the proteins function

A

silent mutation

Q

a mutation that changes the codon and therefore changes the amino acid and protein function

A

missense mutation

Q

change in a coding codon to a terminal codon resulting in premature termination

A

nonsense mutation

Q

inserts or deletes a number of bp other than a multiple of 3

A

frameshift mutation

Q

acquisition of new genetic markers by incorporation of added DNA

A

transformation – a type of genetic transfer in bacteria

Q

mating between two bacteria involving transfer of genetic material

A

conjunction – a type of genetic transfer in bacteria

Q

transfer of bacterial gene to another bacterium by a phage

A

transduction – a type of genetic transfer of bacteria

Q

movement of a transposon to a new site in the genome

A

transposition – a type of genetic transfer of bacteria

Q

electrophoresis

A

separates molecules by charge on an electrophoretic field – commonly DNA RNA and proteins (negatively charged and move to the positive end)

Q

what determines electrophoresis particle mobility

A

SIZE – smaller go further/faster

**also structure plays a role.. is it a monomer/trimer/dimer/supercoiled ect

Q

cut DNA at or near specific recognition nucleotide sequences

A

restriction enzymes

**sequence specific

Q

What do restriction enzymes come from

A

bacteria to defend from viral infections

Q

restriction fragment length polymorphism

A

cutting sequence specific DNA

Q

number of restriction enzymes studied

A

3000

600 available commercially

Q

is EcoRI sticky or blunt end cutting

A

STICKY

Q

is smaI sticky or blunt end cutting

A

BLUNT

Q

common uses of RFLP

A

forensic analysis
parent identification
mixed infections

Q

denatured, single stranded DNA with a probe complementary single strand bound to it

A

hybridization

Q

T/F

probes have a high degree of specificity

A

TRUE

Q

fragment of nucleic acids that is used for detecting complementary sequences in samples

A

Probe

Q

examples of what a probe could be

A

labeled, radioisotope, enzyme, or chemiluminescence

Q

enzyme-mediated process to synthesize copies of target nucleic acid

A

target amplification – type of nucleic acid amplification

Q

two types of primers

A

random

specific

Q

signal amplification

A

bDNA assays or hybrid capture assays

Q

polymerase chain reaction

A

isothermal amplification..

has high sensitivity and also could give a false positive – type of nucleic acid amplification

Q

steps of cycle 1 of PCR

A

denature to separate DNA strands
anneal/cool to allow primer to form the hydrogen bond with target sequence
extension – DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of each primer

Q

products of PCR

A

products = 2^n

n= number of cycles run

Q

what determines the size of the PCR product?

A

the distance between the primer binding sites

Q

singe-stranded DNA fragments, complementary to sequences flanking the region to be amplified

A

primers (for PCR)

Q

what determines the specificity during PCR?

A

the PCR primer

Q

what type of enzymes are needed in PCR

A

THERMOSTABLE polymerases – to survive the denaturation stage heat stage

Q

what determines how long the lag phase is in real time PCR

A

the starting amount of the material

less = shorter lag phase/cycles

Q

allows quantification of starting material

A

real time PCR / quantitative PCR

Q

LAMP pros

A

no thermal cycler needed
fast (less than an hour)
sensitivity > PCR
gives visible results

Q

LAMP cons

A

design of primer sets complicated