PID exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Define Infected Premise
A
premise where a presumptive positive case or confirmed positive case exists based on lab results, compatible clinical signs, case definition, and international standards
2
Q
Zone for infected premise
A
Infected zone
3
Q
Zone for contact premises
A
Infected zone and buffer zone
4
Q
Define contact premises
A
premises with susceptible animals that may have been exposed to the FAD agent, either directly or indirectly, included but not limited to exposure to animals, animal products, fomites, or people from infected premises
5
Q
zone that immediately surrounds an infected premise
A
infected zone
6
Q
zone that immediately surrounds an infected zone
A
buffer zone
7
Q
consists of buffer zone and an infected zone
A
Control area
8
Q
zone outside and along the border of the control area
A
surveillance zone
9
Q
area not included in any control area
A
Free area
10
Q
Emergency Vaccination Zone classified as either a Containment Vaccination Zone or a Protection Vaccination zone. This may be a secondary zone designation
A
Vaccination Zone
11
Q
Zoonosis
A
transmission of infectious disease from animals to people
12
Q
One Health Triad
A
Healthy animals
Healthy People
Healthy Environment
13
Q
What is GLEWS and who do they collaborate with?
A
The Global Early Warning System for Major Animal Diseases Including Zoonoses
they collaborate with
FAO: Food and agriculture organization of the United Nations
OIE: World organization for animal health
WHO: world health organization
14
Q
What are the objectives of controlling infectious diseases in wildlife?
A
- Primarily to protect human health against zoonoses in wildlife
- prevent diseases in the wildlife from being transmitted
- protect wildlife from destructive diseases
15
Q
preventing wildlife disease transmission to livestock
A
separate livestock vector control vaccinations surveillance and ris assessment antemortem diagnostics and necropsy wildlife population control
16
Q
disease control in wildlife
A
- burn and bury carcasses
- disinfect the watering holes
- dart vaccines
17
Q
reservoir
A
habitat that an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies
18
Q
study of viruses and viral disease
A
virology
19
Q
someone who studies viruses
A
virologist
20
Q
defining a virus
A
non-living
have a nucleic genome surrounded by a protein coat and in some cases a lipid envelope
DO NOT have standard organelles
21
Q
Do viruses have the genetic capability to multiply by division
A
no.
need a host because they cant make energy proteins alone.
obligate intracellular parasites
22
Q
capsid + nucleic acid
A
nucleocapsid
23
Q
protein shell of a virus that encases the viral nucleic acid genome
A
capsid
24
Q
what is a capsid composed of
A
capsomeres held by non covalent bonds
25
naked virus vs enveloped virus
```
naked = only capsid
enveloped = lipid envelope
```
26
lipid envelope
in only some viruses, covers the capsid.
lipid bilayer derived from host cell
glycoprotein spikes on surface
27
ability of some viruses to alter their shape
pleomorphism
28
viral replication process
1. attachment
2. penetration
3. uncoating
4. synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein
5. assembly and maturation
6. release in large numbers
29
the ability of a virus to cause a disease in a host
pathogenicity
30
manner/mechanism of development of a disease
pathogenesis
31
quantitative or relative measure of the degree of pathogenicity of infecting virus
virulence
32
not virulent or harmful to the host
avirulent
33
T/F
| virulence is not an absolute property of a virus
TRUE -- it depends on many factors
34
virus in blood stream
viremia
35
primary viremia
initial entrance of virus into blood
| either spread from subepithelium or injected by a mosquito or needle
36
secondary viremia
virus replicates in major organs and re-enters the blood stream
37
oncovirus
cancer causing
38
viral shedding
crucial to maintain populations
39
acute infection -- viral shedding
intensive shedding over a short time period
40
persistent infection -- viral shedding
sheds low titer for months to years
41
viral infection of the fetus
teratogenic -- developmental defects in embryo or fetus after in-utero infection
42
only eradicated animal disease
rinderpest
43
involves complete elimination of the pathogen or disease causing agent from a defined geographic region
eradication
44
a term appropriate for when the disease is already present and pertains to the containment of it
control
45
primary level of prevention
avoid occurrence of the disease
aimed at maintaining a healthy population by measures to avoid the disease by eliminating the pathogen or increasing resistance to it
46
2 types of primary prevention
1. health promotion
| 2. specific protection
47
health promotion
```
more generalized...
education, training, and awareness
good hygiene
nutrition
epigenesis
```
48
specific protection
```
immunization
seroprophylaxis
chemoprophylaxis
supplement nutrients
protection against occupational hazards
```
49
secondary level of prevention
if primary failed, minimize the damage of the disease
relies on early diagnosis, prompt treatment, control and quarantine
intervention at an individual level
50
tertiary level of prevention
both primary and secondary have failed :(
consists of rehabilitation and elimination of long term impairment
51
external farm biosecurity
prevent it from entering or leaving the farm
52
internal farm biosecurity
to combat the spread on the farm
53
purchasing policy
closed herd system, know where your animals come from, quarantine, vaccinate, limit numbers of new animals brought in
54
biosecurity measures
wash your hands, minimize visitors, clean clothes, clean water, be smart, disinfect, clean houses, clean trucks, keep critters away, monitor the animals health and dispose of dead properly
basically be clean and dont be dumb
55
renders a device or surface safe to handle
decontamination
56
eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens including highly resistance bacterial spores
all or nothing process
Sterilization
57
eliminates all pathogens/microbes except bacteria with spores on a surface
disinfection -- less effective than sterilization
58
application of a liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms
antisepsis
59
invasion but not multiplication
infestation
60
transmissible vie direct or air-borne routes
contagious
61
disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, indirect, air-borne, or surface routes
communicable
62
T/F
| all sick animals are reservoirs
FALSE
63
congenital transmission
some pathogens can cross the placenta or infect eggs
64
vertical transmission
from reservoir host to offspring
1. congenital
2. perinatal
65
perinatal transmission
during parturition / colostrum
66
Horizontal transmission
from reservoir to new host
1. direct
2. indirect
67
indirect transmission
```
vehicle = inanimate object
vector = like mosquito or tick
```
68
object that can be contaminated and transmit on a limited scale
fomites
69
mechanical vector
does not multiply or undergo part of its life cycle in the or on the arthropod
70
biological vector
the agent undergoes changes or multiplies while in the vector
required for transmission
71
previously unknown disease that suddenly appears in a population
emerging disease
72
known disease that was previously on the decline but is now becoming more common
re-emerging disease
73
Taenia Solium agent
parasite
74
giardia agent
parasite
75
rabies agent
viral
76
hantavirus agent
viral
77
anthrax agent
bacterial
78
brucellosis agent
bacterial
79
borreliosis agent
vector borne
80
west nile agent
vector borne
81
taenia solium methods of transmission to humans
Pigs eat the eggs and the humans eat the pigs
82
giardia methods of transmission to humans
consuming cyst
| most commonly in water or surface contamination of food
83
rabies methods of transmission to humans
virus enters tissue from saliva of an infected animal biting them
84
hantavirus methods of transmission to humans
rodents are the reservoir and transmission primarily is aerosol (inhaled from urine or feces)
secondary = through a bite
85
anthrax methods of transmission to humans
Herbivores ingest spores in soil while grazing, carnivores eat infected herbivores and all species can inhale spores in aerosolized soil or other contaminated fomites, veterinarians aeorosol or percutaneous exposure to blood from infected animal
86
Brucellosis methods of transmission to humans
Ingestion, mucous membrane exposure or percutaneous inoculation
87
borreliosis methods of transmission to humans
ticks
88
west nile transmission to humans
Primary: Mosquito-bird-mosquito cycle
Secondary: blood borne, lab, milk
89
control and prevention of Taenia Solium
Target vehicle: meat inspection, proper cooking of pork, and proper handling of raw pork
Hygiene, sewage management, treat people with tapeworms
90
control and prevention of giardia
Water treatment, sewage treatment, prevent contamination of irrigation water, wash or peel veggies and fruits
91
control and prevention of rabies
Vaccination of domestic animals, wildlife and control feral animal populations
Post exposure procedures, vaccinate at risk individuals, educate to reduce exposure
92
control and prevention of hantavirus
Reduce human exposure by wearing face masks and gloves when appropriate
93
control and prevention of anthrax
Burn infected carcasses or bury in quick lime, inform health officials, evaluate exposed people for post exposure prophylaxis, advise people exposed to spores to wash hands with soap and water, then iodine solution immersion
94
control and prevention of brucellosis
Eliminate animal reservoir, swine also monitored usually abattoir based, reduce public exposure through pasteurization of milk and milk used to make soft cheeses
95
control and prevention of borreliosis
Avoid direct contact with ticks, apply tick repellants, remove ticks from your body, pets and clothes
96
porcine cysticercosis
one of the life cycles of taenia solium
| pigs eats the cyst -- goes into pigs muscle
97
human taeniasis
one of the life cycles of taenia solium
| humans eat the cyst in the pork and the adult tapeworm grows in the GI tract (not much pathology)
98
human cysticercosis
one of the life cycles of taenia solium
humans eat the eggs and the cyst will travel to the brain
CALLED: neurocysticercosis
99
neurocysticercosis modes of transmission
can be self-infected, fecal, tapeworm, or in food
100
neurocysticercosis
larvae of taenia solium encysts the brain
leading cause of epilepsy in developing countries
can also cause seizures and blindness
50-80% go untreated
albendazole and praziquantel can control 80-90% of the cases
101
taenia soilum primary reservoir
people
102
taenia solium secondary reservoir
piggys
103
causes chronic diarrhea in people
giardia
104
rabies etiology
ssRNA virus -- lyssavirus
105
does st kitts have rabies?
nope
106
Caribbean islands with Mongoose Rabies (4)
Puerto Rico
Cuba
Dominican Republic
Grenada
107
Caribbean islands with bat Rabies (3)
Trinidad
Cuba
Grenada
108
disease with highest fatality and is oldest described
rabies
109
acute, progressive enchephalomyelitis
rabies
110
bunyaviridae
hantavirus
| enveloped ssRNA virus
111
Clinical signs of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
```
from hantavirus
"new world"
fever/chills/migraines
HIGH vascular permeability in the lungs
40% fatality
```
112
Hemorrhagic Fever With Renal Syndrome
```
clinical from hantavirus
"old world"
petechial hemorrhage and renal damage
Cardiovascular shock
15% fatality
```
113
spore forming bacterium that can survive in the soil for years
anthrax
114
most pathogenic form of brucellosis in people
brucella melitensis
| in mediterranean and intensive goat farming areas
115
worldwide form of brucellosis (except eradicated areas) mainly in cattle
Brucella Abortus
116
common name for Borrelia Burgdorferi
Lyme disease
117
are deer a reservoir for lyme disease
no
118
West nile virus type
flavavirus
119
If you handle a dead bird who had west nile will you contract the virus
No evidence can support this
120
clinical signs of west nile in ponies
neurological issues like ataxia -- weak and dead
121
St. Louis Encephalitis
mosquito borne flavavirus in birds
122
Powassan
tick-borne rodent cycle flavavirus
123
not effective if not shedding the pathogen or if the disease is in the incubation phase
isolation
124
lowers contact and relies on the sensitivity of Diagnostic Tool
-facilitates treatment
isolation
125
a way to reduce contact potential that is not effective if disease involves chronically infected healthy shedders
quarantine
126
a way to reduce contact potential for those who have already been exposed and is enforced for incubation period
quarantine
127
3 methods of reservoir neutralization
1. remove and slaughter infected
2. mass therapy -- treat all potentially infected
3. manipulate the environment -- vector control and disinfect vehicles
128
mass therapy
local use -- treat all potentially infected without testing
MUST eliminate infection in carriers and not just cure clinically
RISKS -- resistant strains or adverse effects
129
3 methods of vector control
1. source reduction
2. biological -- predatory fish
3. chemical -- insecticides
130
features of a good vaccine
```
safe, effective, low side effects
long lasting protection
stable shelf life and low cost
easy to administer
benefits > risks
```
131
vaccines used to protect susceptible individuals or prevent transmission by creating an immune population
immunization
132
Use of antimicrobial drugs to increase host resistance
chemoprophylaxis -- attempts to prevent infection and reduce severity
133
down sides of chemoprophylaxis
1. only lasts as long as the drug does
2. adverse drug reactions could occur
3. some pathogens may be resistant
134
4 W's of immunization
1. WHERE -- area with endemics
2. WHEN -- during disease season or outbreaks
3. WHO -- populations at risk
4. WHY -- the loss by the disease must be greater than the cost of the immunization
135
a form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant portion of a population provides a measure of protection for the small number of individuals who have not developed immunity
Herd Immunity
136
have unique resources to handle highly infectious agents and the ability to identify specific agent strains
National labs
137
ensure timely local response in the event of a threat incident
Reference labs
138
diagnostic capability that is hospital-based, front line, direct contact with the patients
Sentinel labs
139
WHAID
surveillance network
| World Health Animal Information Database
140
6 globally important zoonotic diseases
1. rabies
2. leishmaniasis
3. brucellosis
4. leptospirosis
5. echinococcosis
141
In the US do more people have kids or pets?
pets because children suck
142
T/F
| bites, kicks, and scratches are forms of zoonosis
FALSO
143
people to people disease / human reservoir
anthroponoses
144
extracellular sites of infection
interstitial spaces, blood, lymph
epithelial surfaces
145
extracellular protective immunity
antibodies, complement and phagocytosis
IgA antibodies
146
is adaptive or innate quicker
innate, but they still work together
147
what kills helminths
eosinophils
148
intracellular sites of infection/protection
cytoplasmic -- cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
| vesicular -- activated macrophages
149
Cell mediated immune defense whereby an effector cell actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antigens
Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCC)
150
examples of ADCC cells
NK cells
macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils
151
what is the best APC to activate naive T cells and also serves as a critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses
conventional dendritic cells
152
antigen presenting cells
MUST be MHC II POSITIVE
include macrophages, dendritic cells, B-cells
153
steps of phagocytosis
```
engulfed
phagosome
lysosome joins
phagolysosome degrades
peptide onto MHC II
the degraded material is exocytosed and MHC II presents its peptide fragment onto the cell surface
```
154
cells that are MHC I restricted
CD8 T cells
| cytotoxic T cells
155
cells that are MHC II restricted
CD4 T cells -- divided into CD4 plus TH1 or TH2 helper T cells
156
antigen processed in endosomes
exogenous antigen
157
endogenous antigen
an intracellular pathogen that is synthesized in the cytosol and processed in cytosolic pathway
158
T/F
| macrophages have both MHC I and MHC II
TRUE
159
T/F
| Red Blood Cells have MHC I
FALSE
| -- MHC I is only on nucleated cells and RBC are NOT nucleated
160
MHC class that is on ALL nucleated cells and APCS, has T cell mediated toxicity
MHC 1
161
MHC class the is ONLY on APCS, and uses helper T cells
MHC II
162
MHC class with CD4 + control
MHC II
163
MHC class with CD8 + control
MHC I
164
immunity that is mediated by antigen-activated T-cells and the cytokines that they secrete
cell mediated immunity (part of adaptive)
165
recognize antigens on MHC
T cell receptors
166
recognize native antigens without the MHC and can also recognize antibodies
B Cell receptors
167
adaptive immunity branches
humoral and cell mediated
168
primary effect of interferons
antiviral
169
how do natural killer cells detect virally infected cells
detect missing MHC
170
what reaction initiates the classical complement pathway
C reactive protein binding Ab on microbe
171
function of C3 convertase
to cleave C3 to C3a and C3b
172
list the outcomes of complement
1. cell lysis
2. clearance of Ag-Ab complexes
3. opsonization
4. inflammation
173
What 3 immune cells have paratopes
1. B cell receptors
2. T cell receptors
3. antibodies
174
T/F
| epitopes are present on host cells and paratopes are present on antigens
FALSE
175
what adaptive immune cells bind unprocessed antigen
B cells
176
cells involved in the delayed hypersensitivity reaction
macrophages and type 1 T helper cells
177
where is the adaptive immune system activated
the lymph nodes
178
where is the innate immune system activated
the peripheral tissues
179
what type of vaccine induces the strongest immune response
live attenuated vaccine
180
a virus that enters the CNS from a peripheral site but does not cause damage
neurotropic
181
pantropic viruses can affect with organs
lungs, muscles, gastrointestinal tract
182
T/F
| secondary prevention aims to halt the progress of the disease at its early stages
TRUE
183
sequence for putting on PPE
1. gown
2. mask
3. eyewear
4. gloves
184
sequence to remove PPE
1. gloves
2. eyewear
3. gown
4. mask
185
time in which the microbe is replicating but is not high enough in concentration for the host to be infectious
latent period
186
primary vs secondary humoral immune response
secondary has a shorter lag phase, a greater magnitude, and antibody class switch from IgA to IgG
187
induce specific adaptive immune response and react specifically with products of the response
antigens
188
determine Ag specificity
epitopes
189
on an antibody, binds to antigen/binds epitopes
paratope
190
serology
detection of viral antigen or host antibody against a virus
191
antiviral drugs
interfere with infiltration and replication
192
viral treatment using interferons
immune system stimulation
193
Lethal Dose
a way to measure virulence
| LD50 -- dose required to cause death in 50% animals
194
activation of classical pathway
c1 binding to C reactive protein on pathogen surface
OR
binding of Ab-Ag complex
195
5 initial complement components of classical pathway
```
c1r
c1q
c1s
c4
c2
```
196
lectin pathway activator
mannin binding lectin (MBL)
OR
MBL associated serine protease 2
197
initial components of lectin pathway
C4 and C2
198
alternative pathway activator
contact of microbial cell wall with C3
199
alternative pathway initial components
C3,
factor B
Factor D
properdin
200
generates immunological memory
adaptive immunity
201
MHC stands for what
Major Histocompatibility complex
202
classical pathway C3 convertase
C4bC2b
203
lectin pathway C3 convertase
C4bC2b
204
classical pathway C5 convertase
C4bC2bC3b
205
lectin pathway C5 convertase
C4bC2bC3b
206
alternative pathway C3 convertase
C3bBb
207
alternative pathway C5 convertase
C3bBbC3b
208
what does C3 convertase do
cleaves to create C3b and C3a
209
immunoglobulin papain
had Fab and Fc fragments
210
immunoglobulin pepsin
has Fab' and Fc fragments
211
Terminal Pathway
There is a Membrane Attach Complex (MAC) formed onto the surface of the pathogen cell
This causes membrane lesions and the cell breaks apart
212
which complement factors cause the inflammatory response and what is another name for them?
C3a and C5a -- chemoattractants
213
what are the results of inflammatory activation by chemoattractants
1. smooth muscle contraction
2. mast cell degranulation
3. vasodilation and local edema
4. neutrophil activation
214
Are natural barriers and normal flora innate or adaptive?
INNATE
215
MHC I restricted
NEEDS MHC I to work
CD8 T cells
216
MHC II restricted
Needs MHC II to work
CD4 T cells
