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Semester 1 > PID exam 2 > Flashcards

PID exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Infected Premise

A

premise where a presumptive positive case or confirmed positive case exists based on lab results, compatible clinical signs, case definition, and international standards

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2
Q

Zone for infected premise

A

Infected zone

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3
Q

Zone for contact premises

A

Infected zone and buffer zone

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4
Q

Define contact premises

A

premises with susceptible animals that may have been exposed to the FAD agent, either directly or indirectly, included but not limited to exposure to animals, animal products, fomites, or people from infected premises

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5
Q

zone that immediately surrounds an infected premise

A

infected zone

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6
Q

zone that immediately surrounds an infected zone

A

buffer zone

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7
Q

consists of buffer zone and an infected zone

A

Control area

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8
Q

zone outside and along the border of the control area

A

surveillance zone

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9
Q

area not included in any control area

A

Free area

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10
Q

Emergency Vaccination Zone classified as either a Containment Vaccination Zone or a Protection Vaccination zone. This may be a secondary zone designation

A

Vaccination Zone

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11
Q

Zoonosis

A

transmission of infectious disease from animals to people

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12
Q

One Health Triad

A

Healthy animals
Healthy People
Healthy Environment

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13
Q

What is GLEWS and who do they collaborate with?

A

The Global Early Warning System for Major Animal Diseases Including Zoonoses

they collaborate with
FAO: Food and agriculture organization of the United Nations
OIE: World organization for animal health
WHO: world health organization

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14
Q

What are the objectives of controlling infectious diseases in wildlife?

A
  1. Primarily to protect human health against zoonoses in wildlife
  2. prevent diseases in the wildlife from being transmitted
  3. protect wildlife from destructive diseases
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15
Q

preventing wildlife disease transmission to livestock

A 
separate livestock
vector control
vaccinations 
surveillance and ris assessment 
antemortem diagnostics and necropsy
wildlife population control
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16
Q

disease control in wildlife

A
  1. burn and bury carcasses
  2. disinfect the watering holes
  3. dart vaccines
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17
Q

reservoir

A

habitat that an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies

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18
Q

study of viruses and viral disease

A

virology

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19
Q

someone who studies viruses

A

virologist

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20
Q

defining a virus

A

non-living
have a nucleic genome surrounded by a protein coat and in some cases a lipid envelope
DO NOT have standard organelles

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21
Q

Do viruses have the genetic capability to multiply by division

A

no.
need a host because they cant make energy proteins alone.

obligate intracellular parasites

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22
Q

capsid + nucleic acid

A

nucleocapsid

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23
Q

protein shell of a virus that encases the viral nucleic acid genome

A

capsid

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24
Q

what is a capsid composed of

A

capsomeres held by non covalent bonds

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25
Q

naked virus vs enveloped virus

A 
naked = only capsid
enveloped = lipid envelope
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26
Q

lipid envelope

A

in only some viruses, covers the capsid.
lipid bilayer derived from host cell
glycoprotein spikes on surface

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27
Q

ability of some viruses to alter their shape

A

pleomorphism

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28
Q

viral replication process

A
  1. attachment
  2. penetration
  3. uncoating
  4. synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein
  5. assembly and maturation
  6. release in large numbers
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29
Q

the ability of a virus to cause a disease in a host

A

pathogenicity

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30
Q

manner/mechanism of development of a disease

A

pathogenesis

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31
Q

quantitative or relative measure of the degree of pathogenicity of infecting virus

A

virulence

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32
Q

not virulent or harmful to the host

A

avirulent

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33
Q

T/F

virulence is not an absolute property of a virus

A

TRUE – it depends on many factors

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34
Q

virus in blood stream

A

viremia

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35
Q

primary viremia

A

initial entrance of virus into blood

either spread from subepithelium or injected by a mosquito or needle

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36
Q

secondary viremia

A

virus replicates in major organs and re-enters the blood stream

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37
Q

oncovirus

A

cancer causing

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38
Q

viral shedding

A

crucial to maintain populations

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39
Q

acute infection – viral shedding

A

intensive shedding over a short time period

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40
Q

persistent infection – viral shedding

A

sheds low titer for months to years

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41
Q

viral infection of the fetus

A

teratogenic – developmental defects in embryo or fetus after in-utero infection

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42
Q

only eradicated animal disease

A

rinderpest

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43
Q

involves complete elimination of the pathogen or disease causing agent from a defined geographic region

A

eradication

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44
Q

a term appropriate for when the disease is already present and pertains to the containment of it

A

control

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45
Q

primary level of prevention

A

avoid occurrence of the disease

aimed at maintaining a healthy population by measures to avoid the disease by eliminating the pathogen or increasing resistance to it

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46
Q

2 types of primary prevention

A
  1. health promotion

2. specific protection

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47
Q

health promotion

A 
more generalized... 
education, training, and awareness 
good hygiene
nutrition 
epigenesis
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48
Q

specific protection

A 
immunization
seroprophylaxis
chemoprophylaxis 
supplement nutrients
protection against occupational hazards
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49
Q

secondary level of prevention

A

if primary failed, minimize the damage of the disease

relies on early diagnosis, prompt treatment, control and quarantine

intervention at an individual level

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50
Q

tertiary level of prevention

A

both primary and secondary have failed :(

consists of rehabilitation and elimination of long term impairment

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51
Q

external farm biosecurity

A

prevent it from entering or leaving the farm

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52
Q

internal farm biosecurity

A

to combat the spread on the farm

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53
Q

purchasing policy

A

closed herd system, know where your animals come from, quarantine, vaccinate, limit numbers of new animals brought in

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54
Q

biosecurity measures

A

wash your hands, minimize visitors, clean clothes, clean water, be smart, disinfect, clean houses, clean trucks, keep critters away, monitor the animals health and dispose of dead properly

basically be clean and dont be dumb

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55
Q

renders a device or surface safe to handle

A

decontamination

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56
Q

eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens including highly resistance bacterial spores

all or nothing process

A

Sterilization

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57
Q

eliminates all pathogens/microbes except bacteria with spores on a surface

A

disinfection – less effective than sterilization

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58
Q

application of a liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms

A

antisepsis

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59
Q

invasion but not multiplication

A

infestation

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60
Q

transmissible vie direct or air-borne routes

A

contagious

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61
Q

disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, indirect, air-borne, or surface routes

A

communicable

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62
Q

T/F

all sick animals are reservoirs

A

FALSE

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63
Q

congenital transmission

A

some pathogens can cross the placenta or infect eggs

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64
Q

vertical transmission

A

from reservoir host to offspring

  1. congenital
  2. perinatal
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65
Q

perinatal transmission

A

during parturition / colostrum

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66
Q

Horizontal transmission

A

from reservoir to new host

  1. direct
  2. indirect
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67
Q

indirect transmission

A 
vehicle = inanimate object
vector = like mosquito or tick
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68
Q

object that can be contaminated and transmit on a limited scale

A

fomites

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69
Q

mechanical vector

A

does not multiply or undergo part of its life cycle in the or on the arthropod

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70
Q

biological vector

A

the agent undergoes changes or multiplies while in the vector
required for transmission

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71
Q

previously unknown disease that suddenly appears in a population

A

emerging disease

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72
Q

known disease that was previously on the decline but is now becoming more common

A

re-emerging disease

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73
Q

Taenia Solium agent

A

parasite

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74
Q

giardia agent

A

parasite

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75
Q

rabies agent

A

viral

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76
Q

hantavirus agent

A

viral

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77
Q

anthrax agent

A

bacterial

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78
Q

brucellosis agent

A

bacterial

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79
Q

borreliosis agent

A

vector borne

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80
Q

west nile agent

A

vector borne

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81
Q

taenia solium methods of transmission to humans

A

Pigs eat the eggs and the humans eat the pigs

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82
Q

giardia methods of transmission to humans

A

consuming cyst

most commonly in water or surface contamination of food

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83
Q

rabies methods of transmission to humans

A

virus enters tissue from saliva of an infected animal biting them

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84
Q

hantavirus methods of transmission to humans

A

rodents are the reservoir and transmission primarily is aerosol (inhaled from urine or feces)

secondary = through a bite

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85
Q

anthrax methods of transmission to humans

A

Herbivores ingest spores in soil while grazing, carnivores eat infected herbivores and all species can inhale spores in aerosolized soil or other contaminated fomites, veterinarians aeorosol or percutaneous exposure to blood from infected animal

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86
Q

Brucellosis methods of transmission to humans

A

Ingestion, mucous membrane exposure or percutaneous inoculation

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87
Q

borreliosis methods of transmission to humans

A

ticks

88
Q

west nile transmission to humans

A

Primary: Mosquito-bird-mosquito cycle
Secondary: blood borne, lab, milk

89
Q

control and prevention of Taenia Solium

A

Target vehicle: meat inspection, proper cooking of pork, and proper handling of raw pork
Hygiene, sewage management, treat people with tapeworms

90
Q

control and prevention of giardia

A

Water treatment, sewage treatment, prevent contamination of irrigation water, wash or peel veggies and fruits

91
Q

control and prevention of rabies

A

Vaccination of domestic animals, wildlife and control feral animal populations
Post exposure procedures, vaccinate at risk individuals, educate to reduce exposure

92
Q

control and prevention of hantavirus

A

Reduce human exposure by wearing face masks and gloves when appropriate

93
Q

control and prevention of anthrax

A

Burn infected carcasses or bury in quick lime, inform health officials, evaluate exposed people for post exposure prophylaxis, advise people exposed to spores to wash hands with soap and water, then iodine solution immersion

94
Q

control and prevention of brucellosis

A

Eliminate animal reservoir, swine also monitored usually abattoir based, reduce public exposure through pasteurization of milk and milk used to make soft cheeses

95
Q

control and prevention of borreliosis

A

Avoid direct contact with ticks, apply tick repellants, remove ticks from your body, pets and clothes

96
Q

porcine cysticercosis

A

one of the life cycles of taenia solium

pigs eats the cyst – goes into pigs muscle

97
Q

human taeniasis

A

one of the life cycles of taenia solium

humans eat the cyst in the pork and the adult tapeworm grows in the GI tract (not much pathology)

98
Q

human cysticercosis

A

one of the life cycles of taenia solium
humans eat the eggs and the cyst will travel to the brain
CALLED: neurocysticercosis

99
Q

neurocysticercosis modes of transmission

A

can be self-infected, fecal, tapeworm, or in food

100
Q

neurocysticercosis

A

larvae of taenia solium encysts the brain
leading cause of epilepsy in developing countries
can also cause seizures and blindness
50-80% go untreated
albendazole and praziquantel can control 80-90% of the cases

101
Q

taenia soilum primary reservoir

A

people

102
Q

taenia solium secondary reservoir

A

piggys

103
Q

causes chronic diarrhea in people

A

giardia

104
Q

rabies etiology

A

ssRNA virus – lyssavirus

105
Q

does st kitts have rabies?

A

nope

106
Q

Caribbean islands with Mongoose Rabies (4)

A

Puerto Rico
Cuba
Dominican Republic
Grenada

107
Q

Caribbean islands with bat Rabies (3)

A

Trinidad
Cuba
Grenada

108
Q

disease with highest fatality and is oldest described

A

rabies

109
Q

acute, progressive enchephalomyelitis

A

rabies

110
Q

bunyaviridae

A

hantavirus

enveloped ssRNA virus

111
Q

Clinical signs of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

A 
from hantavirus 
"new world"
fever/chills/migraines
HIGH vascular permeability in the lungs 
40% fatality
112
Q

Hemorrhagic Fever With Renal Syndrome

A 
clinical from hantavirus
"old world"
petechial hemorrhage and renal damage
Cardiovascular shock 
15% fatality
113
Q

spore forming bacterium that can survive in the soil for years

A

anthrax

114
Q

most pathogenic form of brucellosis in people

A

brucella melitensis

in mediterranean and intensive goat farming areas

115
Q

worldwide form of brucellosis (except eradicated areas) mainly in cattle

A

Brucella Abortus

116
Q

common name for Borrelia Burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

117
Q

are deer a reservoir for lyme disease

A

no

118
Q

West nile virus type

A

flavavirus

119
Q

If you handle a dead bird who had west nile will you contract the virus

A

No evidence can support this

120
Q

clinical signs of west nile in ponies

A

neurological issues like ataxia – weak and dead

121
Q

St. Louis Encephalitis

A

mosquito borne flavavirus in birds

122
Q

Powassan

A

tick-borne rodent cycle flavavirus

123
Q

not effective if not shedding the pathogen or if the disease is in the incubation phase

A

isolation

124
Q

lowers contact and relies on the sensitivity of Diagnostic Tool
-facilitates treatment

A

isolation

125
Q

a way to reduce contact potential that is not effective if disease involves chronically infected healthy shedders

A

quarantine

126
Q

a way to reduce contact potential for those who have already been exposed and is enforced for incubation period

A

quarantine

127
Q

3 methods of reservoir neutralization

A
  1. remove and slaughter infected
  2. mass therapy – treat all potentially infected
  3. manipulate the environment – vector control and disinfect vehicles
128
Q

mass therapy

A

local use – treat all potentially infected without testing

MUST eliminate infection in carriers and not just cure clinically

RISKS – resistant strains or adverse effects

129
Q

3 methods of vector control

A
  1. source reduction
  2. biological – predatory fish
  3. chemical – insecticides
130
Q

features of a good vaccine

A 
safe, effective, low side effects 
long lasting protection
stable shelf life and low cost
easy to administer 
benefits > risks
131
Q

vaccines used to protect susceptible individuals or prevent transmission by creating an immune population

A

immunization

132
Q

Use of antimicrobial drugs to increase host resistance

A

chemoprophylaxis – attempts to prevent infection and reduce severity

133
Q

down sides of chemoprophylaxis

A
  1. only lasts as long as the drug does
  2. adverse drug reactions could occur
  3. some pathogens may be resistant
134
Q

4 W’s of immunization

A
  1. WHERE – area with endemics
  2. WHEN – during disease season or outbreaks
  3. WHO – populations at risk
  4. WHY – the loss by the disease must be greater than the cost of the immunization
135
Q

a form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant portion of a population provides a measure of protection for the small number of individuals who have not developed immunity

A

Herd Immunity

136
Q

have unique resources to handle highly infectious agents and the ability to identify specific agent strains

A

National labs

137
Q

ensure timely local response in the event of a threat incident

A

Reference labs

138
Q

diagnostic capability that is hospital-based, front line, direct contact with the patients

A

Sentinel labs

139
Q

WHAID

A

surveillance network

World Health Animal Information Database

140
Q

6 globally important zoonotic diseases

A
  1. rabies
  2. leishmaniasis
  3. brucellosis
  4. leptospirosis
  5. echinococcosis
141
Q

In the US do more people have kids or pets?

A

pets because children suck

142
Q

T/F

bites, kicks, and scratches are forms of zoonosis

A

FALSO

143
Q

people to people disease / human reservoir

A

anthroponoses

144
Q

extracellular sites of infection

A

interstitial spaces, blood, lymph

epithelial surfaces

145
Q

extracellular protective immunity

A

antibodies, complement and phagocytosis

IgA antibodies

146
Q

is adaptive or innate quicker

A

innate, but they still work together

147
Q

what kills helminths

A

eosinophils

148
Q

intracellular sites of infection/protection

A

cytoplasmic – cytotoxic T cells and NK cells

vesicular – activated macrophages

149
Q

Cell mediated immune defense whereby an effector cell actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antigens

A

Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCC)

150
Q

examples of ADCC cells

A

NK cells
macrophages
neutrophils
eosinophils

151
Q

what is the best APC to activate naive T cells and also serves as a critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses

A

conventional dendritic cells

152
Q

antigen presenting cells

A

MUST be MHC II POSITIVE

include macrophages, dendritic cells, B-cells

153
Q

steps of phagocytosis

A 
engulfed 
phagosome 
lysosome joins
phagolysosome degrades
peptide onto MHC II
the degraded material is exocytosed and MHC II presents its peptide fragment onto the cell surface
154
Q

cells that are MHC I restricted

A

CD8 T cells

cytotoxic T cells

155
Q

cells that are MHC II restricted

A

CD4 T cells – divided into CD4 plus TH1 or TH2 helper T cells

156
Q

antigen processed in endosomes

A

exogenous antigen

157
Q

endogenous antigen

A

an intracellular pathogen that is synthesized in the cytosol and processed in cytosolic pathway

158
Q

T/F

macrophages have both MHC I and MHC II

A

TRUE

159
Q

T/F

Red Blood Cells have MHC I

A

FALSE

– MHC I is only on nucleated cells and RBC are NOT nucleated

160
Q

MHC class that is on ALL nucleated cells and APCS, has T cell mediated toxicity

A

MHC 1

161
Q

MHC class the is ONLY on APCS, and uses helper T cells

A

MHC II

162
Q

MHC class with CD4 + control

A

MHC II

163
Q

MHC class with CD8 + control

A

MHC I

164
Q

immunity that is mediated by antigen-activated T-cells and the cytokines that they secrete

A

cell mediated immunity (part of adaptive)

165
Q

recognize antigens on MHC

A

T cell receptors

166
Q

recognize native antigens without the MHC and can also recognize antibodies

A

B Cell receptors

167
Q

adaptive immunity branches

A

humoral and cell mediated

168
Q

primary effect of interferons

A

antiviral

169
Q

how do natural killer cells detect virally infected cells

A

detect missing MHC

170
Q

what reaction initiates the classical complement pathway

A

C reactive protein binding Ab on microbe

171
Q

function of C3 convertase

A

to cleave C3 to C3a and C3b

172
Q

list the outcomes of complement

A
  1. cell lysis
  2. clearance of Ag-Ab complexes
  3. opsonization
  4. inflammation
173
Q

What 3 immune cells have paratopes

A
  1. B cell receptors
  2. T cell receptors
  3. antibodies
174
Q

T/F

epitopes are present on host cells and paratopes are present on antigens

A

FALSE

175
Q

what adaptive immune cells bind unprocessed antigen

A

B cells

176
Q

cells involved in the delayed hypersensitivity reaction

A

macrophages and type 1 T helper cells

177
Q

where is the adaptive immune system activated

A

the lymph nodes

178
Q

where is the innate immune system activated

A

the peripheral tissues

179
Q

what type of vaccine induces the strongest immune response

A

live attenuated vaccine

180
Q

a virus that enters the CNS from a peripheral site but does not cause damage

A

neurotropic

181
Q

pantropic viruses can affect with organs

A

lungs, muscles, gastrointestinal tract

182
Q

T/F

secondary prevention aims to halt the progress of the disease at its early stages

A

TRUE

183
Q

sequence for putting on PPE

A
  1. gown
  2. mask
  3. eyewear
  4. gloves
184
Q

sequence to remove PPE

A
  1. gloves
  2. eyewear
  3. gown
  4. mask
185
Q

time in which the microbe is replicating but is not high enough in concentration for the host to be infectious

A

latent period

186
Q

primary vs secondary humoral immune response

A

secondary has a shorter lag phase, a greater magnitude, and antibody class switch from IgA to IgG

187
Q

induce specific adaptive immune response and react specifically with products of the response

A

antigens

188
Q

determine Ag specificity

A

epitopes

189
Q

on an antibody, binds to antigen/binds epitopes

A

paratope

190
Q

serology

A

detection of viral antigen or host antibody against a virus

191
Q

antiviral drugs

A

interfere with infiltration and replication

192
Q

viral treatment using interferons

A

immune system stimulation

193
Q

Lethal Dose

A

a way to measure virulence

LD50 – dose required to cause death in 50% animals

194
Q

activation of classical pathway

A

c1 binding to C reactive protein on pathogen surface
OR
binding of Ab-Ag complex

195
Q

5 initial complement components of classical pathway

A 
c1r
c1q
c1s
c4
c2
196
Q

lectin pathway activator

A

mannin binding lectin (MBL)
OR
MBL associated serine protease 2

197
Q

initial components of lectin pathway

A

C4 and C2

198
Q

alternative pathway activator

A

contact of microbial cell wall with C3

199
Q

alternative pathway initial components

A

C3,
factor B
Factor D
properdin

200
Q

generates immunological memory

A

adaptive immunity

201
Q

MHC stands for what

A

Major Histocompatibility complex

202
Q

classical pathway C3 convertase

A

C4bC2b

203
Q

lectin pathway C3 convertase

A

C4bC2b

204
Q

classical pathway C5 convertase

A

C4bC2bC3b

205
Q

lectin pathway C5 convertase

A

C4bC2bC3b

206
Q

alternative pathway C3 convertase

A

C3bBb

207
Q

alternative pathway C5 convertase

A

C3bBbC3b

208
Q

what does C3 convertase do

A

cleaves to create C3b and C3a

209
Q

immunoglobulin papain

A

had Fab and Fc fragments

210
Q

immunoglobulin pepsin

A

has Fab’ and Fc fragments

211
Q

Terminal Pathway

A

There is a Membrane Attach Complex (MAC) formed onto the surface of the pathogen cell
This causes membrane lesions and the cell breaks apart

212
Q

which complement factors cause the inflammatory response and what is another name for them?

A

C3a and C5a – chemoattractants

213
Q

what are the results of inflammatory activation by chemoattractants

A
  1. smooth muscle contraction
  2. mast cell degranulation
  3. vasodilation and local edema
  4. neutrophil activation
214
Q

Are natural barriers and normal flora innate or adaptive?

A

INNATE

215
Q

MHC I restricted

A

NEEDS MHC I to work

CD8 T cells

216
Q

MHC II restricted

A

Needs MHC II to work

CD4 T cells

Semester 1 (5 decks)

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