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Semester 1 > MICRO exam 3 > Flashcards

MICRO exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

4 functions of the male reproductive tract

A
  1. produce male sex cells
  2. produce testosterone
  3. get male gametes into female organs
  4. PMDH and AMH in embryo and inhibin hormone in adults
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2
Q

site of spermatogenesis and production of sex hormone

A

testis

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3
Q

In testis the parenchyma is composed of __________ with sertoli cells

A

seminiferous tubules

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4
Q

In testis the interstitium has _____ cells that secrete _____

A

LEYDIG CELLS

Testosterone

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5
Q

What tunics surround the testis

A

2 tunicae vaginalis and 1 tunica albuginae

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6
Q

tunic in direct communication with the abdominal cavity

A

vaginalis

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7
Q

component of tunica vaginalis that blends with the connective tissue of the scrotum

A

parietal

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8
Q

part of the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testis and epididymas

A

visceral

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9
Q

type of cells that line the components of the tunica vaginalis in the testis

A

mesothelial

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10
Q

“white tunic”

A

albuginea

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11
Q

capsule of dense connective tissue composed of collagen fibers and a few elastic fibers and myofibroblasts

A

albuginea

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12
Q

continuous with the connective tissue trabeculae named septule testis that separates the seminiferous tubules

A

albuginea

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13
Q

60-80 cm in length

A

seminiferous tubules

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14
Q

type of cells between the seminiferous tubules

A

leydig cells

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15
Q

highly convoluted tortuous loops

A

seminiferous tubules

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16
Q

epithelium that lines seminiferous tubules

A

spermatogenic epithelium

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17
Q

in lumen of seminiferous tubules and are IMMOTILE

A

spermatozoa

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18
Q

located outside the basement membrane of seminiferous tubules. Their function is to move spermatozoa out of the tubules

A

myoid cells

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19
Q

composed of intratubular neoplastic cells with characteristics of seminiferous tubules, compressing adjacent tubules

A

seminoma

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20
Q

uncontrolled replication tumor of sperm cells `

A

seminoma

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21
Q

T/F

Sertoli cells are in contact with each other

A

TRUE

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22
Q

characterized by tight junctions that divide the seminiferous epithelium into a basal and adluminal compartments

A

sertoli cells

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23
Q

what resides in the basal compartment of sertoli cells

A

spermatogonia

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24
Q

T/F

adluminal compartment isolates the spermatogonia from blood

A

true

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25
Q

blood testis barrier

A

in the sertoli cells, it protects the spermatids from the immune system via tight junctions

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26
Q

tall cells that extend from the basement membrane to the tubule lumen

A

sertoli cells

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27
Q

support, protect, and nourish spermatogenic cells

A

sertoli cells

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28
Q

what process influences germ cell differentiation

A

Sertoli cells have FSH receptors resulting in Androgen Binding Proteins (ABP) which binds androgens

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29
Q

hormone that prevents mullerian duct from forming

A

anti-mullerian hormone

secreted from the sertoli cells

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30
Q

hormone released from the sertoli cells to suppress FSH

A

inhibin

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31
Q

what hormone controls leydig cells

A

interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH) = LH

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32
Q

responsible from secondary male sex characteristics and libido

A

testosterone

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33
Q

system between testicular artery and vein

A

Countercurrent Heat Exchange

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34
Q

epithelium of rete testis

A

simple squamous to cuboidal

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35
Q

empties into efferent ductules which lead to the epididymal ducts

A

rete testis and epididymas

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36
Q

seminiferous tubules empty into

A

rete testis

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37
Q

one long coiled tubule

A

epididymal duct

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38
Q

site of sperm storage

A

epididymal tail

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39
Q

epididymal duct epithelium

A

lined by pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

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40
Q

main functions of epididymal duct

A
  1. 90% fluid resorption

2. secretion of glycerophosphocholines

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41
Q

characterized by prominent musularis = peristaltic contractions that proper the spermatozoa

A

vas deferens

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42
Q

terminal portion is the ejaculatory duct

A

vas deferens – may contain sperm here after castration

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43
Q

in ruminants, near the junction with the urethra, the ductus deferens forms a male accessory gland called ______

A

ampulla

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44
Q

all male accessory glands are ________ and are lined with _______ epithelium

A
  1. tubuloalveolar

2. simple or pseudostratified

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45
Q

gland that produces fructose as a source of energy for the sperm

A

vesicular gland

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46
Q

gland not present in the carnivores

A

vesicular gland

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47
Q

multilobulated gland that surrounds the prostatic urethra

A

prostate gland

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48
Q

enlarged prostate

A

prostatic hyperplasia

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49
Q

what surrounds the lobules of the prostate gland

A

smooth muscle

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50
Q

T/F

prostate glands are branched

A

true

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51
Q

name of the prostatic concretions seem in the lumen of the prostate gland that increase with age

A

corpora amylacae

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52
Q

bulbourethral gland epithelium

A

tall simple cuboidal / columnar

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53
Q

gland that has a mucous secretion that acts as a lubricant in the urethra

A

bulbourethral gland

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54
Q

where do bulbourethral glands empty

A

into pelvic urethra

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55
Q

consists of primarily erectile tissue and the urethra

A

penis

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56
Q

paired masses of erectile tissue

A

corpora cavernosa

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57
Q

irregular vascular spaces lined with endothelium

A

penis

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58
Q

single masses of erectile tissue surrounds the urethra delicately

A

corpus spongiosum

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59
Q

horse dog and primate penis

A

musculo-cavernosum

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60
Q

bull ram and boar penis

A

fibroelastic

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61
Q

3 portions of male urethra

A
  1. prostatic
  2. pelvic
  3. penile
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62
Q

most of the length of the urethra is what type of epithelium

A

Transitional

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63
Q

functions of ovaries

A
  1. produce female gametes

2. produce sex hormones

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64
Q

female repro system exocrine function

A

produce female gametes

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65
Q

female repro system endocrine function

A

produce sex hormones

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66
Q

part of ovary that is a broad peripheral zone containing follicles in various stages of development

A

Cortex

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67
Q

part of ovary containing connective tissue, nerves, blood and lymph vessels

A

medulla

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68
Q

Mare ovary differences

A

in a mature mare, the cortical tissue remains on the surface only in the ovulation fossa

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69
Q

ovary cortex epithelium

A

cuboidal

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70
Q

ovary cortex, layer beneath the epithelium

A

tunica albuginea – connective tissue layer

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71
Q

continuous process throughout the reproductive life whereby follicles undergo maturation during each cycle

A

folliculogenesis

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72
Q

growth and maturation of follicles is dependent on _____ from the ______

A

FSH from the adenohypophysis

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73
Q

important for estrogen synthesis and ovulation

A

LH

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74
Q

structure containing an oocyte surrounded by specialized epithelial cells

A

ovarian follicle

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75
Q

primary oocyte enclosed by flat simple squamous follicular cells on basal lamina and are retained in a resting phase in fetal ovary

A

primordial follicle

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76
Q

primary oocyte enclosed by simple cuboidal epithelium and the oocyte is larger than a primordial

A

primary follicle

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77
Q

primary oocyte enclosed by follicular cells that proliferate in mitosis

A

secondary follicle

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78
Q

larger follicle with an antrum filled with liquor folliculi between granulosa cells – as it gets larger the oocyte is surrounded by follicular cells called the corona radiata and it sits on aggregate granulosa cells called the cumulus oophorus

A

tertiary follicle

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79
Q

graafian follicle – the oocyte detaches from cumulus oophorus and floats in the follicular fluid

A

mature follicle – also may aquire LH receptors here for the corpus luteum development

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80
Q

majority of follicles in any stage degenerate

A

atresia

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81
Q

after ovulation blood flows into the antrum and the ruptured follicle becomes the ______

A

corpus hemorrhagicum

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82
Q

capillaries from the stroma invade the collapsed follicle and it becomes the ______

A

corpus luteum

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83
Q

involution of the corpus luteum –> fibrous scar tissue forms

A

corpus albicans

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84
Q

the process by which the granulosa and theca cells transform into luteal cells

A

luteinization

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85
Q

in response to LH and FSH the theca lutein cells produce this

A

progesterone

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86
Q

muscular tube derived from mullerian ducts

A

oviducts

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87
Q

yellow pigment in luteal cells of carnivores, mares, and cows

A

lutein

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88
Q

what animals dont have pigment in the luteal cells

A

sows ewes and goats

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89
Q

transports zygote to the uterus for implantation

A

oviduct

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90
Q

site where nutrients and trophic factors via placental attachment sites

A

uterus

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91
Q

superficial layer of endometrium that degenerates after pregnancy or estrus

A

functional

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92
Q

layer that remains after pregnancy or estrus in endometrium

A

basal layer

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93
Q

functions as a seal to prevent entry to cranial vagina

A

cervix

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94
Q

THE GATEKEEPER

A

cervix

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95
Q

ectocervix epithelium

A

lined by stratified squamous

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96
Q

endocervix epithelium

A

simple columnar with mucous secreting cells

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97
Q

does the vagina have a muscularis mucosae

A

no srry

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98
Q

fibro-muscular tube with 3 layers

A

vagina

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99
Q

vagina epithelium

A

mostly straified squamous and patches of columnar or mucous secreting cells

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100
Q

phase of the cycle with all cell types including erythrocytes and neutrophils

A

proestrus

in late proestrus – there are low neutrophils and the intermediate and superficial cells will dominate

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101
Q

phase where superficial and keratinized cells are greater than 90% of the cells, many are anucleated, there are no neutrophils and low numbers of erythrocytes

A

estrus

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102
Q

phase where superficial cells decrease abruptly and most of the cells are intermediate and parabasal

A

diestrus

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103
Q

parabasal and intermediate cells predominate.. there may be neutrophils and bacteria present in small numbers

A

anestrus

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104
Q

the ductless gland system

A

endocrine

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105
Q

“endo”

A

secretes internally

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106
Q

endocrine system major functions (4)

A
  1. growth and development
  2. internal environment
  3. energy production, storage, and utilization
  4. reproduction
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107
Q

_______ typically produce slow, sustained responses in the endocrine organs

A

hormones

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108
Q

portion of the brain that links the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland/hypophysis

A

hypothalamus

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109
Q

hypothalamic nuclei pathway:

production of releasing hormones released into “portal system” to the target cells in the _______

A

adenohypophysis

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110
Q

hypothalamic nuclei pathway:

hormones axonally transported and stored in the ______, then released into blood to target distant sites

A

neurohypophysis

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111
Q

2 hormones from the neurohypophysis

A

antidiuretic hormone

oxytocin

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112
Q

adenohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary

A

anterior

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113
Q

neurohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary

A

posterior

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114
Q

the nervous lobe

A

eurohypophysis

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115
Q

3 portions of the eurohypophysis

A
  1. pars nervosa
  2. infundibular stalk
  3. eminentia mediana
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116
Q

axons of the neurohypophisis comprise what 2 things

A
  1. infundibulum

2. pars nervosa

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117
Q

swellings along the neurohypohysis axons

A

herring bodies – where hormones are accumulated

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118
Q

storage site for oxytocin and ADH

A

herring bodies

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119
Q

where do axons terminate in the pars nervosa

A

terminate on the vessels

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120
Q

stimulates the mammary gland and milk letdown

A

oxytocin

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121
Q

the glandular lobe

A

adenohypophysis

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122
Q

3 portions of the adenohypophysis

A
  1. pars distalis
  2. pars intermedia
  3. pars tuberalis
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123
Q

requires a releasing hormone from the hypothalamus

A

adenohypophysis

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124
Q

bulk of the adenohypophysis and secretes the majority of the hormones

A

pars distalis

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125
Q

source of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

pars intermedia

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126
Q

major function is the regulate daily rhythms of bodily activity

A

epiphysis

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127
Q

secretory cells of the epiphysis

A

pinealocytes

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128
Q

produce the hormone melatonin

A

pinealocytes

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129
Q

respond the the stimuli detected in the retina… darkness stimulates the secretion of melatonin (circadian rhythm)

A

pinealocytes

130
Q

hormone important in seasonal reproduction

A

melatonin

131
Q

lining cells of the thyroid gland produce ____

A

thyroglobulin

132
Q

follicle lumen of thyroid gland

A

colloid

133
Q

thyroid gland follicles lining cells convert thyroglobulin to _____

A

active T3/T4 thyroxine

134
Q

thyroid gland clear cells

A

parafollicular cells

135
Q

secrete calcitonin in response to high calcium

A

parafollicular cells

136
Q

Cells that target the bone and the kidneys to lower serum calcium

A

parafollicular cells

137
Q

cells that decrease osteoclast activity

A

parafollicular cells

138
Q

calcitonin origin

A

neural crest

139
Q

gland composed of tightly packed chief cells

A

parathyroid gland

140
Q

secretes parathormone into capillaries

A

parathyroid gland

141
Q

Function of parathormone

A

increases Ca – increases renal and intestinal calcium resorption and stimulates the osteoclasts for more bone resorption

142
Q

part of adrenal gland from mesoderm that secretes corticosteroids

A

cortex

143
Q

part of adrenal gland from the neural crest and secretes catecholamines

A

medulla

144
Q

most outer layer of the adrenal gland cortex

A

zona glomerulosa

145
Q

layer of the adrenal gland cortex that secretes aldosterone

A

zona glomerulosa

146
Q

layer of the adrenal gland cortex that has spongiocytes and is long cords of cells

A

zona fasciculata

147
Q

what does the zona fasciculata of the cortex secrete

A

cortisol
glucocorticoids
corticosterone

148
Q

zone of cortex made of androgen secreting cells and contains high vascularity

A

zona reticularis

149
Q

T/F

The adrena medulla has distinct vacuoles

A

false – no distinct vacuoles

150
Q

epithelium of adrena medulla

A

columnar to cuboidal cells

151
Q

Type of cells that make up the adrenal medulla

A

Chromaffin cells

152
Q

secretions of the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine (stored in secretory granules)

153
Q

part of adrenal gland stimulated by low blood pressure/RAAS and the release of angiotensin II (>ACTH)

A

zona glomerulosa of the cortex

154
Q

when stimulated, what is the effect of the zona glomerulosa

A

Na/K ATPase – increased blood volume

155
Q

Zone stimulated by stress perceived by the hypothalamus —> ACTH

A

zona fasciculata

156
Q

stimulated by ATCH to produce androgens

A

zona reticularis

157
Q

Stimulated by fear/stress or sympathetic/parasympathetic

A

medulla

158
Q

effect of a stimulated zona fasciculata

A

glucocorticoids are produced to hit target cells and also a neg. feedback loop for ACTH production

159
Q

has an immediate fight or flight response when stimulated

A

medulla

160
Q

endocrine pancreas islets of langerhaan and their secretions

A

alpha - glucagon/cck
beta - insulin, IAPP
delta - somatostatin
other - gastrin

161
Q

majority of cells in the islets of langerhaan

A

beta

162
Q

how to tell apart the cells of islets of langerhaan

A

antibody based staining

163
Q

pyloric region of the stomach secretes _____

A

gastrin

164
Q

in small intestine, enteroendocrine cells secrete what hormones and why

A

cholecytokinin (CCK) for gall bladder contraction

ALSO secretin and gastrin inhibitory polypeptide

165
Q

2 hormones produced by the kidneys

A

renin and erythropoietin

166
Q

produced by juxtaglomerular cells and is involved in blood pressure control

A

renin

167
Q

controls RBC production and is a cytokine for RBC precursors

A

erythropoietin

168
Q

in the heart, ______ cells secrete _______ peptide

A

atrial myocardial cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide

169
Q

promotes Na+ and water loss / decreases blood pressure

A

ANP

170
Q

target of ANP

A

distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys

171
Q

T/F

The pineal gland is a secondary endocrine organ

A

FALSE – it is a primary one

172
Q

T/F

the thymus is a secondary endocrine organ

A

true

173
Q

T/F

the heart is a secondary endocrine organ

A

TRUE

174
Q

5-10% of total body weight

A

blood

175
Q

PLASMA vs SERUM

A

plasma – has all the proteins / found in vasculature

serum – lacks coagulation proteins

176
Q

most numerous formed element in blood (millions)

A

erythrocytes

177
Q

function of erythrocytes

A
  1. carry O2 to tissues and CO2 to lungs

2. involved in acid base homeostatis / buffering

178
Q

biconcave disc with a flexible membrane and high surface to volume ratio

A

erythrocytes

179
Q

are blood cells nucleated in all species

A

no, they are only nucleated in exotics such as birds

180
Q

general life span of erythrocytes

A

a couple months

181
Q

metarubicytes

A

nucleated RBC in mammals – ABNORMAL

regenerative anemia or bone marrow damage

182
Q

RBC that are “one stage back” on development

A

polychromatophils

183
Q

least numerous formed element in blood

A

leukocytes (thousands) WBC

184
Q

2 major categories of leukocytes

A
  1. myeloid – neutrophils/granulocytes/monocytes/basophiles/eosinophils
  2. lymphoid – lymphocytes
185
Q

most numerous WBC

A

neutrophils

186
Q

neutrophil function

A

in innate immunity – phagocytic and killing

have granules that contain antibacterial substances

187
Q

heterophils

A

neutrophil variation in rabbits/birds/reptiles

have bright red granules

188
Q

differentiate into macrophages

A

monocytes

189
Q

function in iron storage and recycling

A

monocytes

190
Q

function in phagocytosis and antigen presentation to T-lymophocytes

A

monocytes

191
Q

the Mononuclear Phagocytic System (MPS) is comprised of ……

A
  1. circulating monocytes

2. tissue macrophages

192
Q

modulate delayed and immediate type hypersensitivity reactions

A

eosinophils

193
Q

defense against helminths

A

eosinophils

194
Q

attracted by histamine

A

eosinophils

195
Q

have arginine rich anti-bacterial and anti-parasite proteins

A

eosinophils

196
Q

least numerous WBC in blood

A

basophils

197
Q

an increase in concentration of basophils is what

A

often associated with parasitic infestations and allergic reactions (heartworm disease)

198
Q

contain histamine basophilic granules

A

basophils

199
Q

Rare in felines

A

basophils

200
Q

2nd most numerous cell population in blood

A

lymphocytes (20-40% of WBC)

201
Q

found in blood, lymphatic circulation, and lymphatic tissues

A

lymphocytes

202
Q

major players in humoral and cell mediated immune responses

A

lymphocytes

203
Q

plasma cells

A

most differentiated B cells in tissue, lymphocyte subpopulation and not normally in blood smears

204
Q

T/F

platelets are cells!

A

FALSE – they are not cells they are cytoplasmic fragments

205
Q

second most numerous formed element in blood

A

platelets

206
Q

another name for platelets

A

thrombocytes

207
Q

primarily function in hemostasis (clots) but also have a role in the primary immune response

A

platelets

208
Q

In cats, sometimes the active platelets do this

A

spread pseudopodia

209
Q

are platelets ever nucleated?

A

yes in avian/reptile/amphibians

210
Q

mesenchymal derived tissue

A

bone marrow

211
Q

red marrow

A

produces all the blood cells and stores iron

LARGE amounts in young

212
Q

fatty tissue that replaces the red marrow and is the result of aging

A

yellow marrow

213
Q

connective tissue network made of mesenchymal cells, reticular cells and fibers, and cells occupying the space between bone marrow

A

stroma

214
Q

large lumen and discontinuous epithelial cells

A

sinusoids

215
Q

T/F

bone marrow is a highly cellular tissue

A

true

216
Q

erythrocytic lineage

A

metarubicyte –> polychromatophile –> RBC

217
Q

platelet lineage

A

megakaryoblast –> promegakaryocyte –> megakaryocyte –> platelet

218
Q

process where specialized cellular precursors develop into highly differentiated cells of peripheral blood

A

hematopoiesis

219
Q

post natal sites of hematopoiesis

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. liver
  3. spleen
220
Q

prenatal sites of hematopoiesis

A
  1. yolk sac
  2. lymph nodes
  3. bone marrow
  4. liver
  5. spleen
221
Q

function of the lymphatic system

A

to protect the body against pathogenic organisms and their products and to help in the removal and disposal of cells undergoing natural or induced degenerations

222
Q

list the primary organs of the lymphatic system

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. thymus
  3. (BIRDS ONLY) cloacal bursa
223
Q

primary lymphatic organs function

A

generate lymphocytes from progenitor cells

224
Q

sites of lymphocyte activation and differentiation in context of an immune response

A

secondary lymphatic organs

  1. lymph nodes
  2. spleen
  3. mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
225
Q

T/F

Primary lymphatic organs are a site of antigen presentation

A

FALSE THEY ARE NOT

226
Q

where T and B cells originate and establish their features

A

primary lymphatic organs

227
Q

source of pluripotent stem cells (T and B)

A

bone marrow

B mature in bone marrow and T go to the thymus

228
Q

functionally equivalent to mammalian bone marrow for B cell differentiation

A

bursa of fabricus / cloacal bursa

contains a large number of lymphoid cells and some macrophages

229
Q

disappears with maturity, but it originally located in the mediastinum cranial to the heart

A

thymus

made of lobules…capsulated

230
Q

thymic cortex

A

stains darker than the medulla due to its high numbers of lymphocytes

it is an area of positive selection… Tingible body macrophage to eat dead T cells

231
Q

thymic medulla

A

has thymic corpuscles – large central calcified degenerative cells surrounded by circle of concentric keratinized cells

Negative selection – auto reactive engulfs bad lymphocytes

232
Q

gradual depletion of lymphocytes replaced by _____ after sexual maturity

A

adipocytes

233
Q

filters antigen from lymph before returning it to the blood stream

A

lymph nodes

234
Q

only lymphatic organ with both efferent and afferent lymph vessels and sinuses containing lymph

A

lymph nodes

235
Q

filters blood, mounts immune responses against blood borne antigens and stores RBC/platelets

A

spleen

236
Q

spleen white pulp

A

central arterioles
peripheral lymphoid sheaths
follicles
B and T cells in parenchymas

237
Q

spleen red pulp

A

sinusoids and RBC storage

parenchyma and venous sinuses

238
Q

aggregated lymphatic nodule in the phaynx

A

tonsils

239
Q

axosomatic synapse

A

touches cell body

240
Q

axodendritic synapse

A

touches on dendrite

241
Q

axoaxonic synapse

A

synapse on the axon hillock (rare)

242
Q

supporting cells within the brain that outnumber neurons 50:1

A

neuroglia

243
Q

can replicate and fill holes in brain necrosis

A

astrocytes

244
Q

CNS counterpart of fibroblasts

A

astrocyte

245
Q

Function to maintain extracellular matrix ion content, transport nutrients, MHC II antigen presentation, and are part of the blood brain barrier

A

astrocytes

246
Q

develop and maintain myelin in CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

247
Q

can be destroyed by viruses and toxins, resulting in primary demyelination

A

oligodendrocytes

248
Q

resident macrophages of the CNS that are derived from blood borne monocytes

A

microglia

249
Q

Name of microglia when they are activated during necrosis or inflammation

A

GITTER CELLs

250
Q

Name of microglia when they are phagocytic

A

myelophages

251
Q

meosdermal in origin and have dendrites and a small elongated nucleus

A

microglia

252
Q

ciliated cuboidal cells lining neural canal, 3rd and 4th ventricles, and the choroid plexus (CNS Cavities)

A

ependymal cells

253
Q

form the cerebrospinal fluid

A

ependymal cells

254
Q

synthesizes myelin in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes – connect to multiple internodes

255
Q

synthesizes myelin in the PNS

A

Schwann Cells – only connects to one internode

256
Q

reflects level of mobility at birth

A

myelin

257
Q

responsible for conduction and speed of impulses

A

myelin

258
Q

T/F

Myelin formation continues postnatally

A

true

259
Q

hypomyelination

A

not enough myelin

260
Q

dysmyelination

A

abnormal development

261
Q

collection of sensitive neurons / the memory area of the brain close to ventricle

A

hippocampal

262
Q

Contains a lot of glutamate receptors and is sensitive to hypoxia, hyperglycemia, and seizures

A

hippocampal

263
Q

coordination of body movements

A

cerebellum

264
Q

only nerve fibers leaving the cerebellum

A

efferent axons

265
Q

Feline cerebellar hypoplasia

A

in-utero infection by feline panleukopenia virus that causes damage to the granular stem cells

266
Q

main area of CSF, where the spinal taps go

A

subarachnoid space

267
Q

membranes covering brain and spinal cord

A

meninges

268
Q

outermost layer of the meninges that is thick and stuck to the skull

A

DURA matter –> pachymenix

269
Q

meninges layer attached to dura matter

A

arachnoid matter

270
Q

meninges layer that is highly vascular and adherent to brain and spinal cord

A

pia matter

271
Q

arachnoid + pia matter = ??

A

leptomeninx

272
Q

how many times a day is CSF formed and renewed

A

3x a day

MUST be drained away and replaced at a constant rate

273
Q

cluster of arborizing blood vessels covered by a thin connective tissue and ependymal cells

A

choroid plexus

274
Q

site of CSF production

A

choroid plexus

275
Q

situated between inner and outer longitudinal layers of tunica muscularis

A

myenteric plexus

276
Q

helps control peristaltic movement of the gastrointestinal tractcircular

A

myenteric plexus

277
Q

ear wax

A

cerumen

278
Q

glands located within the skin of the external acoustic canal

A

ceruminous glands – apocrine

279
Q

junction between the external and middle ear

A

tympanic membrane

280
Q

tympanic membrane epithelium

A

on outside is stratified squamous – tougher

on inside simple squamous

281
Q

bone inside tympanic membrane

A

malleous

282
Q

T/F

tympanic membrane is poorly vascularize connective tissue with a good nerve supply

A

TRUE

283
Q

connect the tympanic membrane to the membrane of the vestibular window of the ear

A

auditory ossicles

284
Q

auditory tube that goes from oral cavity to middle ear

A

eustachian

285
Q

ventral expansion of eustachian tube in horses

A

guttural pouch

286
Q

contains perilymph

A

bony labyrinth of inner ear

287
Q

contains endolymph

A

membranous labyrinth of inner ear

288
Q

determines pitch

A

resonance of basilar membrane

289
Q

produces endolymph in the cochlear duct

A

stria vascularis

290
Q

membrane that is vibrated by the sound wave energy

A

techtorial

291
Q

responsible for position of head/linear movement

A
  1. macula utricle

2. macula saccule

292
Q

hearing organ

A

organ of corti

293
Q

composition of organ of corti

A
  1. hair cells with stereocilia
  2. phalangeal support cells
  3. pillar cells – moved in vibrations and displace hair cells in the techtorial membrane
294
Q

3 things with neuroepithelial cells

A
  1. macula utricle
  2. macula saccule
  3. crista ampullas
295
Q

sensitive to angular acceleration and decceleration

A

crista ampullas

296
Q

winds around the modiolus – a bony core contianing spiral ganglion of cranial nerves 8 and blood vessels

A

cochlea

297
Q

2 parts of cochlea that are outside of the cochlear duct and have perilymph

A
  1. scala vestibuli

2. scala tympani

298
Q

involved with gravitational movement of linear acceleration of endolymph

A

utricle and saccule

299
Q

bends the stereocilia of the perpendicular maculas and sends the impulse to the brain in utricle and saccule

A

otolith

300
Q

gel in ear for sensitive movement

A

sertoconial membrane

301
Q

gelatinous mass, sensory hair cells project into the ________ which bends the hairs and sends the impulse to the brain for crista ampullas

A

cupula

302
Q

canals at right angles to each other that can detect angular accelerations

A

crista ampulla – semicircular ducts

303
Q

semicircular ducts contain _________

A

endolymph

304
Q

what nerves innervate the tympanic membrane

A

5, 9, 10

305
Q

what structures does the bony labyrinth contain

A

vestibule
semicircular canals
cochlea

306
Q

communicates between middle ear and nasopharynx for air pressure equalization

A

auditory tube

307
Q

cartilage type within the pinna

A

elastic

308
Q

function of phalangeal cells

A

support the organ of corti

309
Q

fluid when thoracic duct is ruptured

A

chyle

310
Q

T/F

inhibitory synaptic vesicles contain acetylcholine

A

TRUE

311
Q

a motor endplate is stimulated by which neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

312
Q

elevations in the cerebrum

A

gyri

313
Q

the molecular layer, ganglionic layer, and granular layer are part of the ___________

A

grey matter in the cerebellum

314
Q

forms scar tissue in brain

A

astocytes

315
Q

CNS cells responsible for antigen presentations

A

astrocytes and microglial

316
Q

produce immulnoglobulins

A

B - cells

317
Q

sperm storage

A

tail of epididymis

318
Q

are the testes and ovaries primary or secondary endocrine organs

A

secondary

319
Q

Which layer of the uterus degenerates and is shed after pregnancy or estrus?

A

functional zone of the endometrium

320
Q

glycoprotein layer located at the interphase between the oocyte and granulosa cells

A

zona pellucida

321
Q

large, pale staining, spindle shaped cells that have the morphology of steroid producing cells

A

theca cells

322
Q

acquire receptors for FSH and are important in follicular development

A

granulosa cells

Semester 1 (5 decks)

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