MICRO exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

4 functions of the male reproductive tract

A
  1. produce male sex cells
  2. produce testosterone
  3. get male gametes into female organs
  4. PMDH and AMH in embryo and inhibin hormone in adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

site of spermatogenesis and production of sex hormone

A

testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In testis the parenchyma is composed of __________ with sertoli cells

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In testis the interstitium has _____ cells that secrete _____

A

LEYDIG CELLS

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What tunics surround the testis

A

2 tunicae vaginalis and 1 tunica albuginae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tunic in direct communication with the abdominal cavity

A

vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

component of tunica vaginalis that blends with the connective tissue of the scrotum

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

part of the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testis and epididymas

A

visceral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

type of cells that line the components of the tunica vaginalis in the testis

A

mesothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“white tunic”

A

albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

capsule of dense connective tissue composed of collagen fibers and a few elastic fibers and myofibroblasts

A

albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

continuous with the connective tissue trabeculae named septule testis that separates the seminiferous tubules

A

albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

60-80 cm in length

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of cells between the seminiferous tubules

A

leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

highly convoluted tortuous loops

A

seminiferous tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

epithelium that lines seminiferous tubules

A

spermatogenic epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in lumen of seminiferous tubules and are IMMOTILE

A

spermatozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

located outside the basement membrane of seminiferous tubules. Their function is to move spermatozoa out of the tubules

A

myoid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

composed of intratubular neoplastic cells with characteristics of seminiferous tubules, compressing adjacent tubules

A

seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

uncontrolled replication tumor of sperm cells `

A

seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F

Sertoli cells are in contact with each other

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

characterized by tight junctions that divide the seminiferous epithelium into a basal and adluminal compartments

A

sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what resides in the basal compartment of sertoli cells

A

spermatogonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F

adluminal compartment isolates the spermatogonia from blood

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
blood testis barrier
in the sertoli cells, it protects the spermatids from the immune system via tight junctions
26
tall cells that extend from the basement membrane to the tubule lumen
sertoli cells
27
support, protect, and nourish spermatogenic cells
sertoli cells
28
what process influences germ cell differentiation
Sertoli cells have FSH receptors resulting in Androgen Binding Proteins (ABP) which binds androgens
29
hormone that prevents mullerian duct from forming
anti-mullerian hormone | secreted from the sertoli cells
30
hormone released from the sertoli cells to suppress FSH
inhibin
31
what hormone controls leydig cells
interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH) = LH
32
responsible from secondary male sex characteristics and libido
testosterone
33
system between testicular artery and vein
Countercurrent Heat Exchange
34
epithelium of rete testis
simple squamous to cuboidal
35
empties into efferent ductules which lead to the epididymal ducts
rete testis and epididymas
36
seminiferous tubules empty into
rete testis
37
one long coiled tubule
epididymal duct
38
site of sperm storage
epididymal tail
39
epididymal duct epithelium
lined by pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
40
main functions of epididymal duct
1. 90% fluid resorption | 2. secretion of glycerophosphocholines
41
characterized by prominent musularis = peristaltic contractions that proper the spermatozoa
vas deferens
42
terminal portion is the ejaculatory duct
vas deferens -- may contain sperm here after castration
43
in ruminants, near the junction with the urethra, the ductus deferens forms a male accessory gland called ______
ampulla
44
all male accessory glands are ________ and are lined with _______ epithelium
1. tubuloalveolar | 2. simple or pseudostratified
45
gland that produces fructose as a source of energy for the sperm
vesicular gland
46
gland not present in the carnivores
vesicular gland
47
multilobulated gland that surrounds the prostatic urethra
prostate gland
48
enlarged prostate
prostatic hyperplasia
49
what surrounds the lobules of the prostate gland
smooth muscle
50
T/F | prostate glands are branched
true
51
name of the prostatic concretions seem in the lumen of the prostate gland that increase with age
corpora amylacae
52
bulbourethral gland epithelium
tall simple cuboidal / columnar
53
gland that has a mucous secretion that acts as a lubricant in the urethra
bulbourethral gland
54
where do bulbourethral glands empty
into pelvic urethra
55
consists of primarily erectile tissue and the urethra
penis
56
paired masses of erectile tissue
corpora cavernosa
57
irregular vascular spaces lined with endothelium
penis
58
single masses of erectile tissue surrounds the urethra delicately
corpus spongiosum
59
horse dog and primate penis
musculo-cavernosum
60
bull ram and boar penis
fibroelastic
61
3 portions of male urethra
1. prostatic 2. pelvic 3. penile
62
most of the length of the urethra is what type of epithelium
Transitional
63
functions of ovaries
1. produce female gametes | 2. produce sex hormones
64
female repro system exocrine function
produce female gametes
65
female repro system endocrine function
produce sex hormones
66
part of ovary that is a broad peripheral zone containing follicles in various stages of development
Cortex
67
part of ovary containing connective tissue, nerves, blood and lymph vessels
medulla
68
Mare ovary differences
in a mature mare, the cortical tissue remains on the surface only in the ovulation fossa
69
ovary cortex epithelium
cuboidal
70
ovary cortex, layer beneath the epithelium
tunica albuginea -- connective tissue layer
71
continuous process throughout the reproductive life whereby follicles undergo maturation during each cycle
folliculogenesis
72
growth and maturation of follicles is dependent on _____ from the ______
FSH from the adenohypophysis
73
important for estrogen synthesis and ovulation
LH
74
structure containing an oocyte surrounded by specialized epithelial cells
ovarian follicle
75
primary oocyte enclosed by flat simple squamous follicular cells on basal lamina and are retained in a resting phase in fetal ovary
primordial follicle
76
primary oocyte enclosed by simple cuboidal epithelium and the oocyte is larger than a primordial
primary follicle
77
primary oocyte enclosed by follicular cells that proliferate in mitosis
secondary follicle
78
larger follicle with an antrum filled with liquor folliculi between granulosa cells -- as it gets larger the oocyte is surrounded by follicular cells called the corona radiata and it sits on aggregate granulosa cells called the cumulus oophorus
tertiary follicle
79
graafian follicle -- the oocyte detaches from cumulus oophorus and floats in the follicular fluid
mature follicle -- also may aquire LH receptors here for the corpus luteum development
80
majority of follicles in any stage degenerate
atresia
81
after ovulation blood flows into the antrum and the ruptured follicle becomes the ______
corpus hemorrhagicum
82
capillaries from the stroma invade the collapsed follicle and it becomes the ______
corpus luteum
83
involution of the corpus luteum --> fibrous scar tissue forms
corpus albicans
84
the process by which the granulosa and theca cells transform into luteal cells
luteinization
85
in response to LH and FSH the theca lutein cells produce this
progesterone
86
muscular tube derived from mullerian ducts
oviducts
87
yellow pigment in luteal cells of carnivores, mares, and cows
lutein
88
what animals dont have pigment in the luteal cells
sows ewes and goats
89
transports zygote to the uterus for implantation
oviduct
90
site where nutrients and trophic factors via placental attachment sites
uterus
91
superficial layer of endometrium that degenerates after pregnancy or estrus
functional
92
layer that remains after pregnancy or estrus in endometrium
basal layer
93
functions as a seal to prevent entry to cranial vagina
cervix
94
THE GATEKEEPER
cervix
95
ectocervix epithelium
lined by stratified squamous
96
endocervix epithelium
simple columnar with mucous secreting cells
97
does the vagina have a muscularis mucosae
no srry
98
fibro-muscular tube with 3 layers
vagina
99
vagina epithelium
mostly straified squamous and patches of columnar or mucous secreting cells
100
phase of the cycle with all cell types including erythrocytes and neutrophils
proestrus in late proestrus -- there are low neutrophils and the intermediate and superficial cells will dominate
101
phase where superficial and keratinized cells are greater than 90% of the cells, many are anucleated, there are no neutrophils and low numbers of erythrocytes
estrus
102
phase where superficial cells decrease abruptly and most of the cells are intermediate and parabasal
diestrus
103
parabasal and intermediate cells predominate.. there may be neutrophils and bacteria present in small numbers
anestrus
104
the ductless gland system
endocrine
105
"endo"
secretes internally
106
endocrine system major functions (4)
1. growth and development 2. internal environment 3. energy production, storage, and utilization 4. reproduction
107
_______ typically produce slow, sustained responses in the endocrine organs
hormones
108
portion of the brain that links the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland/hypophysis
hypothalamus
109
hypothalamic nuclei pathway: | production of releasing hormones released into "portal system" to the target cells in the _______
adenohypophysis
110
hypothalamic nuclei pathway: | hormones axonally transported and stored in the ______, then released into blood to target distant sites
neurohypophysis
111
2 hormones from the neurohypophysis
antidiuretic hormone | oxytocin
112
adenohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary
anterior
113
neurohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary
posterior
114
the nervous lobe
eurohypophysis
115
3 portions of the eurohypophysis
1. pars nervosa 2. infundibular stalk 3. eminentia mediana
116
axons of the neurohypophisis comprise what 2 things
1. infundibulum | 2. pars nervosa
117
swellings along the neurohypohysis axons
herring bodies -- where hormones are accumulated
118
storage site for oxytocin and ADH
herring bodies
119
where do axons terminate in the pars nervosa
terminate on the vessels
120
stimulates the mammary gland and milk letdown
oxytocin
121
the glandular lobe
adenohypophysis
122
3 portions of the adenohypophysis
1. pars distalis 2. pars intermedia 3. pars tuberalis
123
requires a releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
adenohypophysis
124
bulk of the adenohypophysis and secretes the majority of the hormones
pars distalis
125
source of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
pars intermedia
126
major function is the regulate daily rhythms of bodily activity
epiphysis
127
secretory cells of the epiphysis
pinealocytes
128
produce the hormone melatonin
pinealocytes
129
respond the the stimuli detected in the retina... darkness stimulates the secretion of melatonin (circadian rhythm)
pinealocytes
130
hormone important in seasonal reproduction
melatonin
131
lining cells of the thyroid gland produce ____
thyroglobulin
132
follicle lumen of thyroid gland
colloid
133
thyroid gland follicles lining cells convert thyroglobulin to _____
active T3/T4 thyroxine
134
thyroid gland clear cells
parafollicular cells
135
secrete calcitonin in response to high calcium
parafollicular cells
136
Cells that target the bone and the kidneys to lower serum calcium
parafollicular cells
137
cells that decrease osteoclast activity
parafollicular cells
138
calcitonin origin
neural crest
139
gland composed of tightly packed chief cells
parathyroid gland
140
secretes parathormone into capillaries
parathyroid gland
141
Function of parathormone
increases Ca -- increases renal and intestinal calcium resorption and stimulates the osteoclasts for more bone resorption
142
part of adrenal gland from mesoderm that secretes corticosteroids
cortex
143
part of adrenal gland from the neural crest and secretes catecholamines
medulla
144
most outer layer of the adrenal gland cortex
zona glomerulosa
145
layer of the adrenal gland cortex that secretes aldosterone
zona glomerulosa
146
layer of the adrenal gland cortex that has spongiocytes and is long cords of cells
zona fasciculata
147
what does the zona fasciculata of the cortex secrete
cortisol glucocorticoids corticosterone
148
zone of cortex made of androgen secreting cells and contains high vascularity
zona reticularis
149
T/F | The adrena medulla has distinct vacuoles
false -- no distinct vacuoles
150
epithelium of adrena medulla
columnar to cuboidal cells
151
Type of cells that make up the adrenal medulla
Chromaffin cells
152
secretions of the adrenal medulla
epinephrine and norepinephrine (stored in secretory granules)
153
part of adrenal gland stimulated by low blood pressure/RAAS and the release of angiotensin II (>ACTH)
zona glomerulosa of the cortex
154
when stimulated, what is the effect of the zona glomerulosa
Na/K ATPase -- increased blood volume
155
Zone stimulated by stress perceived by the hypothalamus ---> ACTH
zona fasciculata
156
stimulated by ATCH to produce androgens
zona reticularis
157
Stimulated by fear/stress or sympathetic/parasympathetic
medulla
158
effect of a stimulated zona fasciculata
glucocorticoids are produced to hit target cells and also a neg. feedback loop for ACTH production
159
has an immediate fight or flight response when stimulated
medulla
160
endocrine pancreas islets of langerhaan and their secretions
alpha - glucagon/cck beta - insulin, IAPP delta - somatostatin other - gastrin
161
majority of cells in the islets of langerhaan
beta
162
how to tell apart the cells of islets of langerhaan
antibody based staining
163
pyloric region of the stomach secretes _____
gastrin
164
in small intestine, enteroendocrine cells secrete what hormones and why
cholecytokinin (CCK) for gall bladder contraction ALSO secretin and gastrin inhibitory polypeptide
165
2 hormones produced by the kidneys
renin and erythropoietin
166
produced by juxtaglomerular cells and is involved in blood pressure control
renin
167
controls RBC production and is a cytokine for RBC precursors
erythropoietin
168
in the heart, ______ cells secrete _______ peptide
atrial myocardial cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide
169
promotes Na+ and water loss / decreases blood pressure
ANP
170
target of ANP
distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys
171
T/F | The pineal gland is a secondary endocrine organ
FALSE -- it is a primary one
172
T/F | the thymus is a secondary endocrine organ
true
173
T/F | the heart is a secondary endocrine organ
TRUE
174
5-10% of total body weight
blood
175
PLASMA vs SERUM
plasma -- has all the proteins / found in vasculature serum -- lacks coagulation proteins
176
most numerous formed element in blood (millions)
erythrocytes
177
function of erythrocytes
1. carry O2 to tissues and CO2 to lungs | 2. involved in acid base homeostatis / buffering
178
biconcave disc with a flexible membrane and high surface to volume ratio
erythrocytes
179
are blood cells nucleated in all species
no, they are only nucleated in exotics such as birds
180
general life span of erythrocytes
a couple months
181
metarubicytes
nucleated RBC in mammals -- ABNORMAL | regenerative anemia or bone marrow damage
182
RBC that are "one stage back" on development
polychromatophils
183
least numerous formed element in blood
leukocytes (thousands) WBC
184
2 major categories of leukocytes
1. myeloid -- neutrophils/granulocytes/monocytes/basophiles/eosinophils 2. lymphoid -- lymphocytes
185
most numerous WBC
neutrophils
186
neutrophil function
in innate immunity -- phagocytic and killing | have granules that contain antibacterial substances
187
heterophils
neutrophil variation in rabbits/birds/reptiles | have bright red granules
188
differentiate into macrophages
monocytes
189
function in iron storage and recycling
monocytes
190
function in phagocytosis and antigen presentation to T-lymophocytes
monocytes
191
the Mononuclear Phagocytic System (MPS) is comprised of ......
1. circulating monocytes | 2. tissue macrophages
192
modulate delayed and immediate type hypersensitivity reactions
eosinophils
193
defense against helminths
eosinophils
194
attracted by histamine
eosinophils
195
have arginine rich anti-bacterial and anti-parasite proteins
eosinophils
196
least numerous WBC in blood
basophils
197
an increase in concentration of basophils is what
often associated with parasitic infestations and allergic reactions (heartworm disease)
198
contain histamine basophilic granules
basophils
199
Rare in felines
basophils
200
2nd most numerous cell population in blood
lymphocytes (20-40% of WBC)
201
found in blood, lymphatic circulation, and lymphatic tissues
lymphocytes
202
major players in humoral and cell mediated immune responses
lymphocytes
203
plasma cells
most differentiated B cells in tissue, lymphocyte subpopulation and not normally in blood smears
204
T/F | platelets are cells!
FALSE -- they are not cells they are cytoplasmic fragments
205
second most numerous formed element in blood
platelets
206
another name for platelets
thrombocytes
207
primarily function in hemostasis (clots) but also have a role in the primary immune response
platelets
208
In cats, sometimes the active platelets do this
spread pseudopodia
209
are platelets ever nucleated?
yes in avian/reptile/amphibians
210
mesenchymal derived tissue
bone marrow
211
red marrow
produces all the blood cells and stores iron | LARGE amounts in young
212
fatty tissue that replaces the red marrow and is the result of aging
yellow marrow
213
connective tissue network made of mesenchymal cells, reticular cells and fibers, and cells occupying the space between bone marrow
stroma
214
large lumen and discontinuous epithelial cells
sinusoids
215
T/F | bone marrow is a highly cellular tissue
true
216
erythrocytic lineage
metarubicyte --> polychromatophile --> RBC
217
platelet lineage
megakaryoblast --> promegakaryocyte --> megakaryocyte --> platelet
218
process where specialized cellular precursors develop into highly differentiated cells of peripheral blood
hematopoiesis
219
post natal sites of hematopoiesis
1. bone marrow 2. liver 3. spleen
220
prenatal sites of hematopoiesis
1. yolk sac 2. lymph nodes 3. bone marrow 4. liver 5. spleen
221
function of the lymphatic system
to protect the body against pathogenic organisms and their products and to help in the removal and disposal of cells undergoing natural or induced degenerations
222
list the primary organs of the lymphatic system
1. bone marrow 2. thymus 3. (BIRDS ONLY) cloacal bursa
223
primary lymphatic organs function
generate lymphocytes from progenitor cells
224
sites of lymphocyte activation and differentiation in context of an immune response
secondary lymphatic organs 1. lymph nodes 2. spleen 3. mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
225
T/F | Primary lymphatic organs are a site of antigen presentation
FALSE THEY ARE NOT
226
where T and B cells originate and establish their features
primary lymphatic organs
227
source of pluripotent stem cells (T and B)
bone marrow | B mature in bone marrow and T go to the thymus
228
functionally equivalent to mammalian bone marrow for B cell differentiation
bursa of fabricus / cloacal bursa | contains a large number of lymphoid cells and some macrophages
229
disappears with maturity, but it originally located in the mediastinum cranial to the heart
thymus | made of lobules...capsulated
230
thymic cortex
stains darker than the medulla due to its high numbers of lymphocytes it is an area of positive selection... Tingible body macrophage to eat dead T cells
231
thymic medulla
has thymic corpuscles -- large central calcified degenerative cells surrounded by circle of concentric keratinized cells Negative selection -- auto reactive engulfs bad lymphocytes
232
gradual depletion of lymphocytes replaced by _____ after sexual maturity
adipocytes
233
filters antigen from lymph before returning it to the blood stream
lymph nodes
234
only lymphatic organ with both efferent and afferent lymph vessels and sinuses containing lymph
lymph nodes
235
filters blood, mounts immune responses against blood borne antigens and stores RBC/platelets
spleen
236
spleen white pulp
central arterioles peripheral lymphoid sheaths follicles B and T cells in parenchymas
237
spleen red pulp
sinusoids and RBC storage | parenchyma and venous sinuses
238
aggregated lymphatic nodule in the phaynx
tonsils
239
axosomatic synapse
touches cell body
240
axodendritic synapse
touches on dendrite
241
axoaxonic synapse
synapse on the axon hillock (rare)
242
supporting cells within the brain that outnumber neurons 50:1
neuroglia
243
can replicate and fill holes in brain necrosis
astrocytes
244
CNS counterpart of fibroblasts
astrocyte
245
Function to maintain extracellular matrix ion content, transport nutrients, MHC II antigen presentation, and are part of the blood brain barrier
astrocytes
246
develop and maintain myelin in CNS
oligodendrocytes
247
can be destroyed by viruses and toxins, resulting in primary demyelination
oligodendrocytes
248
resident macrophages of the CNS that are derived from blood borne monocytes
microglia
249
Name of microglia when they are activated during necrosis or inflammation
GITTER CELLs
250
Name of microglia when they are phagocytic
myelophages
251
meosdermal in origin and have dendrites and a small elongated nucleus
microglia
252
ciliated cuboidal cells lining neural canal, 3rd and 4th ventricles, and the choroid plexus (CNS Cavities)
ependymal cells
253
form the cerebrospinal fluid
ependymal cells
254
synthesizes myelin in the CNS
oligodendrocytes -- connect to multiple internodes
255
synthesizes myelin in the PNS
Schwann Cells -- only connects to one internode
256
reflects level of mobility at birth
myelin
257
responsible for conduction and speed of impulses
myelin
258
T/F | Myelin formation continues postnatally
true
259
hypomyelination
not enough myelin
260
dysmyelination
abnormal development
261
collection of sensitive neurons / the memory area of the brain close to ventricle
hippocampal
262
Contains a lot of glutamate receptors and is sensitive to hypoxia, hyperglycemia, and seizures
hippocampal
263
coordination of body movements
cerebellum
264
only nerve fibers leaving the cerebellum
efferent axons
265
Feline cerebellar hypoplasia
in-utero infection by feline panleukopenia virus that causes damage to the granular stem cells
266
main area of CSF, where the spinal taps go
subarachnoid space
267
membranes covering brain and spinal cord
meninges
268
outermost layer of the meninges that is thick and stuck to the skull
DURA matter --> pachymenix
269
meninges layer attached to dura matter
arachnoid matter
270
meninges layer that is highly vascular and adherent to brain and spinal cord
pia matter
271
arachnoid + pia matter = ??
leptomeninx
272
how many times a day is CSF formed and renewed
3x a day | MUST be drained away and replaced at a constant rate
273
cluster of arborizing blood vessels covered by a thin connective tissue and ependymal cells
choroid plexus
274
site of CSF production
choroid plexus
275
situated between inner and outer longitudinal layers of tunica muscularis
myenteric plexus
276
helps control peristaltic movement of the gastrointestinal tractcircular
myenteric plexus
277
ear wax
cerumen
278
glands located within the skin of the external acoustic canal
ceruminous glands -- apocrine
279
junction between the external and middle ear
tympanic membrane
280
tympanic membrane epithelium
on outside is stratified squamous -- tougher on inside simple squamous
281
bone inside tympanic membrane
malleous
282
T/F | tympanic membrane is poorly vascularize connective tissue with a good nerve supply
TRUE
283
connect the tympanic membrane to the membrane of the vestibular window of the ear
auditory ossicles
284
auditory tube that goes from oral cavity to middle ear
eustachian
285
ventral expansion of eustachian tube in horses
guttural pouch
286
contains perilymph
bony labyrinth of inner ear
287
contains endolymph
membranous labyrinth of inner ear
288
determines pitch
resonance of basilar membrane
289
produces endolymph in the cochlear duct
stria vascularis
290
membrane that is vibrated by the sound wave energy
techtorial
291
responsible for position of head/linear movement
1. macula utricle | 2. macula saccule
292
hearing organ
organ of corti
293
composition of organ of corti
1. hair cells with stereocilia 2. phalangeal support cells 3. pillar cells -- moved in vibrations and displace hair cells in the techtorial membrane
294
3 things with neuroepithelial cells
1. macula utricle 2. macula saccule 3. crista ampullas
295
sensitive to angular acceleration and decceleration
crista ampullas
296
winds around the modiolus -- a bony core contianing spiral ganglion of cranial nerves 8 and blood vessels
cochlea
297
2 parts of cochlea that are outside of the cochlear duct and have perilymph
1. scala vestibuli | 2. scala tympani
298
involved with gravitational movement of linear acceleration of endolymph
utricle and saccule
299
bends the stereocilia of the perpendicular maculas and sends the impulse to the brain in utricle and saccule
otolith
300
gel in ear for sensitive movement
sertoconial membrane
301
gelatinous mass, sensory hair cells project into the ________ which bends the hairs and sends the impulse to the brain for crista ampullas
cupula
302
canals at right angles to each other that can detect angular accelerations
crista ampulla -- semicircular ducts
303
semicircular ducts contain _________
endolymph
304
what nerves innervate the tympanic membrane
5, 9, 10
305
what structures does the bony labyrinth contain
vestibule semicircular canals cochlea
306
communicates between middle ear and nasopharynx for air pressure equalization
auditory tube
307
cartilage type within the pinna
elastic
308
function of phalangeal cells
support the organ of corti
309
fluid when thoracic duct is ruptured
chyle
310
T/F | inhibitory synaptic vesicles contain acetylcholine
TRUE
311
a motor endplate is stimulated by which neurotransmitter
acetylcholine
312
elevations in the cerebrum
gyri
313
the molecular layer, ganglionic layer, and granular layer are part of the ___________
grey matter in the cerebellum
314
forms scar tissue in brain
astocytes
315
CNS cells responsible for antigen presentations
astrocytes and microglial
316
produce immulnoglobulins
B - cells
317
sperm storage
tail of epididymis
318
are the testes and ovaries primary or secondary endocrine organs
secondary
319
Which layer of the uterus degenerates and is shed after pregnancy or estrus?
functional zone of the endometrium
320
glycoprotein layer located at the interphase between the oocyte and granulosa cells
zona pellucida
321
large, pale staining, spindle shaped cells that have the morphology of steroid producing cells
theca cells
322
acquire receptors for FSH and are important in follicular development
granulosa cells