MICRO exam 3 Flashcards
4 functions of the male reproductive tract
- produce male sex cells
- produce testosterone
- get male gametes into female organs
- PMDH and AMH in embryo and inhibin hormone in adults
site of spermatogenesis and production of sex hormone
testis
In testis the parenchyma is composed of __________ with sertoli cells
seminiferous tubules
In testis the interstitium has _____ cells that secrete _____
LEYDIG CELLS
Testosterone
What tunics surround the testis
2 tunicae vaginalis and 1 tunica albuginae
tunic in direct communication with the abdominal cavity
vaginalis
component of tunica vaginalis that blends with the connective tissue of the scrotum
parietal
part of the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testis and epididymas
visceral
type of cells that line the components of the tunica vaginalis in the testis
mesothelial
“white tunic”
albuginea
capsule of dense connective tissue composed of collagen fibers and a few elastic fibers and myofibroblasts
albuginea
continuous with the connective tissue trabeculae named septule testis that separates the seminiferous tubules
albuginea
60-80 cm in length
seminiferous tubules
type of cells between the seminiferous tubules
leydig cells
highly convoluted tortuous loops
seminiferous tubules
epithelium that lines seminiferous tubules
spermatogenic epithelium
in lumen of seminiferous tubules and are IMMOTILE
spermatozoa
located outside the basement membrane of seminiferous tubules. Their function is to move spermatozoa out of the tubules
myoid cells
composed of intratubular neoplastic cells with characteristics of seminiferous tubules, compressing adjacent tubules
seminoma
uncontrolled replication tumor of sperm cells `
seminoma
T/F
Sertoli cells are in contact with each other
TRUE
characterized by tight junctions that divide the seminiferous epithelium into a basal and adluminal compartments
sertoli cells
what resides in the basal compartment of sertoli cells
spermatogonia
T/F
adluminal compartment isolates the spermatogonia from blood
true
blood testis barrier
in the sertoli cells, it protects the spermatids from the immune system via tight junctions
tall cells that extend from the basement membrane to the tubule lumen
sertoli cells
support, protect, and nourish spermatogenic cells
sertoli cells
what process influences germ cell differentiation
Sertoli cells have FSH receptors resulting in Androgen Binding Proteins (ABP) which binds androgens
hormone that prevents mullerian duct from forming
anti-mullerian hormone
secreted from the sertoli cells
hormone released from the sertoli cells to suppress FSH
inhibin
what hormone controls leydig cells
interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH) = LH
responsible from secondary male sex characteristics and libido
testosterone
system between testicular artery and vein
Countercurrent Heat Exchange
epithelium of rete testis
simple squamous to cuboidal
empties into efferent ductules which lead to the epididymal ducts
rete testis and epididymas
seminiferous tubules empty into
rete testis
one long coiled tubule
epididymal duct
site of sperm storage
epididymal tail
epididymal duct epithelium
lined by pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
main functions of epididymal duct
- 90% fluid resorption
2. secretion of glycerophosphocholines
characterized by prominent musularis = peristaltic contractions that proper the spermatozoa
vas deferens
terminal portion is the ejaculatory duct
vas deferens – may contain sperm here after castration
in ruminants, near the junction with the urethra, the ductus deferens forms a male accessory gland called ______
ampulla
all male accessory glands are ________ and are lined with _______ epithelium
- tubuloalveolar
2. simple or pseudostratified
gland that produces fructose as a source of energy for the sperm
vesicular gland
gland not present in the carnivores
vesicular gland
multilobulated gland that surrounds the prostatic urethra
prostate gland
enlarged prostate
prostatic hyperplasia
what surrounds the lobules of the prostate gland
smooth muscle
T/F
prostate glands are branched
true
name of the prostatic concretions seem in the lumen of the prostate gland that increase with age
corpora amylacae
bulbourethral gland epithelium
tall simple cuboidal / columnar
gland that has a mucous secretion that acts as a lubricant in the urethra
bulbourethral gland
where do bulbourethral glands empty
into pelvic urethra
consists of primarily erectile tissue and the urethra
penis
paired masses of erectile tissue
corpora cavernosa
irregular vascular spaces lined with endothelium
penis
single masses of erectile tissue surrounds the urethra delicately
corpus spongiosum
horse dog and primate penis
musculo-cavernosum
bull ram and boar penis
fibroelastic
3 portions of male urethra
- prostatic
- pelvic
- penile
most of the length of the urethra is what type of epithelium
Transitional
functions of ovaries
- produce female gametes
2. produce sex hormones
female repro system exocrine function
produce female gametes
female repro system endocrine function
produce sex hormones
part of ovary that is a broad peripheral zone containing follicles in various stages of development
Cortex
part of ovary containing connective tissue, nerves, blood and lymph vessels
medulla
Mare ovary differences
in a mature mare, the cortical tissue remains on the surface only in the ovulation fossa
ovary cortex epithelium
cuboidal
ovary cortex, layer beneath the epithelium
tunica albuginea – connective tissue layer
continuous process throughout the reproductive life whereby follicles undergo maturation during each cycle
folliculogenesis
growth and maturation of follicles is dependent on _____ from the ______
FSH from the adenohypophysis
important for estrogen synthesis and ovulation
LH
structure containing an oocyte surrounded by specialized epithelial cells
ovarian follicle
primary oocyte enclosed by flat simple squamous follicular cells on basal lamina and are retained in a resting phase in fetal ovary
primordial follicle
primary oocyte enclosed by simple cuboidal epithelium and the oocyte is larger than a primordial
primary follicle
primary oocyte enclosed by follicular cells that proliferate in mitosis
secondary follicle
larger follicle with an antrum filled with liquor folliculi between granulosa cells – as it gets larger the oocyte is surrounded by follicular cells called the corona radiata and it sits on aggregate granulosa cells called the cumulus oophorus
tertiary follicle
graafian follicle – the oocyte detaches from cumulus oophorus and floats in the follicular fluid
mature follicle – also may aquire LH receptors here for the corpus luteum development
majority of follicles in any stage degenerate
atresia
after ovulation blood flows into the antrum and the ruptured follicle becomes the ______
corpus hemorrhagicum
capillaries from the stroma invade the collapsed follicle and it becomes the ______
corpus luteum
involution of the corpus luteum –> fibrous scar tissue forms
corpus albicans
the process by which the granulosa and theca cells transform into luteal cells
luteinization
in response to LH and FSH the theca lutein cells produce this
progesterone
muscular tube derived from mullerian ducts
oviducts
yellow pigment in luteal cells of carnivores, mares, and cows
lutein
what animals dont have pigment in the luteal cells
sows ewes and goats
transports zygote to the uterus for implantation
oviduct
site where nutrients and trophic factors via placental attachment sites
uterus
superficial layer of endometrium that degenerates after pregnancy or estrus
functional
layer that remains after pregnancy or estrus in endometrium
basal layer
functions as a seal to prevent entry to cranial vagina
cervix
THE GATEKEEPER
cervix
ectocervix epithelium
lined by stratified squamous
endocervix epithelium
simple columnar with mucous secreting cells
does the vagina have a muscularis mucosae
no srry
fibro-muscular tube with 3 layers
vagina
vagina epithelium
mostly straified squamous and patches of columnar or mucous secreting cells
phase of the cycle with all cell types including erythrocytes and neutrophils
proestrus
in late proestrus – there are low neutrophils and the intermediate and superficial cells will dominate
phase where superficial and keratinized cells are greater than 90% of the cells, many are anucleated, there are no neutrophils and low numbers of erythrocytes
estrus
phase where superficial cells decrease abruptly and most of the cells are intermediate and parabasal
diestrus
parabasal and intermediate cells predominate.. there may be neutrophils and bacteria present in small numbers
anestrus
the ductless gland system
endocrine
“endo”
secretes internally
endocrine system major functions (4)
- growth and development
- internal environment
- energy production, storage, and utilization
- reproduction
_______ typically produce slow, sustained responses in the endocrine organs
hormones
portion of the brain that links the nervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland/hypophysis
hypothalamus
hypothalamic nuclei pathway:
production of releasing hormones released into “portal system” to the target cells in the _______
adenohypophysis
hypothalamic nuclei pathway:
hormones axonally transported and stored in the ______, then released into blood to target distant sites
neurohypophysis
2 hormones from the neurohypophysis
antidiuretic hormone
oxytocin
adenohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary
anterior
neurohypophysis is equivalent to _____ pituitary
posterior
the nervous lobe
eurohypophysis
3 portions of the eurohypophysis
- pars nervosa
- infundibular stalk
- eminentia mediana
axons of the neurohypophisis comprise what 2 things
- infundibulum
2. pars nervosa
swellings along the neurohypohysis axons
herring bodies – where hormones are accumulated
storage site for oxytocin and ADH
herring bodies
where do axons terminate in the pars nervosa
terminate on the vessels
stimulates the mammary gland and milk letdown
oxytocin
the glandular lobe
adenohypophysis
3 portions of the adenohypophysis
- pars distalis
- pars intermedia
- pars tuberalis
requires a releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
adenohypophysis
bulk of the adenohypophysis and secretes the majority of the hormones
pars distalis
source of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
pars intermedia
major function is the regulate daily rhythms of bodily activity
epiphysis
secretory cells of the epiphysis
pinealocytes
produce the hormone melatonin
pinealocytes
respond the the stimuli detected in the retina… darkness stimulates the secretion of melatonin (circadian rhythm)
pinealocytes
hormone important in seasonal reproduction
melatonin
lining cells of the thyroid gland produce ____
thyroglobulin
follicle lumen of thyroid gland
colloid
thyroid gland follicles lining cells convert thyroglobulin to _____
active T3/T4 thyroxine
thyroid gland clear cells
parafollicular cells
secrete calcitonin in response to high calcium
parafollicular cells
Cells that target the bone and the kidneys to lower serum calcium
parafollicular cells
cells that decrease osteoclast activity
parafollicular cells
calcitonin origin
neural crest
gland composed of tightly packed chief cells
parathyroid gland
secretes parathormone into capillaries
parathyroid gland
Function of parathormone
increases Ca – increases renal and intestinal calcium resorption and stimulates the osteoclasts for more bone resorption
part of adrenal gland from mesoderm that secretes corticosteroids
cortex
part of adrenal gland from the neural crest and secretes catecholamines
medulla
most outer layer of the adrenal gland cortex
zona glomerulosa
layer of the adrenal gland cortex that secretes aldosterone
zona glomerulosa
layer of the adrenal gland cortex that has spongiocytes and is long cords of cells
zona fasciculata
what does the zona fasciculata of the cortex secrete
cortisol
glucocorticoids
corticosterone
zone of cortex made of androgen secreting cells and contains high vascularity
zona reticularis
T/F
The adrena medulla has distinct vacuoles
false – no distinct vacuoles
epithelium of adrena medulla
columnar to cuboidal cells
Type of cells that make up the adrenal medulla
Chromaffin cells
secretions of the adrenal medulla
epinephrine and norepinephrine (stored in secretory granules)
part of adrenal gland stimulated by low blood pressure/RAAS and the release of angiotensin II (>ACTH)
zona glomerulosa of the cortex
when stimulated, what is the effect of the zona glomerulosa
Na/K ATPase – increased blood volume
Zone stimulated by stress perceived by the hypothalamus —> ACTH
zona fasciculata
stimulated by ATCH to produce androgens
zona reticularis
Stimulated by fear/stress or sympathetic/parasympathetic
medulla
effect of a stimulated zona fasciculata
glucocorticoids are produced to hit target cells and also a neg. feedback loop for ACTH production
has an immediate fight or flight response when stimulated
medulla
endocrine pancreas islets of langerhaan and their secretions
alpha - glucagon/cck
beta - insulin, IAPP
delta - somatostatin
other - gastrin
majority of cells in the islets of langerhaan
beta
how to tell apart the cells of islets of langerhaan
antibody based staining
pyloric region of the stomach secretes _____
gastrin
in small intestine, enteroendocrine cells secrete what hormones and why
cholecytokinin (CCK) for gall bladder contraction
ALSO secretin and gastrin inhibitory polypeptide
2 hormones produced by the kidneys
renin and erythropoietin
produced by juxtaglomerular cells and is involved in blood pressure control
renin
controls RBC production and is a cytokine for RBC precursors
erythropoietin
in the heart, ______ cells secrete _______ peptide
atrial myocardial cells secrete atrial natriuretic peptide
promotes Na+ and water loss / decreases blood pressure
ANP
target of ANP
distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys
T/F
The pineal gland is a secondary endocrine organ
FALSE – it is a primary one
T/F
the thymus is a secondary endocrine organ
true
T/F
the heart is a secondary endocrine organ
TRUE
5-10% of total body weight
blood
PLASMA vs SERUM
plasma – has all the proteins / found in vasculature
serum – lacks coagulation proteins
most numerous formed element in blood (millions)
erythrocytes
function of erythrocytes
- carry O2 to tissues and CO2 to lungs
2. involved in acid base homeostatis / buffering
biconcave disc with a flexible membrane and high surface to volume ratio
erythrocytes
are blood cells nucleated in all species
no, they are only nucleated in exotics such as birds
general life span of erythrocytes
a couple months
metarubicytes
nucleated RBC in mammals – ABNORMAL
regenerative anemia or bone marrow damage
RBC that are “one stage back” on development
polychromatophils
least numerous formed element in blood
leukocytes (thousands) WBC
2 major categories of leukocytes
- myeloid – neutrophils/granulocytes/monocytes/basophiles/eosinophils
- lymphoid – lymphocytes
most numerous WBC
neutrophils
neutrophil function
in innate immunity – phagocytic and killing
have granules that contain antibacterial substances
heterophils
neutrophil variation in rabbits/birds/reptiles
have bright red granules
differentiate into macrophages
monocytes
function in iron storage and recycling
monocytes
function in phagocytosis and antigen presentation to T-lymophocytes
monocytes
the Mononuclear Phagocytic System (MPS) is comprised of ……
- circulating monocytes
2. tissue macrophages
modulate delayed and immediate type hypersensitivity reactions
eosinophils
defense against helminths
eosinophils
attracted by histamine
eosinophils
have arginine rich anti-bacterial and anti-parasite proteins
eosinophils
least numerous WBC in blood
basophils
an increase in concentration of basophils is what
often associated with parasitic infestations and allergic reactions (heartworm disease)
contain histamine basophilic granules
basophils
Rare in felines
basophils
2nd most numerous cell population in blood
lymphocytes (20-40% of WBC)
found in blood, lymphatic circulation, and lymphatic tissues
lymphocytes
major players in humoral and cell mediated immune responses
lymphocytes
plasma cells
most differentiated B cells in tissue, lymphocyte subpopulation and not normally in blood smears
T/F
platelets are cells!
FALSE – they are not cells they are cytoplasmic fragments
second most numerous formed element in blood
platelets
another name for platelets
thrombocytes
primarily function in hemostasis (clots) but also have a role in the primary immune response
platelets
In cats, sometimes the active platelets do this
spread pseudopodia
are platelets ever nucleated?
yes in avian/reptile/amphibians
mesenchymal derived tissue
bone marrow
red marrow
produces all the blood cells and stores iron
LARGE amounts in young
fatty tissue that replaces the red marrow and is the result of aging
yellow marrow
connective tissue network made of mesenchymal cells, reticular cells and fibers, and cells occupying the space between bone marrow
stroma
large lumen and discontinuous epithelial cells
sinusoids
T/F
bone marrow is a highly cellular tissue
true
erythrocytic lineage
metarubicyte –> polychromatophile –> RBC
platelet lineage
megakaryoblast –> promegakaryocyte –> megakaryocyte –> platelet
process where specialized cellular precursors develop into highly differentiated cells of peripheral blood
hematopoiesis
post natal sites of hematopoiesis
- bone marrow
- liver
- spleen
prenatal sites of hematopoiesis
- yolk sac
- lymph nodes
- bone marrow
- liver
- spleen
function of the lymphatic system
to protect the body against pathogenic organisms and their products and to help in the removal and disposal of cells undergoing natural or induced degenerations
list the primary organs of the lymphatic system
- bone marrow
- thymus
- (BIRDS ONLY) cloacal bursa
primary lymphatic organs function
generate lymphocytes from progenitor cells
sites of lymphocyte activation and differentiation in context of an immune response
secondary lymphatic organs
- lymph nodes
- spleen
- mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
T/F
Primary lymphatic organs are a site of antigen presentation
FALSE THEY ARE NOT
where T and B cells originate and establish their features
primary lymphatic organs
source of pluripotent stem cells (T and B)
bone marrow
B mature in bone marrow and T go to the thymus
functionally equivalent to mammalian bone marrow for B cell differentiation
bursa of fabricus / cloacal bursa
contains a large number of lymphoid cells and some macrophages
disappears with maturity, but it originally located in the mediastinum cranial to the heart
thymus
made of lobules…capsulated
thymic cortex
stains darker than the medulla due to its high numbers of lymphocytes
it is an area of positive selection… Tingible body macrophage to eat dead T cells
thymic medulla
has thymic corpuscles – large central calcified degenerative cells surrounded by circle of concentric keratinized cells
Negative selection – auto reactive engulfs bad lymphocytes
gradual depletion of lymphocytes replaced by _____ after sexual maturity
adipocytes
filters antigen from lymph before returning it to the blood stream
lymph nodes
only lymphatic organ with both efferent and afferent lymph vessels and sinuses containing lymph
lymph nodes
filters blood, mounts immune responses against blood borne antigens and stores RBC/platelets
spleen
spleen white pulp
central arterioles
peripheral lymphoid sheaths
follicles
B and T cells in parenchymas
spleen red pulp
sinusoids and RBC storage
parenchyma and venous sinuses
aggregated lymphatic nodule in the phaynx
tonsils
axosomatic synapse
touches cell body
axodendritic synapse
touches on dendrite
axoaxonic synapse
synapse on the axon hillock (rare)
supporting cells within the brain that outnumber neurons 50:1
neuroglia
can replicate and fill holes in brain necrosis
astrocytes
CNS counterpart of fibroblasts
astrocyte
Function to maintain extracellular matrix ion content, transport nutrients, MHC II antigen presentation, and are part of the blood brain barrier
astrocytes
develop and maintain myelin in CNS
oligodendrocytes
can be destroyed by viruses and toxins, resulting in primary demyelination
oligodendrocytes
resident macrophages of the CNS that are derived from blood borne monocytes
microglia
Name of microglia when they are activated during necrosis or inflammation
GITTER CELLs
Name of microglia when they are phagocytic
myelophages
meosdermal in origin and have dendrites and a small elongated nucleus
microglia
ciliated cuboidal cells lining neural canal, 3rd and 4th ventricles, and the choroid plexus (CNS Cavities)
ependymal cells
form the cerebrospinal fluid
ependymal cells
synthesizes myelin in the CNS
oligodendrocytes – connect to multiple internodes
synthesizes myelin in the PNS
Schwann Cells – only connects to one internode
reflects level of mobility at birth
myelin
responsible for conduction and speed of impulses
myelin
T/F
Myelin formation continues postnatally
true
hypomyelination
not enough myelin
dysmyelination
abnormal development
collection of sensitive neurons / the memory area of the brain close to ventricle
hippocampal
Contains a lot of glutamate receptors and is sensitive to hypoxia, hyperglycemia, and seizures
hippocampal
coordination of body movements
cerebellum
only nerve fibers leaving the cerebellum
efferent axons
Feline cerebellar hypoplasia
in-utero infection by feline panleukopenia virus that causes damage to the granular stem cells
main area of CSF, where the spinal taps go
subarachnoid space
membranes covering brain and spinal cord
meninges
outermost layer of the meninges that is thick and stuck to the skull
DURA matter –> pachymenix
meninges layer attached to dura matter
arachnoid matter
meninges layer that is highly vascular and adherent to brain and spinal cord
pia matter
arachnoid + pia matter = ??
leptomeninx
how many times a day is CSF formed and renewed
3x a day
MUST be drained away and replaced at a constant rate
cluster of arborizing blood vessels covered by a thin connective tissue and ependymal cells
choroid plexus
site of CSF production
choroid plexus
situated between inner and outer longitudinal layers of tunica muscularis
myenteric plexus
helps control peristaltic movement of the gastrointestinal tractcircular
myenteric plexus
ear wax
cerumen
glands located within the skin of the external acoustic canal
ceruminous glands – apocrine
junction between the external and middle ear
tympanic membrane
tympanic membrane epithelium
on outside is stratified squamous – tougher
on inside simple squamous
bone inside tympanic membrane
malleous
T/F
tympanic membrane is poorly vascularize connective tissue with a good nerve supply
TRUE
connect the tympanic membrane to the membrane of the vestibular window of the ear
auditory ossicles
auditory tube that goes from oral cavity to middle ear
eustachian
ventral expansion of eustachian tube in horses
guttural pouch
contains perilymph
bony labyrinth of inner ear
contains endolymph
membranous labyrinth of inner ear
determines pitch
resonance of basilar membrane
produces endolymph in the cochlear duct
stria vascularis
membrane that is vibrated by the sound wave energy
techtorial
responsible for position of head/linear movement
- macula utricle
2. macula saccule
hearing organ
organ of corti
composition of organ of corti
- hair cells with stereocilia
- phalangeal support cells
- pillar cells – moved in vibrations and displace hair cells in the techtorial membrane
3 things with neuroepithelial cells
- macula utricle
- macula saccule
- crista ampullas
sensitive to angular acceleration and decceleration
crista ampullas
winds around the modiolus – a bony core contianing spiral ganglion of cranial nerves 8 and blood vessels
cochlea
2 parts of cochlea that are outside of the cochlear duct and have perilymph
- scala vestibuli
2. scala tympani
involved with gravitational movement of linear acceleration of endolymph
utricle and saccule
bends the stereocilia of the perpendicular maculas and sends the impulse to the brain in utricle and saccule
otolith
gel in ear for sensitive movement
sertoconial membrane
gelatinous mass, sensory hair cells project into the ________ which bends the hairs and sends the impulse to the brain for crista ampullas
cupula
canals at right angles to each other that can detect angular accelerations
crista ampulla – semicircular ducts
semicircular ducts contain _________
endolymph
what nerves innervate the tympanic membrane
5, 9, 10
what structures does the bony labyrinth contain
vestibule
semicircular canals
cochlea
communicates between middle ear and nasopharynx for air pressure equalization
auditory tube
cartilage type within the pinna
elastic
function of phalangeal cells
support the organ of corti
fluid when thoracic duct is ruptured
chyle
T/F
inhibitory synaptic vesicles contain acetylcholine
TRUE
a motor endplate is stimulated by which neurotransmitter
acetylcholine
elevations in the cerebrum
gyri
the molecular layer, ganglionic layer, and granular layer are part of the ___________
grey matter in the cerebellum
forms scar tissue in brain
astocytes
CNS cells responsible for antigen presentations
astrocytes and microglial
produce immulnoglobulins
B - cells
sperm storage
tail of epididymis
are the testes and ovaries primary or secondary endocrine organs
secondary
Which layer of the uterus degenerates and is shed after pregnancy or estrus?
functional zone of the endometrium
glycoprotein layer located at the interphase between the oocyte and granulosa cells
zona pellucida
large, pale staining, spindle shaped cells that have the morphology of steroid producing cells
theca cells
acquire receptors for FSH and are important in follicular development
granulosa cells
