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PMP > Section 14-20 (potatoes) > Flashcards

Section 14-20 (potatoes) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a colocation (under team development)?

A

tight matrix, means you have a project war room or head quarters

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2
Q

What is a Zero Sum Reward?

A

only one person who can win…employee of the month or yard of the month where one person wins and everyone gets angry

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3
Q

Team Building Activities….

A
  • Training the Project Team
  • Team Involvement during the planning processes
  • Defining rules for handling team disagreements
  • offsite activities
  • quick team-involvment activities (icebreakers)
  • Activities to improve interpeersonal skills and form relationships
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4
Q

Team Building Activities….

A
  • Training the Project Team
  • Team Involvement during the planning processes
  • Defining rules for handling team disagreements
  • offsite activities
  • quick team-involvement activities (icebreakers)
  • Activities to improve interpersonal skills and form relationships
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5
Q

What are the 5 phases to team development?

A

1) Forming - Team comes together
2) Storming - People position…you are either leader or follower
3) Norming - people accept roles, start to rely on each other to complete
4) Performing - fine fluid machine; working already
5) Adjourning - team disbands

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6
Q

What are examples of General Management Skills?

A
  • Listening
  • Negotiating
  • Problem Solving
  • Influencing
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7
Q

What are benefits for rewarding the project team?

A

Promote good performance and behavior
- formal; achievable approach
- Reward good work….stay true to the mission….don’t reward non-quality.

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8
Q

What is an example of a zero sum reward?

A

Poker - only one person can win while everyone else loses

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9
Q

What is a 360 degree feedback approach?

A

Offers appraisal from more than just the project manager - other team members, other managers, subordinates offer their input/ critique.

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10
Q

What are Goals for Assessments?

A
  • Improvements in skills to perform assignments more effectively
  • Improvements in competencies that help team members perform
  • Reduced Staff turnover rate
  • Increased team cohesiveness
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11
Q

What are Organizational process assets that can help manage the project team?

A
  • Certificates of appreciation
  • Newsletters
  • Project Websites
  • Bonus structures
  • Corporate Apparel
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12
Q

How would you describe conflict management?

A
  • Conflict is Natural
  • Team issue
  • Openness resolves conflict ** COMMUNICATION IS KEY THIS IS ON EXAM**
  • Focus on issues, not personalities
  • Focus on present, not past
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13
Q

Conflict Management: Collaborative/Problem solving

A

preferred approach - open and friendly

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14
Q

Conflict Management: Forcing/Directing

A

your boss says they are the boss and forces the issue to be resolved. not necessarily desireable

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15
Q

Conflict Management: Compromising/ Reconcile

A

Lose- Lose/ neither party got 100% what they wanted

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16
Q

Conflict Management: Withdrawing/ Avoiding

A

Stop talking about an issue/ yield - lose

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17
Q

Conflict Management: Smoothing/ Accommodating

A

Downplay the issue…..what I try to do

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18
Q

what is active listening?

A

involved in conversation and repeat/ paraphrase to show you are in the conversation

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19
Q

what is effective listening?

A

really understand the motivation of the question - the underlying reason for the topic.

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20
Q

PM Management Style - Autocratic?

A

Auto - self/ cratic - power. The project manager makes all decisions

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21
Q

PM Management Style - Democratic?

A

The project team is involved with the deicsions

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22
Q

PM Management Style - Laissez Faire?

A

The project manager allows the team to lead and make decisions

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23
Q

PM Management Style - Exceptional?

A

The project manager manages by exception (reactive) always someones turn to be mad

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24
Q

What are the 5 project manager powers?

A

1) Expert - Experienced - You’ve been a PM so long you are considered an expert PM (thats what I am at Pharmerica/ Omnicare)
2) Reward - Incentive - Team believes you have the power to reward them for the work
3) Formal - Positional - no relationship
4) Coercive - threatened - team feels like you can punish them
5) Referent - references - ceo tells you how to do something

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25
Q

What are the 6 steps for Resource Management Problem Solving?

A

1) Identify the Problem - specify the problem
2) Define the problem - break into manageable problems
3) Investigate - gather data
4) Analyze data - root cause analysis
5) Solve - choose a solution from available ones
6) Check the solution - has problem been fixed?

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26
Q

What is a resource requirement? Provide an example as well.

A

Resource requirements are defined by the Project manager to establish the resources needed to execute the work on the project.

Example: Your project is a manufacturing project and it requires an electrician at month 8. It isn’t a constraint because you are telling the contractor to do it at month 8; the contractor isn’t telling you its at month 8.

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27
Q

What is a constraint?

A

Resource constraints might include a requirement to use a particular resource or that a resource must be available when certain project activities are happening.

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28
Q

Who/what has the authority in a weak matrix system?

A

A functional management will have the most power in your project within a weak matrix system.

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29
Q

What is a weak matrix system?

A

In a weak matrix structure, a project manager works like a project coordinator or project expeditor. A project coordinator has some say in the allocation of resources, while a project expeditor serves only as a point of communication between the customer and team.

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30
Q

What can you re-use when you have a new project that is similar to your last project?

A

When projects are similar in nature, the project manager can use the roles and responsibilities definitions of the historical project to guide the current project.

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31
Q

If your job role is changed (project manager to project coach) what needs to be clarified?

A

When project managers, or managers in general, are referred to by different terms, a job description is needed so that the project manager can successfully complete the required obligations.

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32
Q

What is a roles and responsibility matrix used for?

A

Management has requested that you create a chart depicting all the project resource needs and the associated activities.

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33
Q

What does the “x” mean in the theory of “X” and “Y”?

A

The X in the Theory of X and Y states that workers have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if possible. Micromanagement is a method with regard to X that helps to make certain workers complete their work.

Y is when team members work on their own accord.

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34
Q

When management is trying to find the weakest link….what are they using? and what is it?

A

When the looking for the weakest link in the project management chain, management is likely using the theory of constraints. The theory of constraints is a management system is limited by its weakest components, the constraint. Adapts the phrase “a chain is only as strong as its weakest link.”

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35
Q

What is halo effect? What is an example of halo effect?

A

one trait of a person is used to judge the whole person. elon invented tesla so he must be smart…I am tall so I must be good at basketball.

The perception that Beth would make a great project manager of an application development project solely because she has been an application developer is an example of the halo effect.

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36
Q

Tyler is a database administrator and developer whose work is always on time, accurate, and of quality. He also has a reputation of being a “good guy” and is well liked. Because of this, management has decided to move Tyler into the role of a project manager for a new database administration project. This is an example of what?

A

Halo Effect

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37
Q

Which problem-solving technique is the best for most project management situations?

A

Confronting….that just means being open and honest.

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38
Q

What is the difference between the four theories (Herzberg theory of motivation, X and Y theory, Ouchi’s theory of Z, or the Expectancy Theory)?

A

Herzberg theory of motivation describes the type of people and what excites them. (Hygiene vs Motivation factors)
X and Y theory - X needs Micro Management and Y need challenges (lazy vs suck ups)
Theory of Z means workers need to be involved in the management process
The Expectancy theory - effort vs performance vs reward

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39
Q

What does R.A.C.I Chart used for? What does it stand for?

A

Users vs Tasks….basically what tasks are onboard and who owns them.

diagram that identifies the key roles and responsibilities of users against major tasks within a project

Responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed.

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40
Q

What is Referrent Power?

A

That is when you are known - personal REFerral to become project manager.

This is referent power because the project team knows you, the project manager, personally.

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41
Q

What is an example of Coercive Power?

A

a project manager who will punish a teammember if they are late. this is essentially a formal power.

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42
Q

What is a Win - Win solution?

A

Collaborative Approach

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43
Q

What is a Win-Lose solution?

A

win-lose negotiation

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44
Q

What is a lose - lose solution?

A

Compromise Approach

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45
Q

What is a leave-lose solution?

A

Withdraw/avoid approach

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46
Q

When does “forcing” happen in a project management solution?

A

Forcing happens when the project manager makes a decision based on factors not relevant to the problem. Just because a team member has more seniority does not mean this individual is correct.

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47
Q

You are a project manager in a project-oriented organization. Your job as a project manager can be described best by which of the following?

A

Project managers are typically assigned to a project on a full-time basis in a project-oriented organization.

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48
Q

What can resource management pertain to?

A

People and Resources

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49
Q

What should you think about when developing a communication plan?

A
  • who needs the info?
  • when do we need it?
  • what method?
  • How do we secure it?
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50
Q

What is the Communications Channel Formula?

A

N(N-1)/2

if you had 10 people thats

10(9)/2
45 different channels

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51
Q

Breakdown the communication model steps:

A
  • sender (me)
  • encoder (outlook express)
  • medium (internet)
  • Decoder (her email)
  • Receiver (dania)
  • Noise (static…anything that interrupts)
  • barrier (blocks communication/ out of power/ different languages/ etc anything that stops it)
  • acknowledgement (receipt of message)
  • feedback/response (whether or not they agree with your message)
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52
Q

What is a Stakeholder Engagement Matrix?

A

Stakeholder engagement is the systematic identification, analysis, planning and implementation of actions designed to influence stakeholders. A stakeholder engagement strategy identifies the needs of key groups and the sponsor plays a vital role in ensuring those business needs are met.

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53
Q

What type of communication do virtual teams lose?

A

Virtual teams lose non-verbal communications. Face to face communication provides non-verbal communication which can be helpful. Always plan for face-to-face communications when possible!

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54
Q

In the project communication model, many elements must be present to allow communication to occur. One element, noise, can prevent the effectiveness of the communication message. Of the following, which one is an example of noise?

A

Noise is anything that interferes with the transmission and understanding of the message. Distance is an example of noise.

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55
Q

What does a communications management plan do?

A

details the requirements and expectations for communicating information among the project stakeholders.

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56
Q

If you can pull the information, lessons learned from previous similiar projects and historical information are ideal inputs to communication planning (just read)

A

Otherwise - identify all of the communication channels before you complete the needed communication management plan.

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57
Q

What is an example of project communication constraint?

A

The geographical locales of the project team.

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58
Q

What is “paralingual”?

A

Paralingual is a term used to describe the pitch and tone of one’s voice.

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59
Q

What is an “exception report”

A

An exception report is typically completed when variances exceed a given limit.

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60
Q

You are presenting your project performance to your key stakeholders. Several of the stakeholders receive phone calls during your presentation, and this is distracting from your message. This is an example of what?

A

Noise

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61
Q

READ: Project Meetings should have a set time limit. DO NOT allow project meetings to last as long as needed.

A

READ

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62
Q

What are the 3 basic elements needed for communication in project management?

A

Sender, Receiver, Message

NOT Verbal, nonverbal, action

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63
Q

Your project is slated to last three years and will include stakeholders from four countries. In this project, you’ll rely on teleconferencing and web collaboration software to reduce the travel costs throughout the project life cycle. Based on this information, which one of the following is a factor that may affect project communication?

A

The project duration is the only factor that may affect project communication. Project communication is always needed, but longer, larger projects will require more communications than shorter, smaller scoped projects.

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64
Q

More than 50% of a message is conveyed through _____________

A

nonverbal communications such as facial expressions, hand gestures and body language….read the room!

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65
Q

When does “lessons-learned” identification take place?

A

Throughout the project.

Lessons learned takes place throughout the project life cycle, not just at the end of the project or its phases.

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66
Q

Why should a project team complete lessons-learned documentation?

A

To help future project teams complete their projects more efficiently.

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67
Q

Negotiations work best in which type of an environment?

A

Mutual respect and cooperation.

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68
Q

What are the elements of performance reporting?

A

Scope
Schedule
Quality

The outcomes of earned value management contribute to the requirements and targets for performance reporitng.

LABOR ISSUES are not part of performance…those would be in the constraint log

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69
Q

How does variance analysis and trend analysis relate to performance reporting?

A

variance analysis is a tool used IN performance reporting, not an output/result of performance reporting.

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70
Q

What are the TWO outputs of performance reporting?

A

Change requests and performance reporting

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71
Q

What is “Transmitting”?

A

The process of sending communication from the project manager to the project team.

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72
Q

According to the communication model, the __________ happens when the the project manager communicates with the project team?

A

The Transfer of Knowledge occurs.

Communication happens when knowledge/information has been transferred from one person to another.

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73
Q

What are the TWO levels of risk?

A

Threats (negative risk) and Opportunities (positive risk)

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74
Q

Non-event based risks are what?

A

variability risks (fluctuations of productivity)
Ambiguity risks (uncertain future - impossible to predict such as new tech or new laws, complexity of hte project)

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75
Q

What is project resilience?

A

Awareness of unknowable-unknowns (risks that can only be identified after occurence)

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76
Q

What is an Emergent risk?

A

This requires project resilience.

Contigency - need reserve budgets.
need flexibile processes
need an empowered project team

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77
Q

What is “Plan Risk Management”?

A

Defines how risk management activities will occur
defines risk activities in relation to project importance

defines how the key stakeholders will:

  • identify risks
    -analyze risks
  • create risk responses
  • control risks
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78
Q

What are some parts of a risk management plan?

A
  • roles and responsibilities
  • methodology
  • risk categories
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79
Q

What is a risk threshold?

A

A risk threshold is basically an amount that if something happens, we will go with the mitigation route.

example: if there is a 7 percent error we will use a thicker more expensive plastic in production. The threshold is 7%

80
Q

What is another phrase for risk tolerance?

A

The utility function describes a person’s willingness to tolerate risk.

81
Q

A risk trigger is also known as ________

A

A warning sign!

82
Q

_________ should always occur whenever the scope is adjusted.

A

Risk planning

83
Q

What is a risk register?

A

A risk register documents all the outcomes of the other risk management processes (not just the negative or initial risks within a project.

84
Q

What is a pure risk?

A

A pure risk could threaten the safety of the individuals or the project (fire, theft, injury and offer(s) no chance of gain.

85
Q

A project risk is a(n) ___________ occurence that can affect the project for good or bad.

A

Uncertain occurrence - risks are not planned - they are left to chance. The accommodation to risk can be planned, but the event itself is not planned.

86
Q

When should risk identification happen?

A

throughout the project life cycle

87
Q

What is the best response for a risk?

A

Escalate!

success alert
Good job!
The best response for this positive risk event is to escalate the risk/opportunity. This risk is beyond the boundaries of the project as it is to generate an additional revenue stream for the organization, not the project.

88
Q

What is the Delphi Technique?

A

an anonymous poll allowing experts to submit their opinion freely without fear or backlash is an example of Delphi Technique.

89
Q

What is an example of qualitative ranking?

A

Risk rankings are an example of qualitative values of very high, high, medium, low, and very low.

90
Q

What is a probability and impact matrix?

A

A table of risks, their probability, and their impact equate to a risk score in a risk matrix.

91
Q

If you have a high risk leak in your pipe, you hiring the plumber to fix it is an example of what?

A

Transference of risk.

92
Q

What can a project manager use to determine whether it is better to make or buy a product?

A

A decision tree model can separate the pros and cons of buying versus building.

93
Q

What is a Monte Carlo simulation?

A

Monte Carlo simulations can reveal multiple scenarios and examine the risks and probability of impact.

94
Q

Some of the risk events have a high impact, while other risk events have a low probability. In this project, many risks have high-risk impact scores but an overall low-risk score. How is this possible?

A

A risk can have a very high impact on the project, but inversely have an extremely low probability score. For example, the possibility of a tornado wrecking the project’s construction site would have a high impact if it happened, but the probability of it happening is relatively low.

95
Q

What is the Procurement Management purchasing process?

A
  • Planning
  • acquiring the products
  • choosing a source
  • administering the contract
  • closing out the contract
96
Q

When you are a seller - you are a stakeholder to the ______

A

Buyer

97
Q

What is a sole source (in terms of procurement)?

A

There is only one seller who can give you what you need. a unique resource or skillset.

98
Q

what is a single source (in terms of procurement)?

A

There are lots of sellers but we really like this one particular so thats the one we use.

99
Q

what is oligopoly in terms of procurement?

A

essentially oil or air travel…when one raises their price the other sources do the same.

100
Q

What is a SOW or TOR mean?

A

Statement of work, terms of reference

these help define what we are buying and what standards we will fill.

101
Q

What are contract legalities?

A

fixed price (this is the price you will pay) or cost reimbursable (riskier could be higher or lower than anticipated) .

102
Q

what is a firm fixed-price contract (FFP)?

A

Most common contract
seller carries risk of cost overruns
buyers specifies whats to be purchased
changes to the scope

exactly what you are getting for the exact amount

103
Q

what is a fixed-price incentive fee contract?

A

a contract that gets 100k for each day you get it done early. up to - ceiling for getting done the soonest. the floor would be the cheapest it could be.

the risk would be if you rush then you have to redo things at no cost to the buyer.

104
Q

what is a fixed price with economic price adjustment contract (FP-EPA)

A

price of materials fluctuate…building a house the price of steel and wood would be adjusted.

105
Q

what is cost reimbursable?

A

cost plus a variable amount….almost like a used car salesman. basically its you making it up as you go.

106
Q

what is a cost plus fixed fee contract? (CPFF)

A

fixed fee of the initial estimated costs; fee is paid after completed work. you are paying for wood….if you want to pay for extra things like a bench…you add to the scope…then there will be an extra fee.

107
Q

what is a cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)?

A

fee based on performance goals
incentive sharing (often 80/20) if you hit these dates you get a mile stone
contract defines measurements

108
Q

what is a cost plus award fee contract (CPAF)

A

subjective by the buyer….dad’s job

109
Q

What is a Time and Materials Contract (T&M)?

A

Seller is paid an hourly fee
Seller is paid for materials
a do not exceed clause (no overtime, etc)
time limit for the contract

110
Q

Reasons to buy or build

A

could be less costly
could have in-house skills
could control the work
you control the IP
opportunity to learn new skills
available staff

111
Q

What is a BID?

A

From seller to the buyer. Price is the determining factor.

112
Q

What is a quotation?

A

from seller to buyer. Price is the determining factor.

113
Q

What is a proposal?

A

From seller to buyer. Other factors - such as skill sets, reptation, and ideas for soultion…may be be used in a decision-making process.

114
Q

What is invitation for bid?

A

from buyer to seller. requests the seller to provide a price.

115
Q

What is a request for quote (RFQ)?

A

from buyer to seller. requests the seller to provide the price.

116
Q

Request for proposal (RFP)

A

Give me some ideas, some estimates on what we should do.

117
Q

Request for Information (RFI)

A

provide some education/ insight

118
Q

What does a contract define?

A

what the project is, how you will do it, the cost of doing so and the payment terms.

119
Q

A seller may need ________ to pay for the project resources they are utilizing.

A

Cash Flow.

120
Q

What is Cash Flow?

A

Cash flow is cash coming in and out for the seller.

121
Q

What is the difference between “doing agile” and “being agile”?

A

Doing agile: agile practices, mechanics, not really embracing the mindset.

Being agile: agile mindset; tailorset principles

122
Q

Two strategies to fulfill agile values and principles:

A

1) Adopt a formal agile approach
2) implement changes to project practices

123
Q

Why use “agile” methdoology?

A

different types of projects use different approaches…building a house you know plan and materials. Agile is when you don’t know what to expect so are planning for the unplannable.

124
Q

A _____________ can be used as a risk mitigation tool?

A

A contract.

A contract can be used as a risk mitigation tool. Procurement of risky activities is known as transference—the risk does not disappear, but the responsibility for the risk is transferred to the vendor.

125
Q

A contract cannot include__________________

A

A contract cannot include provisions for illegal activities

126
Q

A contract must have what two things?

A

A contract must have an offer - and a consideration.

127
Q

What does a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) describe?

A

The WBS defines the specific contracted work, which must support the requirements of the project customer.

The WBS defines the details and requirements for acceptance of the project. This information also serves as valuable input to the process of determining what needs to be procured. The WBS defines what the end result of the project will be. In dealing with vendors to procure a portion of the project, the work to be procured must support the requirements of the project’s customer.

128
Q

What is the difference between an integrated change control vs a cost change control system?

A

Integrated change control is the process of reviewing and approving changes to a project.

Cost change control is a tool used to gauge expense changes within a project.

129
Q

All contracts in the United States are backed by ________________

A

All contracts in the United States are backed by U.S court systems.

130
Q

What type of contract is a Purchase Order?

A

A unilateral form of a contract is simply a purchase order. one way - you make purchase they supply it.

131
Q

You are a project manager for your organization and are progressing through the procurement management processes. Who should receive the procurement document package?

A

Each Seller that will participate in the bidding.

132
Q

What is “Privity”?

A

Privity is a confidential agreement between the buyer and the seller.

133
Q

A __________ contains the least amount of risk for a project.

A

A fixed-price contract contains the least amount of risk for a project. The seller assumes all of the risk because cost overruns are the seller’s responsibility.

134
Q

A _____________ requires the seller to assume the risk of cost overruns.

A

A lump sum is a fixed fee to complete the contract; the seller absorbs any cost overruns.

For example, a contractor might be paid a lump sum of $10,000,000 for the entire project. No matter what the contractor actually spends, it will only be paid $10,000,000.

135
Q

What does a SOW (Statement of Work) include?

A

The items being purchased
The expected quality levels
A description of the Collateral services required.

It DOES NOT require signatures of both parties agreeing to the SOW. Thats basically the signature of the contract.

136
Q

A contract between an organization and a vendor may include a clause that penalizes the vendor if the project is late. The lateness of a project has a monetary penalty. Thus, the penalty should be enforced or waived based on ____________

A

Contract penalties should be enforced or waved based on who caused the delay and the reason why it was delayed.

This choice is the best answer because it answers the question fully. The party that caused the delay is typically the party responsible for it. It would not be acceptable for the project manager to cause a delay willingly and then penalize the contractor because the project was late.

137
Q

What is a single source seller?

A

There is only one seller the company wants to do business with.

138
Q

What is a “letter of intent”?

A

A letter of intent means you are wanting to buy from a contracting company.

139
Q

READ THIS REGARDING Procurement Documents

A

Procurement Documents are able to allow input from the seller to suggest alternative ways to complete the project work.

140
Q

_______________ detail the requirements for the work to ensure complete proposals form sellers.

A

Procurement Document Packages

141
Q

From a PMP candidate’s perspective, in what process group does source selection happen?

A

Executing phase.

142
Q

What is a “Seller Rating System”?

A

all project managers are required to document the performance quality ratings, delivery performance, and contractual compliance of each vendor with which they interact.

143
Q

What is a negative stakeholder?

A

Negative stakeholders are people who do not want your project to succeed or even exist in the organization.

144
Q

What is a stakeholder identification process?

A

The four steps in the process of stakeholder analysis are - identifying the stakeholders, clarifying the interest and Influence of stakeholders, agreeing on the process of engagement between stakeholders, and managing the relationship with stakeholders.

145
Q

What are the 3 steps to stakeholder analysis?

A

There are three logical steps to stakeholder analysis:

First you need to identify the project stakeholders.
Next, you’ll prioritize the stakeholders based on their role and influence in the project.
Finally, you’ll anticipate stakeholder responses to issues, concerns, and requirements in the project

146
Q

Do you have to register all stakeholders in an organization? Even if it is in the thousands?

A

Yes - it is important to register but you should group them up into positive and negative stakeholders for easy management.

147
Q

Which diagram correlates with stakeholder analysis?

A

Power/Influence Diagram.

a power/influence diagram, which shows the correlation between power over the project and the influence over the project for each key stakeholder. Stakeholders with high power and high influence need to be managed more closely than stakeholders with low power and low influence, for example. This chart helps the project team create a better defined stakeholder management strategy and prioritization of stakeholders in the project.

148
Q

What is the most influential element for stakeholder management and engagement?

A

Stakeholder Register.

Stakeholder register will help create a strategy for stakeholder management and engagement.

149
Q

What is a stakeholder who doesn’t know about your project?

A

“Unaware”

150
Q

What are the 4 types of stakeholders?

A

Investors
Employees
Customers
Suppliers

151
Q

What are the 5 classes of stakeholder engagement?

A

Unaware
Resistant
Neutral
Supportive
Leading

152
Q

What is the purpose of the stakeholder engagement plan?

A

The purpose is to manage the stakeholders’ attitudes toward the project.

153
Q

What is the difference between a “leading” stakeholder and a “supportive” stakeholder?

A

A leading is someone who is actively cheering on a project.

A supprotive stakeholder are people aware of the project and support the idea of the change. They aren’t an active promoter.

154
Q

What happens if there is a scheduling conflict in a project? What should the PM do?

A

Problems will happen throughout a project, but the project manager should always present the bad news to the appropriate stakeholders and be prepared with a possible solution

155
Q

What should a PM do if they overlooked stakeholders during the project’s planning phase?

A

Immediately contact the stakeholders, apologize and analyze the stakeholders.

156
Q

How should a PM handle unhappy but compliant stakeholders?

A

PM should reach out and try to explain the benefits of the project and how the project will help the organization and the individuals affected by the project.

basically try and convince them its a good idea so they don’t become resistant.

157
Q

What are “four inputs” that project managers will need for stakeholder engagement?

A

To manage stakeholder engagement, the project manager will need four inputs:

  • stakeholder engagement plan
  • communications management plan
  • organizational process assets
  • the change log.
158
Q

You are the project manager of a large project that will affect how your organization accepts and processes orders from customers. Many of the stakeholders have strong opinions about the project and how it should proceed. Thomas, the manufacturing manager, and Jane, the sales manager, have been in conflict with one another over some of the project’s requirements. You’ve met with these two stakeholders to resolve the conflict, negotiate the difference, and come to an agreement about the requirements in the project. What stakeholder engagement tool and technique have you used effectively in this scenario?

A

Interpersonal skills include building trust, resolving conflict, active listening, and overcoming resistance to change.

159
Q

What is a “management skill”?

A

Management skills help you organize stakeholder concerns and keep the project moving forward.

160
Q

What are examples of management skills?

A
  • presenting project information
  • negotiating with stakeholders
  • public speaking
161
Q

What is a “Push Communication”?

A

Push communication describes information that is sent out to an audience or stakeholders via e-mail, memos, letters, or reports.

162
Q

READ This

A

Vendors are stakeholders in the project.

163
Q

What is an example of “interactive” communication?

A

Interactive communications means that the stakeholders can communicate with one another. Meetings, video conferences, and teleconferences are good examples of interactive communications.

164
Q

What is a PMIS? (Project Management Information System)

A

A PMIS is a software tool that helps the project manager manage the project, including information storage, KPI metrics, and create reports.

165
Q

What types of communications are related to stakeholder engagement?

A

Pull communications (share point)
Push communications (email)
Interactive communications (meetings)

166
Q

What is an “Ad Hoc” Communication?

A

You will, as a project manager, use ad hoc communications to facilitate quick, informal communications, but it’s not a structured, planned approach to managing communication to and from the project stakeholders.

basically last minute communication

167
Q

What achieves customer satisfaction?

A

Completing the project requirements.

168
Q

What type of approach to scheduling is a Kan Ban?

A

A Kan Ban is a pull-based approach to scheduling.

Kanban is Japanese for visual sign or card — as a “signboard” is used to show what’s being worked on, how many requirements are completed, and how many requirements remain to be worked on.

169
Q

Which project management life cycle is most likely to use a Kanban board?

A

Adaptive life cycle

Change-driven life cycles are also known as agile or adaptive life cycles and are most likely to use a Kanban board.

170
Q

What methodology manages projects in smaller portions of work that can be assigned and finished in a short period of time?

A

Agile project management is a way to manage projects in incremental portions of work that can be managed and completed within a short period of time.

171
Q

What does a Kanban (picture board) show?

A
  • What is currently being worked on
  • How many requirements are completed
  • How many requirements remain to be worked on
172
Q

What are frameworks of an Agile approach?

A
  • Scrum
  • Feature-Drive Development (FDD)
  • Extreme Programming (XP)
173
Q

Agile approaches and Agile methods are umbrella terms that cover a variety of frameworks and methodsincluding:

A
  • Kanban
  • Scrum
  • eXtreme Programming (XP)
  • Feature - Drive Development (FDD)
  • Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)
  • Agile Unified Process (AUP)
  • Crystal Versions
174
Q

What part of an agile Triangle Model is considered a variable?

A

Agile’s Inverted Triangle Model turns the triple constraints upside down. Instead of viewing the scope as fixed at the start, Agile sets time (iterations) and cost (team members) as fixed, and the scope is adjusted to focus on the highest priorities. Agile is built with the expectation that scope will evolve as the project continues.

175
Q

Agile Mindset and Practice can include **READ ONLY ***

A

Agile principles and mindset tasks include advocating for agile principles and values in the organization, ensuring a common understanding of agile principles, educating and influencing agile, being transparent to gain trust, and creating a safe environment for experimenting.

176
Q

What is “Silo Knowledge”?

A

Agile principles and mindset tasks include experimenting with new techniques and processes, sharing knowledge and new collaboration, emergent leadership, and practice servant leadership.

177
Q

What are the Four Pillars of Knowledge in the Agile Manifest?

A

The four value statements are: Individuals and interactions over processes and tools; working software over comprehensive documentation; customer collaboration over contract negotiation; and responding to change over following a plan.

178
Q

READ ABOUT AGILE MINDSET

A

Agile focuses on working software over comprehensive documentation, which includes the understanding that agile projects have to deliver value, value is about the purpose or business need that the project aims to deliver, documentation is barely sufficient, documentation is done just in time — as the last responsible moment, and documentation might also be done just because of industry and/or organizational requirements.

179
Q

What are the 9 keys of great agile projects?

A

Continuous adaption. Agile project management favors change. …
Transparency. …
Listening capability. …
Collaboration. …
Efficient communication. …
Customer satisfaction. …
Fast delivery times. …
Sequential approach.

180
Q

What are the differences between industrial and knowledge work projects?

A

task driven vs value driven
structure vs less structure
visible vs invisible

181
Q

READ* Predictive, incremental, agile life cycles

A

Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental experience a few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on customer feedback

182
Q

What is a sprint retrospective?

A

In Scrum, this meeting is held at the end of every sprint and allows the team to identify what went well in the process during the recent sprint and what could have gone better, and they commit to improving at least one thing in the upcoming sprint. They are a combination of lessons learned and process improvement.

183
Q

What is an iteration also known as?

A

A sprint.

In Scrum, iterations are also known as sprints. Iterations or sprints are always time-bound and can be any short period of time and defined and agreed upon by the team.

184
Q

What are Pre-Sprint activities? Like what do they include?

A

Pre-sprint activities include creating the vision statement, a product roadmap, stories, and the product backlog.

185
Q

What is a Sprint Time Box?

A

A sprint time box is usually 2 - 4 weeks.

186
Q

READ ** Characteristics of Sprint

A
  • EAch story in the product backlog should normally be developed in a single sprint
  • Everyone must agree on a Definition of Done at beginning of the project
  • The Product Owner and the Development Team select items from the top of the prioritized product backlog
187
Q

**READ ** regarding sprint planning meetings

A
  • Timebox: Eight hours for four-week sprint, less for shorter sprints
  • Attendees: Complete Scrum team, including all roles
  • Goal: Team capacity, sprint goal/definition of Done, Sprint backlog
188
Q

What is a Sprint Goal?

A

The Sprint Goal is an objective that should be met within the Sprint; provides guidance to the Development Team on why it is building the Increment

189
Q

How are Post-its created?

A

Post-its are tasks created by breaking down each user story.

190
Q

What does the Sprint Backlog consist of?

A

What should the backlog contain?
The product backlog also serves as the foundation for iteration planning. All work items should be included in the backlog: user stories, bugs, design changes, technical debt, customer requests, action items from the retrospective, etc.

191
Q

What is the purpose of daily stand ups?

A

The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings and used within Scrum, is not planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.

192
Q

What 3 questions does the Daily Scrum meeting answer?

A

The Daily Scrum meeting answers three questions: What has been accomplished since the last meeting? What will be done before the next meeting? What obstacles are in the way?

193
Q

With a Large Scrum Team, what four questions are answered?

A

With a large scrum team, four questions are answered: What has your team done since we last met? What will your team do before our next meeting? Are there any roadblocks in your team’s way? Will your team put anything in another team’s way?

194
Q

What is the correct sequence regarding Sprint Retrospective?

A

The Sprint Retrospective occurs after the Sprint Review and prior to the next Sprint Planning. Of the choices presented, Sprint Planning > Sprint Review > Sprint Retrospective is NOT the best choice, because there is daily work and the daily scrum between the Sprint Planning and the Sprint Review ceremonies.

195
Q

How many days does the team take (approximately) to deliver an agreed number of stories in a Sprint?

A

Teams takes 30 days or so to deliver an agreed number of stories. Remember, a sprint is four weeks, 28 days. So the best answer is 30 as it’s the closest answer. It’s not unusual to see a question where none of the choices are very good - this is one of those questions

196
Q

What should you consider regarding SPRINT durations?

A

All sprints should be the same duration
The frequency that team composition can be changed
There is a risk of being disconnected from stakeholders

PMP (8 decks)

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