Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DIT STEP 2 > SECRETS > Flashcards

SECRETS Flashcards

1
Q

Common cause of wheezing in children

A

RSV, which classically occurs in winter and causes a fever. Asthma may be cause but usually associated with chronic hx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should you intubate

A

CO2>50 or O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Best way to reduce pulmonary complications post op

A

STOP SMOKING (especially when at least 8 weeks before surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Classic cause of PNA in TB pt

A

Pulmonary cavitation – > Aspergillus sp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Classic cause of PNA in child

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Classic cause of PNA in child 2-5

A

Parainfluenza (croup)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why should you get a follow up CXR in all pts >40 who develop PNA

A

Make sure it clears after appropriate abx treatment. If it doesn’t clear by 4-6 weeks, suspect malignancy, specifically BRONCHOALVEOLAR CA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Complications of infant RDS

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage and pneumothorax or bronchopulmonary dysplasia (complications of acute or chronic mechanical ventilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the fluorescence polarization test?

A

Reflects ratio of surfactant to albumin in amniotic fluid and is direct measurement of surfactant concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyanosis with attempted feedings in a neonate

A

TE fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triglycerides in a pleural effusion

A

Chylous effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Screening for aortic aneurysm

A

Abdominal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Confirmatory for aortic aneurysm

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Screening for aortic aneurysm should occur in?

A

Male smokers 65-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Screening for aortic trauma/tear

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Confirmatory for aortic trauma/tear

A

MRA or TEE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Screening for appendicitis

A

US (partic in prig and children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Confirmatory for appendicitis

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Screening for bowel obstruction

A

Abdom Xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Confirmatory for bowel obstruction

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Screening for cholecystitis

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Confirmatory for cholecystitis

A

HIDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Screen for choledocholithiasis

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Confirmatory for choledocholithiasis

A

ERCP or MRCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Screen for diverticulitis

A

CT with contrast. No endscopy acutely as there is a risk of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Screen for esophageal disease

A

Gastrografin or barium xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Confirmatory test for esophageal rupture

A

CT with contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Screen for PUD

A

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Screen for pyloric stenosis

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Confiramtory for pyloric stenosis

A

Barium Xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Confirmatory for fibroids

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Confiramtory for ovarian disease

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Screen for brain tumor

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Confirmatory for brain tumor

A

MRI with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Screen for ICH

A

Non contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Screen for head trauma

A

Non contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Screen for acute stroke

A

Non contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Screen for bone mets

A

Bone scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Confirmatory test for bone mets

A

PET scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Screen for multiple myeloma

A

Plain xrays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Confirmatory test for fracture

A

Non contrast CT. CT can pick up many fractures not seen on X-ray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Confirmatory test for osteomyelitis

A

Secrets says bone scan. NBOME said MRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Confirmatory test for plevic trauma

A

Non contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Confirmatory test for scaphoid fracture

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What to do if pt with PE cannot tolerate radiation (prego) or contrast

A

v/q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Persistent and painful hematuria: screen ?

A

CT scan withOUT contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Persistent and painLESS hematuria: screen?

A

CT scan with contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Screen for hydronephrosis

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Screen for suspected urethral trauma

A

Retrograde urethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 leading causes of death in adolescents

A

Accidents
Homicide
Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which anti-psychotics treat positive sx of schizophrenia

A

Respond well to all currently used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which anti psychotics treat negative sx of schizophrenia

A

Atypical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Most important prognostic factor in schizophrenia

A

Premorbid functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most schizophrenic patients in US are born in the ..

A

winter months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ANS side effects are seen most in which antipsychotics?

A

Low potency antipsychotics like chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Tx of acute dystonia

A

Antihistamines or anticholinergics (benztropine, trihexyphenidyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tx of akithisia

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tx of parkinsonism in antipsychotic use

A

Antihistamines (diphenydramine) or anticholinergics (benztropine, trihexyphenidyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome shows very high levels of what?

A

Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) .. more than 10x normal range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Classic SE of thioridazine

A

Retinal pigment deposits, cardiac tox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Classic SE of chlorpromazine

A

Jaundice and photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antipsychotic classically associated with parkinsonism

A

Paliperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

QT prolongation occurs most with which 2 antipsychotics

A

Paliperidone > ziprasidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

SE of valproic acid

A

Liver dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

SE of carbamazepine

A

BM suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

SE of lithium

A

Renal dysfunction
THYROID dysfunction
Tremor
CNS effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Encopresis is normal until what age

A

4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which hallucinations are seen due to CNS issues

A

Visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which hallucinations are seen due to psych issues

A

Auditory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pupils in LSD intox

A

Mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Start DRE exams at what age

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Start PSA tests at what age in AA male

A

45 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Start PSA tests at what age

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How often for conventional pap smears in women 30 yr or older who have had 3 negative cytology test results

A

every 2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how often for pelvic exam in 21-64 yr old

A

annually; every 2-3 yr after 3 normal exams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Breast exam by doctor in women 20-40 yrs

A

Every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Breast exam by doctor in women >40

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tdap recommendations

A

Adults 11 yrs old and older should receive single dose of Tdap to replace single dose of Td if they received last dose of Td 10 or more years earlier. Adults who anticipate having close contact with an infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tdap vs Td in wound ppx

A

Tdap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When can Tdap be given to pregos

A

Given to women with EVERY preg regardless of prior immunization hx, preferably in late 2nd or in 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Define neonatal mortality rate

A

Neonatal deaths (first 28 days of life)/1000 live births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Define perinatal mortality rate

A

Neonatal deaths + stillbirths/1000 total births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Define infant mortality rate

A

Deaths (0-1 y.o.)/1000 LIVE births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Maternal mortality rate definition

A

Maternal pregnancy-related deaths (deaths while preg or first 42 days after delivery)/100000 live births.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

SE of cyclosporine

A

Renal toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

SE of sulfa drugs in neonates

A

Kernicterus

87
Q

SE of halothane

A

Liver necrosis

88
Q

SE of vincristine

A

Peripheral neuropathy

89
Q

SE of quinine

A

Cinchonism (tinnitus, vertigo), thrombocytopenia, QT prolongation

90
Q

SE of morphine

A

Sphincter of oddi spasm

91
Q

Gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol. Can also cause aplastic anemia.

92
Q

SE of doxorubicin

A

Cardiomyopathy

93
Q

SE of busulfan

A

Pulm fibrosis

94
Q

SE of chlorpropamide

A

SIADH

95
Q

SE of oxytocin

A

SIADH

96
Q

SE of opiates

A

SIADH

97
Q

SE of AZT

A

bone marrow suppression

98
Q

SE of acetazolamide

A

Metabolic acidosis

99
Q

SE of cisplatin

A

Nephrotoxicity

100
Q

SE of methyldopa

A

Hemolytic anemia (coombs test positive)

101
Q

SE of Thiazides

A 
HYPERglycemia
HYPERuricemia
HYPERlipidemia
HYPOnatremia
HYPOkalemic metabolic alkalosis
102
Q

SE of loop diuretics

A

HYPOkalemic metabolic alkalosis
HYPOvolemia
Ototox
Calcium excretion

103
Q

CAI side effect

A

metabolic acidosis

104
Q

Which anti-HTN best known for causing depression

A

Methyldopa, but beta blockers can also cause.

105
Q

What may happen if pt given MAOI + meperidine

A

Coma

106
Q

Ppx in contacts of pt with Neisseria meningitis

A

Rifampin, cipro or ceftriaxone

107
Q

3 classic meds that cause hepatic enzyme induction

A

Barbs, AED, rifampin

108
Q

3 classic meds that cause hepatic enzyme inhibition

A

Cimetidine, erythromycin, ketoconazole

109
Q

How is acetaminophen diff from ASA and other nsaids

A

Thought to inhibit COX primarily in the brain; does not act well in periphery. Thus it has analgesic and anti pyretic effects but no anti-platelet or significant anti-inflammatory

110
Q

2 developments in NSAID therapy that may reduce GI and bleeding complications

A

COX 2 inhibitors and new combos of NSAIDS with prostaglandin E1. Normal NSAIDS inhibit type 1 cox (in addition to type 2) which is thought to be main culprit in causing GI problems. Prostaglandin E1 protects stomach by supplying what NSAIDs take away. COX2 inhibitors avoid problem altogether but are not as protective against GI bleeding as initially thought.

111
Q

Give ASA to pt with aortic dissection sx?

A

No.

112
Q

Social smile at what age

A

1-2 mos

113
Q

Cooing at what age

A

2-4 mo

114
Q

While prone, lifts head up 90 degrees at what age

A

3-4 mos

115
Q

Rolls front to back at what age

A

4-5 months

116
Q

Voluntary grasp (no release) at what age

A

5 months

117
Q

Stranger anxiety at what age

A

6-9 months

118
Q

Sits with no support at what age

A

7 months

119
Q

Pulls to stand at what age

A

9 months

120
Q

Waves bye bye at what age

A

10 months

121
Q

Voluntary grasp with voluntary release at what age

A

10 months

122
Q

Plays pat-a-cake at what age

A

9-10 months

123
Q

First words at what age

A

9-12 months

124
Q

Imitates others sounds at what age

A

9-12 months

125
Q

Separation anxiety at what age

A

12-15 months

126
Q

Walks without help at what age

A

13 months

127
Q

Can build a tower of 2 cubes at what age

A

13-15 months

128
Q

Understands 1 step commands (no gesture) at what age

A

15 months

129
Q

Good use of cup and spoon nat what age

A

15-18 months

130
Q

Can build tower of 6 cubes at what age

A

2 yr

131
Q

Runs well at what age

A

2 yr

132
Q

Ties shoelaces at what age

A

5 yr

133
Q

Hearing and vision should be measured objectively at least once by what age?

A

4 years old.

134
Q

At how old should strabismus be evaluated and managed?

A

after 3 months. before then its normal.

135
Q

H&H measurement recommended at what age?

A

12 months but may be required at other times as dictated by history and risk assessment

136
Q

When should iron supplements be started in full term infants

A

4-6 months

137
Q

When should preterm infants be started on iron supplements

A

2 months

138
Q

When should you recommend a child see a dentist for the first time

A

2-3 years of age

139
Q

Define delayed puberty

A

Lack of testic enlargement in boys by age 14 or lack of breast dev or pubic hair in girls by age 12.

140
Q

Define caput succedaneum

A

Diffuse swelling or edema of scalp that CROSSES the midline. Requires no further investigation.

141
Q

Define cephalohematoma

A

subperiosteal hemorrhages that are sharply limited by sutures and do NOT ross the midline. Usually benign but rarely can indicate underlying skull fx so order radiograph or CT.

142
Q

When should anterior fontanelle close and what d/o should you suspect if it fails

A

18 months. Delayed closure or unusually large may indicate hypothyroidism, rickets, hydrocephalus, or IUGR.

143
Q

When should moro and palmar grasp reflex disappear?

A

6 months

144
Q

Loss of finger abduction indicates which nerve njury

A

Ulnar

145
Q

Conjunctivitis that dev in first 24 hours of life

A

Chemical connjunctivitis

146
Q

Gonorrheal conjunctivitis

A

Extremely purulent discharge 2-5 days after birth. If given ppx drops should not develop this.

147
Q

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

A

Mild to severe conjunctivitis 5-14 days after birth. Give oral erythromycin.

148
Q

Sudden ocular pain, halos around lights, red eye, high IOP (>30), N/V, sudden decreased vision, and fixed mid dilated pupil

A

Closed angle glaucoma - - > give PILOCARPINE, oral glycerin and/or acetazolamide. Definitive surgery (peripheral iridectomy) used to prevent further attacks.

149
Q

What pediatric rheum condition is commonly associated with uveitis?

A

JRA, especially pauciarticular form.

150
Q

MCC of painless, slowly progressive loss of vision

A

Cataracts. Tx is surgical removal of affected lens.

151
Q

Cataracts in a neonate

A

May indicate TORCH (toxo, other, rubella, CMV, HSV) or inherited metabolic disorder, such as galactosemia!!

152
Q

Changes in retina and fundus a/w Diabetes

A

dot blot hemorrhages
Microaneurysms
Novas of retina

153
Q

Changes in retina and fundus a/w HTN

A

Arteriolar narrowing
Copper/silver wiring
Cotton wool spots

154
Q

Tx of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Application of laser beam to periphery of entire retina (PANRETINAL PHOTOCOAG). Surgical or medical vitrectomy is used in some cases.

155
Q

Treatment of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Focal laser treatment when macular edema is present. In severe cases ,pan retinal photocoag may be used. Otherwise, treated supportively.

156
Q

MCC of preorbital and orbital cellulitis

A

S. pneumo, H. influenzae type B, and staph aureus or strep species in pts with hx of trauma.

157
Q

Which is worse, acid or alkaline burns to eye?

A

Alkali bc they tend to penetrate more deeply.

158
Q

Eye condition that topical steroids are definitely contraindicated

A

HSV keratitis

159
Q

MCC of central retinal artery occlusion

A

Emboli from carotid plaque or heart but watch for temporal arteritis.

160
Q

Sudden painless unilateral loss of vision with “floaters” and flashes of light

A

Retinal detachment. Surgery may save patients vision!!!

161
Q

What are drusen spots

A

Focal yellow-white deposits in and around the macula found in macular degeneration.

162
Q

Left upper quadrant anopsia – where is the lesion

A

Right optic radiations in right TEMPORAL lobe

163
Q

Left lower quadrant anopsia – where is the lesion

A

right optic radiations in the right parietal lobe

164
Q

S-100 marker

A

Melanoma

165
Q

Beta 2 microglobulin marker

A

Multiple myeloma, CLL and some lymphomas

166
Q

BTA tumor marker

A

Bladder

167
Q

Calcitonin tumor marker

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

168
Q

What is a unicameral bone cyst

A

Expansile lytic well-demarcated benign lesion in prox humerus in children and adolescents. Although benign, may weaken bone enough to cause a pathologic fx of humerus.

169
Q

Birbeck granules

A

Raquet shaped cytoplasmic inclusions are a marker for Langerhans cells of the skin. Other major cytologic clue is CD1 + cells.

170
Q

How can you differentiate Wilms from neuroblastoma

A

Both present as flank masses in children. Neuroblastoma’s most commonly arise from adrenal gland and contain calcifications whereas Wilms tumors arise from kidney and rarely calcify, thus imaging with CT can distinguish the two.

171
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia

A

Can resemble leukoplakia but is an unrelated condition affecting HIV positive patients and is associated with EBV

172
Q

Virus associated with Kaposis

A

HHV-8

173
Q

Most common primary tumor of the liver

A

Hemangioma – generally benign and left alone.

174
Q

Hepatic angiosarcoma

A

Look for industrial exposure to vinyl chloride

175
Q

Most common primary liver malignancy inchildren

A

Hepatoblastoma

176
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

Papillary

177
Q

2 points about nasopharyngeal CA

A

Asian patients and associated with EBV.

178
Q

Most common testicular cancer

A

Seminoma

179
Q

3 MCC of brain mets

A

Lung CA
breast CA
melanoma

180
Q

Meig’s syndrome

A

Ovarian fibroma that causes ascites and right hydrothorax

181
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Stomach cancer with emets to ovaries

182
Q

List the 3 commonly tested germ cell tumors

A

Teratoma/dermoid cyst.
Sertoli-leydig cell tumor
Granulosa/theca-cell tumor

183
Q

Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria

A

VIPomas

184
Q

Whipple triad

A

Insulinaomes –hypoglycemia, CNS sx caused by hypoglycemia, and admin of glucose relieves sx.

185
Q

C peptide levels in insulinoma

A

High

186
Q

Migratory thrombophlebitis is assoc with which cancer

A

Pancreatic

187
Q

Courvoisier sign

A

Palpable nontender GB found in pancreatic cancer

188
Q

Cell of origin in pancreatic cancer

A

Ductal epithelium

189
Q

What is degarelix

A

GnRH antagonist

190
Q

What class of meds do goserelin, Mbuserelin, and triptorelin belong to

A

GnRH agonists

191
Q

What class of med is flutamide

A

Androgen receptor antagonists

192
Q

Cushing syndrome is seen with which lung cancer?

A

Small cell

193
Q

Tamoxifen increases risk of which cancer

A

endometrium

194
Q

benzene increases risk for which hcancer

A

leukemia

195
Q

Arsenic exposure increases risk for which two cancers

A

lung, skin

196
Q

Aflatoxins increase risk for which cancer

A

liver

197
Q

high parity increases risk for which cancer

A

cervix

198
Q

Inheritance of xeroderma pigmentosa

A

AR

199
Q

NF type 1 is assoc whith which cancer

A

Multiple NF; cafe au last spots; increased number of pho, bone cysts, Wilms tumorr, and leukemia

200
Q

Type of cancers pts with tuberous sclerosis increased risk for

A

Adenoma sebaceum
Glial nodules in brain
Renal angiomyolipomas
Cardiac rhabdomyomas

201
Q

Retinoblastoma (inherited kind) put you at risk for which acncers

A

retinoblastoma obviously as well as osteogenic sarcoma

202
Q

MEN type I

A

Parathyroid
Pituitary
Pancreas (islet cell tumors)

DIAMOND

203
Q

Men Type IIa

A

Thyroid (medullary cancer)
Parathyroid
Pheochromocytoma

SQUARE

204
Q

Men type IIb

A

Thyroid (medullary cancer)
Pheo
Mucosal neuromas

205
Q

Peutz Jeghers at increased risk for which CA

A

NONCANCEROUS GI POLYPS

Increased noncolon cancer like stomach, breast and ovaries

206
Q

What is major risk factor for cancer?

A

Age is the biggest risk factor

207
Q

MCC of cancer in most organs?

A

Mets

208
Q

Highest incidence of cancers in female 1-3

A

Brast
Lung
colon

209
Q

Highest mortality rate of cancers in female 1-3

A

Lung
Breast
Colon

210
Q

Highest mortality rate of cancers in male 1-3

A

Lung
Prostate
Colon

211
Q

Highest incidence of cancers in male 1-3

A

Prostate
Lung
Colon

212
Q

Hyperviscosity, IgM spike, cold agglutinins

A

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

213
Q

Trigger words for mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome

A

Plaquelike itchy skin rash that does not improve with treatment
Blood smear showing CEREBRIFORM nuclei known as butt cells
Pautrier abscesses in epidermis

214
Q

Which subtype of NHL has best prognosis

A

Small follicular.

Large diffuse has worst.

DIT STEP 2 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions