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DIT STEP 2 > OMM > Flashcards

OMM Flashcards

1
Q

2nd intercostal space bilaterally is the chapman point for which 4 organs?

A

Myocardium
Thyroid
Esophagus
Bronchus

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2
Q

Chapmans point for upper lung (anterior)

A

3rd ICS

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3
Q

Chapmans point for lower lung (anterior)

A

4th ICS

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4
Q

Chapman’s point for liver

A

5th and 6th ICS - R

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5
Q

Chapmans pt for stomach

A

5th and 6th ICS - L

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6
Q

Chapmans pt for gallbladder

A

6th ICS -R

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7
Q

Chapmans for Pancreas

A

7th ICS-R

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8
Q

Chapmans for spleen

A

7th ICS - L

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9
Q

Chapmans for appendix

A

tip of the 12th rib - r

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10
Q

Chapman pt for adrenals

A

1 in lateral, 2 inches superior to umbilicus

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11
Q

Chapmans pt for kidneys

A

1 in lateral 1 in superior to umbilicus

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12
Q

Chapmans pt for bladder

A

peri umbilical area

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13
Q

Chapmans pt for urethra

A

superior pubic ramus, 2 cm lateral to symphisis

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14
Q

Chapman pt for prostate

A

Outer femur along posterior IT band, bilaterally

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15
Q

Chapman pt for middle ear

A

superior medial part of clavical

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16
Q

Chapman pt for pylorus

A

Center of sternum

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17
Q

Chapman pt for celiac ganglion

A

just below xiphoid

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18
Q

Chapman pt for superior mesenteric ganglion

A

between pts for celiac and inferior mesenteric ganglion

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19
Q

chapman pt for inferior mesenteric ganglon

A

just above umbilicus

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20
Q

Chapman pt for myocardum (posterior)

A

T2-T3 lamina o fTP

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21
Q

Chapman pt for esophagus (posterior)

A

T2 lamina of TP

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22
Q

Chapman pt for thyroid (posterior)

A

T2 lamina of TP

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23
Q

Chapman pt for bronchi (posterior)

A

T2 lamina of TP

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24
Q

Chapman pt for upper lung (posterior)

A

T3 lamina of TP

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25
Q

Chapman pt for lower lung (posterior)

A

T4 lamina of TP

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26
Q

Chapman pt for liver (posterior)

A

T5-T6 lamina of TP - R

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27
Q

Chapman pt for stomach (posterior)

A 
T5 L (Acid)
T6 L (peristalsis)
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28
Q

Chapman pt for gallbladder posterior

A

T6 lamina of TP - R

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29
Q

Chapman point for pancreas (posterior)

A

T7-lamina of TP, R

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30
Q

Chapman pt for spleen (posterior)

A

T7 lamina ofTP-L

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31
Q

Chapman pt for appendix (posterior)

A

T11-lamina R

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32
Q

Chapman pt for adrenals (posterior)

A

T11-T12 could be unilateral

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33
Q

Chapman pt for kidneys (posterior)

A

T12-L1 lain of TP bilateral

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34
Q

Capman pt for bladder (posterior)

A

L2 upper edge of TP bilateral

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35
Q

Chapman pt for urethra (posterior)

A

L3 TP bilateral

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36
Q

Chapman pt for prostate (posterior)

A

Lateral sacral base, bilateral

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37
Q

Chapman pt for pylorus (posterior)

A

T9 lamina of TP, right

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38
Q

Chapman pt for uterus (posterior)

A

Lateral sacral base, bilateral

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39
Q

Chapman pt for ear (posterior)

A

C1 posterior lateral pillar

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40
Q

Chapman pt for uterus (posterior)

A

lateral sacral base, nbilateral

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41
Q

Chapman pt for uterus (anterior)

A

superior edge of inferior pubic ramus

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42
Q

Chapman pt for broad ligament (anterior)

A

outer femur along posterior IT band

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43
Q

Chapman pt for broad ligament (posterior)

A

Lateral sacral base, bilateral

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44
Q

Chapman pt for vagina (posterior)

A

Lateral sacral base , bilateral and upper inner edge of thigh

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45
Q

Chapman pt for ovaries (anterior)

A

Superior pubic ramus, 2 cm lateral to symphisis

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46
Q

Chapman pt for ovaries (posterior)

A

T10-T11 lamina of TP , bilateral

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47
Q

Chapman pt for intestine, peristalsis (anterior)

A

Few inches above greater trochanter

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48
Q

Chapman pt for large intestine (posterior)

A

Right triangle - lateral edge is TP of L2-4, bottom edge is L4 to iliac crest

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49
Q

Chapman pt for pharynx, tongue, larynx, sinuses, arms (posterior)

A

C2

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50
Q

Chapman pt for nasal sinuses (posterior)

A

bottom edge of C1 pillar

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51
Q

Chapman pt for nasal sinuses, pharynx, tonsils, tongue, larynx, sinuses

A

Between clavicle and first rib clockwise

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52
Q

Chapman pt for small intestine (anterior)

A

Costochondral junction ribs 8, 9 , 10

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53
Q

Peristalsis (posterior)

A

rib 11

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54
Q

Simp levels for kidney/adrenals

A

T10-11

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55
Q

Simp level for adrenal medulla

A

T10

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56
Q

Simp level for upper ureters

A

T10-T11

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57
Q

Simp level for lower ureters

A

T12-L1

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58
Q

Simp level for gonads

A

T10-11

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59
Q

Simp level for bladder

A

T11-L2

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60
Q

Simp level for erectile tissue of penis and clitoris

A

T11-L2

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61
Q

Simp level for uterus and cervis

A

T10-L2

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62
Q

Simp level for prostate

A

T12-L2

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63
Q

Simp level for arms

A

T2-T8

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64
Q

Simp level for legs

A

T11-L2

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65
Q

Chapman pt for cerebellum

A

Tip of coracoid

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66
Q

Chapman pt for fallopian tubes, seminal vesicles (posterior)

A

PSIS and medial edge of trochanter near acetabulum

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67
Q

Chapman point for neuroasthenia/pec minor

A

Medial tip of spine of the scapula

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68
Q

Chapman point for arms/pec minor

A

Medial edge of scapula above spine

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69
Q

Supination moves the radial head?

A

Anteriorly.

70
Q

During pronation, the radial head moves?

A

Posteriorly.

71
Q

Restricted forearm supination indicates what kind of radial head

A

Posterior.

72
Q

Rule of 3s for T1-T3

A

Spinous process found at the same level as corresponding transverse process

73
Q

Rule of 3s for T4-T6

A

Spinous process found one half of a segment below the corresponding transverse process

74
Q

Rule of 3s for T7-T9

A

Spinous process can be found at the level of the transverse process of the vertebra below

75
Q

Rule of ors for T10

A

Same as T7-T9

76
Q

Rule of 3s for T11

A

Same as T4-T6

77
Q

Rule of 3s for T12

A

T1-T3

78
Q

5 components of PRM

A

Inherent motility of CNS
Fluctuation of CSF
Mobility of intracranial and intraspinal membranes (reciprocal tension)
articular mobility of cranial bones
involuntary motion of sacrum between ilia

79
Q

5 CSF functions

A 
Buoyancy
Metabolism
Circulation
Fluctuation
Transmits motion
80
Q

What happens during flexion to paired bones

A

External rotation

81
Q

What happens to the sacral BASE during flexion

A

Moves posterior, aka counternutation

82
Q

What happens to sacral base during extension

A

Moves anterior, aka nutation

83
Q

Dural attachments

A 
Foramen magnum
C2-axis (posterior aspect of dens)
C3 (posterior aspect of body)
S2 (posterior aspect of sacral body)
Posterior portion of coccyx, via film terminale
84
Q

When do the inter parietal and nuchal parts of the occiput fuse

A

3rd fetal month

85
Q

When do the nuchal and condylar parts fuse

A

3rd year of life

86
Q

When do the condylar and basal parts fuse

A

6th year of life

87
Q

When does a sacral vertebral arch fuse with its adjacent costal part?
Unite with respective centrum?
When is fusion of adjacent sacral segments started? Fsusio ncompleted

A

SVA - costal part: 2-5 years
Centrum 8 yrs
Fusion started in puberty and completed at 20-25 yrs.

88
Q

Where is the sarcasm functional (voluntary) and cranial (involuntary) axis

A

Transverseaxis in 2nd sacral segment

89
Q

At birth the sphenoid is made of how many parts

A

3: body and greater wings

90
Q

How many bones does the sphenoid articulate with

A

12: 2 parietals, frontal, occipital, 2 temporals, ethmoid, vomer, 2 zygomatics, 2 palatines

91
Q

What is the physiologic motion of the sphenoid

A

Flexion/extension around a transverse axis through the body of the sphenoid

92
Q

What are the 5 formaina/fissues in the sphenoid and the structures that transverse them

A 
Optic canal: optic n, ophthalmic a.
Superorbital fissure: CN 3, 4, 6, V1
Foramen rotundum: V2 maxillary n
Foramen ovale: V3
Foramen spinosum: middle meningeal a
93
Q

What can trauma by forceps cause cranial dysfunction

A

Intra osseous strains leading to orbit distortion

94
Q

Birth trauma via occiput will cause what kind of cranial dysfunction

A

Lateral strain at SBS

95
Q

Dysfunction with pre / post sphenoid fusion will clinically present as

A

Down syndrome

96
Q

Spheno squamous suture compression may lead to ?

A

Middle meningeal artery compromise, causing migraines

97
Q

Physiologic motions of the temporal bones

A

Internal and external rotation around petrous ridge axis
Motion dependent on occipital bone mechanics
Inter dependent on tentorium cerebelli tensions

98
Q

4 Things that non-trauma to the temporals can cause (clinical associates)

A

Otitis media
Mastoiditis
Bells palsy
Menieres disease

99
Q

4 things that trauma associates with the temporals

A

Birth
Whiplash
Chronic neck tension
Severe dental extraction

100
Q

When does fusion of the frontals start and complete

A

2 years, completes at 8

101
Q

What is the physiologic motion f the frontal bones

A

Internal/external rotation around vertical axes that run down center of each orbital plate through each frontal eminence. Metric suture allows flexibility

102
Q

What structure is frequently associated with pathology of CN 3, 4, 6

A

Petrosphenoid ligament

103
Q

Internally rotated temporal bones are associated with what?

A

TG neuralgia
Bells palsy
Tinnitus (high pitched)

104
Q

What does the temporomanddibular joint do in flexion

A 
SBS rises
Temporals Externally rotate
Mastoid tips move posteromedially
Angles widen slightly
Symphisis will recede
105
Q

What is outcome of CV4

A

Enhanced fluid movement
Changed rhythm of diaphragms
Restored normal flexion/extension of cranium
Believed to restore autonomic balance

106
Q

What ar the midline bones

A 
Ethmoid
Vomer
Occiput
Sphenoid
Mandibel
Sacrum
107
Q

What kind of strain would occur if a blow came to the top of the head

A

Superior vertical strain

108
Q

What cranial bone dysfunction is associated with loss of smell and how would you treat it

A

Frontal bone dysfunction, frontal lift

109
Q

A low pitched buzzing noise in the ear is associated with what cranial dysfunction

A

external rotation of temporal bone

110
Q

Describe torsion.

A

Sphenoid and other structures of anterior cranium rotate in one direction about AP axis while occiput rotate in opposite direction.

111
Q

Torsion is named for ..

A

More superior greater wing of the sphenoid.

112
Q

Describe sidebending rotation.

A

Rotation occurs through AP axis (just like torsion) except the sphenoid and occiput rotate in SAME direction. Sidebending occurs around 2 parallel vertical axes.

113
Q

If the sphenoid deviates cephalic in relation to the occiput, what kind of dysfunction is present

A

Superior vertical strain

114
Q

Axes of vertical strains

A

Rotation about 2 transverse axes

115
Q

If the sphenoid deviates to the left, relative to the occiput, what kind of strain is present

A

Left lateral strain.

116
Q

Axes of lateral strains

A

2 vertical axes

117
Q

Vagal somatic dysfunction can be due to …

A

OA, AA, and/or C2 dysfunction.

118
Q

Name 3 dysfunctions that can result in poor suckling.

A

Condylar compression at CNXII.

Dysfunctions of CN IX and X at jugular foramen can also reportedly cause those dysfunctions.

119
Q

Finger placement for vault hold

A

Index finger at greater wing
Middle finger at temporal bone in front of the ear
Ring finger at mastoid region of temporal bone
Little finger at squamous portion of the occiput

120
Q

In craniosacral flexion, what direction does SBS deviate?

A

Cephalad.

121
Q

While palpating a patients cranium you notice that the greater wing of the sphenoid feels more superior on the left than the right. You also notice occiput is rotated in opposite direction. What strain pattern?

A

Left torsion.

122
Q

Which strains can be considered physiologic if they don’t interfere with flexion or extension components

A

Torsion, sidebending / rotation

123
Q

Name some relative/absolute CI to craniosacral therapy

A

Acute ICH
Skull fx
Traumatic brain injury
History of seizure disorder

124
Q

A valuable technique to help TMJ dysfunction (cranial)

A

TEmporal rocking.

125
Q

Seated flexion test is always what in relation to oblique axis

A

OPPOSITE

126
Q

Left index finger moves superior and pinky moves inferiorly

A

Left torsion

127
Q

Right index finger moves inferiorly and pinky finger moves superiorly

A

Left torsion

128
Q

Temporal bone follows what bone ?

A

OCCIPUT!!!

129
Q

If the occiput is low on one side, the temporal bone is ?

A

EXTERNALLY ROTATED on that side

130
Q

Describe a left torsion in terms of what you feel.

A

Left orbit wide
Left globe protruded
Left frontal bone is full due to relative External rotation
Left ear moves awayy from the head

131
Q

Right hand is widening as left hand is approximating

A

RIGHT side bending rotation.

132
Q

Greater wing of right sphenoid moves anterior while right occiput moves posterior

A

Right side bending rotation

133
Q

During cranial flexion, what are the temporal bones doing?

A

External rotation.

134
Q

What happens to the temporal bones during a superior vertical strain

A

Internally.

135
Q

Right greater wing is moving anterior and medial.Left occiput is moving posterior and medial. What strain?

A

Right lateral strain

136
Q

Sphenoid and occiput are both rotating counterclockwise around two parallel vertical axes

A

(right) Lateral strain

137
Q

What happens during the backwards bending test in terms of the lumbars and sacrum

A

Lumbar EXTENDS

Sacrum FLEXES

138
Q

One thing thats different between a negative lumbosacral spring test and backwards bending test (in terms of what dysfunction they can indicate)

A

Negative backwards bending test includes bilateral EXTENSION. A negative lumbosacral spring test only can mean bilateral flexion (and other flexion problems).

139
Q

L5 will always sidebend … (in terms of sacrum)

A

TOWARDS oblique axis.

140
Q

L5 will always rotate .. (in terms of sacrum)

A

OPPOSITE sacral rotation

141
Q

Angle of louis is directly anterior to which vertebrae

A

T4

Rib two

142
Q

Superior articular facets of thoracic spine are oriented …

A

BUM: cervical
BUL: thoracic
BM: lumbar

143
Q

Set up for reciprocal inhibiting if T3-T7 RL SR

A

RL SR.

144
Q

How to treat C1 with counterstrain

A

Rotate away

145
Q

How to treat C7 with counterstrain

A

Flex and sideband towards, rotate away.

146
Q

General anterior cervical counterstrain

A

F SARA

147
Q

General posterior cervical counterstrain

A

E SARA

148
Q

If someone has an MI and then vomits, what kind of reflex is present?

A

Viscera - viscero reflex

149
Q

Relationship between pancreatitis and T9 F, RL, SL

A

Viscera-somatic reflex.

150
Q

How can we treat rib 10 with direct ME

A

Adduct arm against resistance

151
Q

Exhalation dysfunction of rib 4 with direct ME

A

As the patient exhales, they push hand against you and tries to bring elbow to opposite ASIS against your resistance.

152
Q

Anterior and posterior innominate rotation is about what axis

A

Inferior transverse axis

153
Q

Which transverse axis corresponds with sacral anatomical flexion and extension

A

Middle

154
Q 
Deep sulcus on the left.
Posterior ILA on the right.
Standing + on R
Seated + on L.
Dx?
A

Right on right.

155
Q

What best supports a dx of left posterior innominate

A 
Left PSIS inferior
Left ischial tube inferior
Left medial malleolus superior
Left sacral sulcus is deep
Sacrotuberous ligament laxity on the right.
156
Q

In a L on R sacral torsion, where is the tight sacrotuberous ligament?

A

On the left.

157
Q

Treat L on R sacral torsion with ME

A

Pt lying on RIGHT side with upper body facing UP. Pt instructed to push legs towards ceiling against resistance.

158
Q

To treat L on R or R on L .. axis side is ?

A

DOWN.

159
Q

Ileum corresponds to which ganglion

A

SMA

160
Q

Liver corresponds to which ganglion

A

Celiac

161
Q

Ascending colon corresponds to which ganglion

A

SMA

162
Q

Splenic flexure corresponds to which ganglion

A

IMA

163
Q

Jejunum corresponds to which ganglion

A

SMA

164
Q

Appendix corresponds to which ganglion

A

SMA

165
Q

Cecum corresponds to which ganglion

A

SMA

166
Q

Lymphatic flow is most dependent on?

A

Motion of the diaphragm

167
Q

12 y.o. with PNA and asthma – is thoracic pump CI ?

A

No. You can perform without respiratory assist

168
Q

Treat spasm of right SCM

A

Flex
Rotate left
Sidebend right.

169
Q

a + thomas test on the left indicates what muscle spasm

A

Left psoas

170
Q

How to correct left posterior innominate with HVLA

A

Pt lies on RIGHT side with hip flexed. Rotational force anterior.

171
Q

L3-L4 herniation will likely affect which muscle

A

Tibialis anterior

172
Q

Midline tender point of C1

A

Inion

DIT STEP 2 (17 decks)

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