Secondary care Flashcards

1
Q

How does slowing of growth velocity show on a growth chart?

A

gradient decreases and doesn’t follow centile lines

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2
Q

What tests should be done if growth velocity slows?

A

renal
liver
thyroid
bone age

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3
Q

What is constitutional delay?

A

condition that causes a temporary delay in growth and height. It’s the most common cause of delayed puberty in both sexes
short stature relative to parents heights (but often parents took longer to grow too)
delayed bone age
puberty starts later than usual

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4
Q

If falling off growth chart at young age - what should you look for?

A

dysmorphic features
parents + siblings growth
developmental milestones
?NAI

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5
Q

What tests should be done if poor growth and no signs of puberty at 13?

A

FSH
LH
TFTs
IGF-1
genetics
bone age

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6
Q
A
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7
Q

Turner’s karyotype

A

XO

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8
Q

Turner’s internal features

A

horseshoe kidney
aortic arch defects (coarctation, bicuspid aortic valve)
underdeveloped ovaries
can have absent uterus

should investigate with abdominal USS

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9
Q

Why should rescue breathe be done first in a child in cardiac arrest?

A

more likely to be caused by a respiratory issue

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10
Q

SSSABC for paediatric BLS

A

safety
stimulate
shout for help (2222)
airway
breathing (check carotid same time)
circulation

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11
Q

Describe how to do chest compressions in a child

A

1 finger breadth above xiphoid sternum
1 hand on chest
100-120bpm
compress chest ~5cm (1/3 of AP chest diameter)

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12
Q

Ratio of chest compressions:rescue breaths in children

A

15:2

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13
Q

Rate of rescue breaths in child <1y

A

25/min
every 2s

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14
Q

Rate of rescue breaths in child 1-8y

A

20/min
every 3s

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15
Q

Rate of rescue breaths in child 8-12y

A

15/min
every 4s

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16
Q

Rate of rescue breaths in child >12y

A

10-12/min
every 5-6s

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17
Q

How to do painful stimulus infant

A

do not shake baby
painful stimuli = pull hair

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18
Q

How to open airway in an infant

A

put head in neutral position

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19
Q

Which pulse is best to check in a neonate in an emergency ?

A

brachial

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20
Q

What pressure should infant bag valve mask be set to for resuscitation?

A

40 cm H2O

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21
Q

How to do chest compressions in infant

A

1 finger breadth above xiphoid sternum
2 finger compressions (either onto chest or wrap around infant and use thumbs - encircling technique)
100-120bpm
4cm depth (1/3 of AP chest wall)

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22
Q

How to manage choking child

A

encourage to cough if they can
keep reassessing
shout for help
lean forward/place across lap
5 back slaps - reassess between each
5 abdominal thrusts - reassess between each
unresponsive = start CPR

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23
Q

How to manage choking infant

A

shout for help
keep head neutral
thumb + fingers around chin, head down
5 back slaps between shoulder blades - reassess between each
turn baby over
5 chest thrusts (as if doing CPR) - reassess between each
unresponsive = start CPR

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24
Q

How to treat severe viral-induced wheeze?

A

asthma protocol

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25
Q

When to use inhaler or nebuliser in asthma attack in children?

A

if need oxygen –> use nebuliser
if not needing oxygen –> use inhaler + spacer

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26
Q

If a child/infant is groaning what could this suggest?

A

airway compromise

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27
Q

How can poorly controlled maternal diabetes cause a small foetus?

A

placental insufficiency due to diabetes causing vascular damage

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28
Q

How can poorly controlled maternal diabetes cause a large foetus?

A

hyperglycaemia

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29
Q

What drugs cause small babies?

A

nicotine
cocaine
alcohol

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30
Q

What does symmetrically growth restricted mean?

A

whole body not growing (not a specific body part)

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31
Q

What drives growth in the foetal stage?

A

intrauterine environment

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32
Q

What drives growth in the infant stage (0-2)?

A

nutrition-dependent

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33
Q

what drives growth in childhood (pre-puberty)?

A

hormone-dependent (GH)

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34
Q

What drives growth in the pubertal period?

A

hormone-dependent (sex hormones)

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35
Q

Causes of poor growth (general)

A

malnutrition
psychosocial
chronic ill health
iatrogenic
skeletal abnormalities
syndromes
hormones

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36
Q

When is the length of a child measured?

A

when a child cannot stand

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37
Q

What age is head circumference measured until?

A

2 years

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38
Q

How is bone age determined?

A

XR of wrist
examine ossification centres
different areas ossify at different rates

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39
Q

What does mid-parental height estimate?

A

what centile child should be growing on

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40
Q

What is adult height predictor used for?

A

predicts adult height from current centile

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41
Q

When should children be referred based on growth charts?

A

unexplained short stature
growth velocity lower than expected
height crosses >2 centile lines
if child at risk of poor growth

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42
Q

What should polyhydramnios make you consider?

A

GI issues of baby

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43
Q

What should oligohydramnios make you consider?

A

renal/urology issues in baby

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44
Q

Septic screen components (infant)

A

urine culture
blood culture
CSF culture

blood gas (capillary)
FBC
U&Es
CRP (can take 12h to rise)

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45
Q

Why can PCR be better than culture for CSF if antibiotics have already been started?

A

culture will likely be negative after antibiotics
PCR can still be positive

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46
Q

How many wet nappies is normal in a baby?

A

6 or more a day

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47
Q

If a GP is concerned about meningococcal septicaemia, what should be done before sending to hospital?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

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48
Q

Kawasaki disease features mnemonic

A

fever for >5 days and 4/5 of:

CREAM
conjunctivitis (non-exudative)
rash (polymorphous, non-vesicular)
edema or erythema (of hands and feet)
adenopathy (cervical)
mucosal involvement (erythema or fissures or crusting)

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49
Q

Complication of kawasaki disease

A

coronary artery aneurysm
can rupture
can remain lifelong —> needs follow up

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50
Q

Kawasaki disease management

A

high dose aspirin
IVIg
response = fever goes down

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51
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

inflammation of small airways

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52
Q

If a child presents with severe bronchiolitis on day 1 - what should you do?

A

admit
likely to get worse as normally runs 7-10 days

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53
Q

When to admit patients with bronchiolitis

A

low sats
early presentation (as will worsen)
feeding <50% normal
signs of resp distress
parental concern

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54
Q

TORCH infections

A

toxoplasma
other agents: syphilis, parvovirus B19, varicella zoster, listeria
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes-simplex 2

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55
Q

Why are TORCH infections important?

A

a group of diseases that can be passed from a mother to her foetus during pregnancy or childbirth

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56
Q

What age is classed as a non-mobile child?

A

<12 months

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57
Q

What is a skeletal survey?

A

whole body xray
looks for fractures - particularly in different healing stages

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58
Q

What sign can be seen in shaken baby syndrome?

A

retinal haemorrhages

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59
Q

Risk factors for maltreatment of child

A

young parents
domestic violence
drug/alcohol abuse
mental health problems
learning disability
poverty
isolated parents

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60
Q

Key factors in history which may suggest child maltreatment

A

delayed presentation
incompatible history (eg. mechanisms not fitting injury)
inconsistent history (different stories from different people or changing story)

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61
Q

How can you tell if a CT is a contrast CT?

A

aorta white in contrast CT as contrast in aorta

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62
Q

How long can the thymus be seen on xray for?

A

up to 5y it can be prominent enough to see - can be mistaken for consolidation

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63
Q

How can you tell the difference between venous and arterial umbilical lines on xray?

A

venous goes up towards liver
arterial goes down towards iliac arteries

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64
Q

What pneumonia in children can cavitate?

A

staphylococcus aureus

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65
Q

How is right middle lobe pneumonia seen on xray?

A

consolidation in middle of lung
obscures right heart border

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66
Q

Complication of staph pneumonia

A

pneumatocoele

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67
Q

Which part of the lungs do viral and bacterial infections affect?

A

bacterial normally affect alveoli –> causes consolidation on CXR

viral normally causes bronchial oedema

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68
Q

Signs of RDS on CXR

A

ground-glass shadowing
air bronchograms

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69
Q

What neonatal lung conditions can have pleural effusions?

A

transient tachypnoea of the newborn
neonatal pneumonia

NOT respiratory distress syndrome

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70
Q

How can pneumothorax be seen in xray of baby?

A

deep sulcus sign
clear heart border

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71
Q

What can cause a bilateral pneumothorax?

A

open heart surgery through sternotomy

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72
Q

What test should be done in suspected diabetes insipidus?

A

paired urine and plasma osmolality

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73
Q

What test can help rule out diabetes insipidus?

A

water deprivation overnight
morning urine osmolality >750 excludes DI as they are able to concentrate their urine

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74
Q

Which diabetes insipidus subtype is more common?

A

cranial
(AVP-D)

75
Q

What liver blood test can be raised in vitamin D deficiency?

76
Q

Vitamin D deficiency bone group results

A

hypocalcaemia
hypophosphataemia

77
Q

What is the effect of PTH on phosphate?

A

PTH makes you lose phosphate in urine

78
Q

What is ALP indicative of (bone-wise)?

A

osteoblastic activity
high ALP = high bone turnover

79
Q

What distinguishes graves from other causes of hyperthyroidism?

A

eye involvement

80
Q

What is the main risk of propylthiouracil?

A

hepatotoxic

81
Q

Can carbimazole be given in pregnancy?

A

no - teratogenic

82
Q

What ages suggest precocious puberty?

A

<8 in girls
<9 in boys

83
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

A

breast bud development

84
Q

Order of puberty

A

thelarche (breast)
adrenarche (adrenals - hair, odour)
growth spurt
menarche (menstruation)

85
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A

increased testicular volume

86
Q

What hormones can be tested to assess if someone is in puberty?

87
Q

What endocrine problem happens in turner’s syndrome?

A

hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

88
Q

What ages are the cutoffs for delayed puberty?

A

no signs of puberty by:
- 13 in girls
- 14 in boys

89
Q

Normal ketone levels

90
Q

DKA ketone levels

91
Q

How does exercise affect glucose levels in diabetic people?

A

short anaerobic exercise = risk of hyperglycaemia

long aerobic exercise = makes you more insulin-sensitive therefore risk of hypoglycaemia, may need to reduce insulin beforehand

92
Q

HbA1C target for children with diabetes

A

48-53
checked 3 monthly

93
Q

What type of allergy will have a negative skin prick test?

A

non-IgE allergy
more of a delayed picture

94
Q

Can cows milk protein come out in breastmilk and affect a child with CMPA?

A

yes - small amounts can be expressed in breast milk

95
Q

What increases the risk of a child developing CMPA?

A

FH of atopic eczema, allergic rhinitis, asthma, food allergy

96
Q

What other allergies often co-occur with peanut allergy?

A

pea
soya
chickpeas
lupin

(because peanut is a legume)

97
Q

What does FeNO testing test?

A

fraction expired nitric oxide
eosinophils give off nitric oxide
therefore higher levels suggests more eosinophils in airways

98
Q

How many wet nappies a day is normal?

99
Q

What colour of vomit is pathological?

A

green –> bilious –> rule out GI obstruction

100
Q

How much milk should a baby consume in a day?

A

150 ml/kg/day

101
Q

How can you treat reflux in babies?

A

smaller volume feeds
thicker feeds
gaviscon (add to milk –> thickens it)
omeprazole

normally settles as baby grows and sphincter tightens

102
Q

When can you get temporary lactose intolerance?

A

in gastroenteritis

103
Q

How can you treat CMPA in babies?

A

extensively hydrolysed formula
amino acid base formula

104
Q

When does pyloric stenosis present?

105
Q

How does Hirschsprung’s present?

A

not passing meconium
big, bulky poo
constipation

106
Q

What caused pyloric stenosis?

A

narrowed + elongated pylorus
milk not leaving stomach so vomits back up

107
Q

Signs of pyloric stenosis

A

projectile vomiting
olive on abdominal exam
visible peristalsis after feed

108
Q

What blood gas abnormality can be present in pyloric stenosis?

A

hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

109
Q

Pyloric stenosis definitive management

A

laparoscopic pyloromyotomy

110
Q

What causes lack of femoral pulses on NIPE?

A

coarctation of aorta
left heart obstructive lesions

111
Q

Differential for bronchiolitis

A

heart failure

112
Q

What is a gallop rhythm suggestive of?

A

heart failure

113
Q

What murmur does a VSD cause?

A

pansystolic murmur

114
Q

Types of VSD

A

muscular
perimembranous

115
Q

What sign may be present in babies with heart failure?

A

congestive hepatomegaly

116
Q

What murmur does PDA cause?

A

continuous machinery murmur

117
Q

How does PDA cause pulmonary oedema?

A

left to right shunt
increased blood flow to lungs
pulmonary oedema

118
Q

What can close a PDA?

A

indomethacin

119
Q

What can keep a PDA open?

A

prostaglandins

120
Q

VSD surgery approach

A

midline sternotomy (as hole in side heart)

121
Q

PDA surgery approach

A

thoracotomy (as hole outside heart)

122
Q

What heart defect is associated with Down’s syndrome?

123
Q

How does heart failure occur in AVSD?

A

due to left to right shunt

124
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

ASD or VSD allows left to right shunt
causes pulmonary hypertension
when pulmonary pressure>systemic pressure, shunt reverses
blood then bypasses lungs causing cyanosis

125
Q

Define heart failure

A

delivery of oxygen to peripheral vascular bed insufficient to meet metabolic needs

126
Q

Signs of heart failure in babies/children

A

breathlessness with feeding
exercise intolerance
excessive sweating
cold, clammy hands and feet
faltering growth

127
Q

Triad of HF signs in children

A

tachypnoea
tachycardia
hepatomegaly

128
Q

What is a lower preductal spo2 suggestive of?

A

transposition of the great arteries

129
Q

What does survival of TGA babies depend on?

A

patency of atrial shunt and ductus arteriosus

give prostaglandins to maintain patent shunts

130
Q

TGA surgery

A

arterial switch surgery

131
Q

RV hypertrophy on ECG signs

A

L axis deviation
QRS large in L leads

132
Q

LV hypertrophy on ECG signs

A

R axis deviation
QRS large in R leads

133
Q

What heart abnormality is associated with William’s syndrome?

A

aortic stenosis

134
Q

Why can children with aortic stenosis not do strenuous exercise?

A

cardiac output cannot meet metabolic needs

135
Q

What cardiac abnormality is associated with Noonan’s syndrome?

A

pulmonary stenosis

136
Q

Most common secondary cause of hypertension in children?

137
Q

Major defects in tetralogy of fallot

A

pulmonary stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy
overriding aorta
ventricular septal defect (large)

138
Q

Tetralogy of fallot CXR sign

A

boot-shaped heart

139
Q

Triggers of tet spells at home

A

waking up
straining on potty
feeding
crying
tantrums
pain/fever/dehydration

140
Q

Triggers of tet spells in hospital

A

fear/stress
venepuncture
anaesthesia/intubation
cardiac catheter
cold, fast or irritant central fluids

141
Q

Tet spells presentation

A

rapid deep inspirations (paroxysmal hypoxaemia)
irritability/prolonged crying
increased cyanosis
severe - limpness, hypoxic seizure, collapse/death
disappearance of heart murmur

142
Q

Why does pulmonary stenosis murmur disappear in a tet spell?

A

all blood shunted from right to left
not much blood going through pulmonary artery

143
Q

What to do if a child is having a tet spell?

A

calm + comfort
bring knees up to chest
most episodes will self resolve (>5mins = 999)
let cardiology team know

144
Q

Management of tet spell in hospital

A

oxygen to achieve baseline spo2
sedate = morphine 0.1-0.2mg/kg IM
fluid bolus
beta blockade = esmolol IV stat/propranolol
vasoconstrictors = noradrenaline/phenylephrine, avoid adrenaline

145
Q

Wolff-parkinson white ECG

A

short PR interval
wide QRS
delta wave

146
Q

HOCM ECG signs

A

LVH
T wave inversion v5 +v6

147
Q

What direction are T waves normally in v5 and v6?

148
Q

Red flags that increase likelihood of cardiac cause for chest pain

A

congenital heart disease hx
exertional syncope
exertional cardiac-type chest pain
hypercoagulable or hypercholesterolaemic state
FH of sudden death <35y, young ischaemic heart disease, inherited arrhythmias (eg. long QT or brugada)
ICD in situ
connective tissue disorders
history of cocain/amphetamine use

149
Q

What to look out for when assessing paeds ECG?

A

PR interval
delta wave
QT interval
upright T wave V1?
ST elevation V1-3?
T wave inversions V4-6?
excessive R or S wave?
partial RBBB?
ventricular ectopics?

150
Q

When is a prominent thymus on CXR considered normal?

A

up to to 5 years

151
Q

CXR findings of viral infection

A

peri-bronchial markings increased - not consolidation
large volume lungs

152
Q

Name 4 medical lung diseases of the neonate

A

respiratory distress syndrome
transient tachypnoea of the newborn
meconium aspiration
neonatal pneumonia

153
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome complications

A

alveolar rupture with pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum
pulmonary interstitial emphysema

154
Q

What causes transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

delayed clearance of intrauterine pulmonary fluid

155
Q

What increases risk of transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

caesarean section or precipitous (quick) vaginal delivery
(thoracic squeeze of normal vaginal delivery will clear 30% of pulmonary fluid)

156
Q

Most common cause of neonatal pneumonia

A

group B streptococcus

157
Q

Major risk factor for neonatal pneumonia

A

premature rupture of membranes

158
Q

How can you distinguish neonatal pneumonia from RDS?

A

neonatal pneumonia can have pleural effusion - RDS will not

159
Q

Name some congenital lung abnormalities

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia
congenital lobar emphysema
congenital pulmonary airway malformation
bronchopulmonary sequestration

160
Q

What is bronchopulmonary sequestration?

A

a portion of lung has no normal connection with tracheobronchial tree
supplied by anomalous artery - usually arising from aorta

161
Q

How can pneumothorax be seen in CXR of neonate?

A

deep sulcus sign (unusually sharp and lucent costophrenic angle)
sharp right heart border

162
Q

What is pulmonary interstitial emphysema?

A

complication of RDS and its treatment (assisted ventilation)
results from alveolar rupture and subsequent dissection of air along the peribronchial and perivascular structures
linear lucencies radiation from hilar regions into lung

163
Q

Polyuria bloods

A

glucose
U&Es
bone profile
thyroid profile
paired urine + plasma osmolality

164
Q

Define epileptic seizure

A

sudden, excessive and/or hypersynchronous electrical activity in brain’s neurons, typically self-limiting

165
Q

Define non-epileptic seizure

A

results from different mechanisms from epileptic seizures eg. brain temporarily starved of oxygen as in simple faints and cardiac arrhythmias or psychological factors

166
Q

How does juvenile myoclonic epilepsy present?

A

genetically determined
myoclonic jerks on awakening
generalised tonic clonic seizures
typical absences

167
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy management

A

avoidance of precipitating factors
sodium valproate
clonazepam for myoclonic jerks
phenobarbitone
levetiracetam

168
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

vigabatrin
tiagabine
carbamazepine

169
Q

Sodium valproate side effects

A

weight gain
liver toxicity
decreased platelets
pancreatitis

170
Q

Carbamazepine side effects

A

rash
blood dyscrasias
dizziness
diplopia

171
Q

Lamotrigine side effect

A

steven johnson syndrome

172
Q

Topiramate side effects

A

weight loss
language dysfunction
kidney stones
glaucoma

173
Q

Levetiracetam side effects

A

irritability
agitation

174
Q

How much buccal midazolam can a child have in 24 hours in community?

A

one dose of a pre filled syringe
must be brought to hospital after

175
Q

What is a simple focal seizure?

A

maintains consciousness

176
Q

What is a complex focal seizure?

A

loses consciousness

177
Q

Describe West syndrome

A

infantile spasms
hypsarrhythmia
intellectual disability
characteristic salaam spells

178
Q

Aetiologies of West syndrome

A

perinatal hypoxia
tuberous sclerosis
metabolic causes

179
Q

West syndrome treatment

A

steroids
vigabatrin

180
Q

Describe childhood absence epilepsy

A

idiopathic
strong FH
F>M
starts 4-10y
lasts 5-30s
abrupt start + stop
rhythmic 3Hz bilateral synchronous symmetric spike wave discharge

181
Q

Childhood absence epilepsy treatment

A

ethosuximide
valproate
lamotrigine

carbamazepine is contraindicated

182
Q

Describe BCECT

A

benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
more often during sleep
brief simple, partial, hemifacial motor seizures
blunt high voltage centrotemporal spikes
normally no treatment
all patients will eventually enter remission

183
Q

What is the main role of anti-epileptic drugs?

A

prevent further seizures/status epilepticus

184
Q

What is CSE?

A

convulsive status epilepticus
>5 mins seizure