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Last Ditch > Scrub Out/Anatomy > Flashcards

Scrub Out/Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

Batista procedure

A

Partial left ventriculectomy

Treatment for heart failure after medical management

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1
Q

Procedure of choice for pyloric stenosis

A

Fredt-Ramstedt

Palpable olive in the midepigastrium

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2
Q

Adult remnants:

Ductus venosus
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosum
Umbilican vein
Left umbilical artery
Remnant of urachus
A 
Ligamentum venosum
Fossa ovale
Ligamentum arteriosum
Ligamentum teres
Medical umbilical ligament
Medical umbilical ligament
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3
Q

Procedure for bleeding esophageal varices

A

Segura procedure

Gold standard: endoscopic band ligation

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4
Q

Vein involved in esophageal varices

A

Left gastric vein

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5
Q

Most common sclerosing agent

A

Tetradecyl sulfate

Cheapest: alcohol

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6
Q

Layer where sclerosing agent is injected

A

Submucosa

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7
Q

Type of gastric tube inserted for bleeding esophageal varices

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

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8
Q

What are the blood supply of the following segments of the esophagus:

1) Cervical (C6-T1)
2) Thoracic (T3-T10)
3) Abdomen

A

1) Inferior thyroid (5-6 cm)
2) Bronchial arteries (15 cm)
3) Left gastric, Inferior phrenic (5-6 cm)

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9
Q

Portal pressure to say that it is portal hypertension

A

> 12 mmHg

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10
Q

In refractory bleeding, what procedure is done in acute variceal bleeding

A

TIPS

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11
Q

Which vessels are blocked by the Sengstaken-blakemore tube

A

Left gastric
Esophageal
Vasa brevia (branch of splenic artery that supplies the greater curvature)

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12
Q

Largest branch of the celiac trunk

A

Splenic artery

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13
Q

What type of obstruction in schistosomiasis

A

Pre-sinusoidal obstruction

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14
Q

Whipple’s procedure is also known as a

A

Pancreatico-Duodeno-Jejunostomy

Procedure of choice for pancreatic CA

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15
Q

Procedure for chronic pancreatitis

A

What is a Peustow procedure

Lateral pancreaticojejunostomy

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16
Q

Chain of lakes appearance is seen in?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

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17
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure

Hepato-porto-enterostomy

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18
Q

What is Bilroth I? Bilroth II?

A

I: Antrectomy + Gastroduodenostomy
II: Antrectomy + Gastrojejunostomy

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19
Q

Procedure of choice for duodenal atresia

A

Ladd’s procedure

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20
Q

Procedure of choice for Barette’s esophagus

A

Nissen’s fundoplication

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21
Q

Most common predisposing condition factor to a Barette’s esophagus

A

GERD

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22
Q

Most common primary esophageal motility disorder

A

Nutcracker/supersqueezer esophagus

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23
Q

What is Lichenstein herniorrhaphy

A

Tension free with mesh

Mesh has a low recurrence rate

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24
Q

Pringle maneuver temporarily occludes which blood vessels?

A

Porta hepatis (hepatic artery + portal vein)

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25
Q

Portal veins supplies how many percent of blood to the liver

A

70%

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26
Q

Procedure of choice for a ruptured peptic ulcer

A

Graham omental patch

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27
Q

Bleeding of peptic ulcer is secondary to which artery?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

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28
Q

Procedure of choice for ascending aortic aneurysm

A

Bentall procedure

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29
Q

Most common cause of aortic aneurysm in pediatrics? adults?

A

Pedia: Kawasaki
Adults: Marfan

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30
Q

Most common type of aortic aneurysm

A

DeBakey I or Standford A (Proximal)

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31
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for a full rectal prolapse

A

Thiersh procedure

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32
Q

Procedure of choice for achalasia

A

Heller’s mymotomy

Myotomoy +/- Partial fundoplication

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33
Q

Radiology: bird’s beak appearance

A

Achalasia

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34
Q

Strongest layer of the esophagus

A

Submucosa

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35
Q

Most common site of squamous cell CA of the esophagus?

A

Middle third

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36
Q

Most common benign tumor of the esophagus?

A

Leiomyoma

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37
Q

Most common benign tumor of the stomach

A

Leiomyoma

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38
Q

What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Esophageal webs + atrophic glossitis + iron deficiency anemia

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39
Q

What type of CA is most commonly associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Squamous cell CA

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40
Q

What is the other name of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

Patterson-Brown-Kelly Syndrome

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41
Q

Most common esophageal hernia

A

Sliding esophageal hernia

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42
Q

Most common site of Mallory-Weiss Tear

A

Distal third of the esophagus (GEJ)

Mallory-Weiss ~ alcoholic

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43
Q

What is Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

Pressure rupture of the esophagus

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44
Q

Most common site of perforation in the esophagus?

A

Killian’s triangle

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45
Q

Most common site of Zenker’s diverticulum

A

Killian’s triangle

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46
Q

Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

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47
Q

Killian’s triangle involves which 2 muscles?

A

Between the Inferior pharyngeal constrictor and cricopharyngeus

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48
Q

Surgical incision: low longitudinal incision of the uterus used to the deliver babies abdominally

A

Kronig incision

Transverse: Kerr incision

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49
Q

Procedure of choice in Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Rectal pullthrough

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50
Q

Best age to do a rectal pullthrough

A

6 months - 12 months (12 months is the best)

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51
Q

Mile’s procedure is also known as an?

A

Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

Done in colorectal CA

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52
Q

Surgical procedure of choice in colorectal CA

A

Mile’s procedure

Low Anterior Resection: the closer you are to the rectus

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53
Q

Procedure pertaining to a esphagectomy through a right thoracotomy

A

Ivor Lewis procedure

To access squamous cell CA of the esophagus in the middle third

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54
Q

Heinz-Mikulicz procedure pertains to what?

A

Longitudinal pyloric incision

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55
Q

McIndoe procedure pertains to a

A

Vaginal reconstructive surgery

“Mc-INDAY”

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56
Q

Brook ileostomy pertains to a

A

Brooke ileostomy

Done in ulcerative colitis

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57
Q

Procedure of choice in refractory ascites

A

Denver shunt

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58
Q

Procedure of choice in a thyroglossal duct cyst

A

Sistrunk procedure

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59
Q

Procedure of choice in rectal CA less than 8cm from the anal verge

A

APR (Mile’s procedure)

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60
Q

Stages of decubitus ulcer that extends into muscle and bone

A

Stage IV

61
Q

Full thickness burns involves which layers?

A

3rd degree burn

All layers of skin + entire dermis

62
Q

Bochdalek’s hernia

A

Left posterior diaphragmatic hernia

Most common
Morgagni: anterior diaphragmatic hernia

63
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of glaucoma

A

Tonometry

64
Q

Ideal pre-op bowel prep antibiotic

A

Netilmycin

65
Q

What is Dakin solution

A

Dilute sodium hypochlorite (bleach) used in contaminated wounds

66
Q

Amyand’s hernia pertains to a?

A

Hernial sac that contains a ruptured appendix

67
Q

Accepted sclerosant for pleural effusion?

A

TALC

68
Q

Flap used in a deep pressure ulcer

A

Gluteus maximus flap

69
Q

Best management for a 3cm basal cell CA of the nose?

A

Excision with 2-4 mm margin

70
Q

A small thick antectubital scar from a 2nd degree flame burn is constricting movement. To relieve the constriction, the appropriate procedure of choice to refashion the scar?

A

Z-plasty (CONTRACTURE)

71
Q

Radio: Coral reef appearance

A

Colonic angiodysplasia

Common cause of lower GI bleed in the elderly

72
Q

Most common site of rupture in the colon

A

Cecum (most dilated portion)

Law of Laplace’s: wall tension = pressure x radius

73
Q

Most common cause of lower GI bleeds in adults? Pedia?

A

Adults: Diverticulosis
Pedia: Meckel’s diverticulum

74
Q

Most common source of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma

A

Organs of Zuckerkandl

Located near the abdominal aorta

75
Q

Ecchymosis over the mastoid process pertaining to a basilar skull fracture

A

Battle’s sign

Never insert an NGT

76
Q

Bilateral black eyes pertaining to a basilar skull fracture

A

Raccoon eyes

77
Q

Blood vessel of choice for CABG

A

Left internal mammary artery

Due to superior patency rates vs. greater saphenous vein

78
Q

Most common site of a carcinoid tumor

A

Appendix

79
Q

When is the best time to perform a surgery for undescended testis

A

6-12 months

80
Q

Most common site of squamous cell CA in the esophagus

A

Middle third

82
Q

Normal amount of pericardial fluid

A

30-50mL

84
Q

Most commonly fractured in the body

A

Clavicle

85
Q

Most commonly fractured facial bone

A

Nasal bone

86
Q

Hangman’s fracture involves

A

Fracture of C2

87
Q

Jefferson fracture

A

Fracture of C1

88
Q

Arrest of respiration occurs at which cervical level?

A

C2-C3

89
Q

Clay Shoveller’s fracture

A

Fracture of C7

90
Q

Blue sclerae

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Defect in type I collagen

91
Q

Dangers of porcelain gallbladder

A

Risk of CA is 30-65%

92
Q

In a thyroidectomy, if the inferior thyroid artery is injured, what is affected?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

93
Q

In a thyroidectomy, if the superior thyroid artery is injured, what is affected?

A

External laryngeal nerve

94
Q

Most common site of a cholecysenteric fistula

A

Duodenum

95
Q

Part of the male urethra that offers the greatest resistance

A

Membranous urethra

Prostatic urethra will only cause resistance if there is BPH/enlargement

96
Q

Most dilatable portion of the male urethra

A

Prostatic urethra

97
Q

Widest part of the Fallopian tube

A

Ampulla

98
Q

Narrowest part of the Fallopian tube

A

Isthmus

99
Q

Where is lumbar tap done

A

L4-L5

L3-L4

100
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in adults? Children?

A

Adults: L1
Children: L2-L3

101
Q

Platelet level for OR in emergency situation? In elective surgery?

A

Stat: 50,000
Elective: 100,000

102
Q

Only motor innervation of the diaphragm

A

Phrenic nerve

C3, C4, C5

103
Q

Origin of the diphargm

A

Septum transversum
or Pleuroperitoneal fold/membrane
C3, C4, C5

104
Q

Nerve responsible for erection

A

Pudendal

S2, S3, S4

105
Q

Winging of the scapula

A

Long thoracic nerve
C5, C6, C7

Serratus anterior muscle

106
Q

Most allergenic fluid

A

Dextran

107
Q

Hartmann’s solution

A

Compound sodium lactate that is isotonic with blood, intended for IV administration

108
Q

Most common severe complication of liver abscess

A

Amoebic pericarditis (rupture into the pericardium)

109
Q

How is Hirschsprung disease diagnosed?

A

Proctosigmoidoscopy + deep rectal biopsy

110
Q

When is meconium passed?

A

24-48 hours of life

111
Q

Management of a pregnant patient at 7 months AOG + Grade III hemorrhoids

A

Hot sitz bath

112
Q

Hemorrhoids that can be manually reduced

A

Grade III

113
Q

How to manage acute cholecystitis in pregnant patients

A

20 weeks: open cholecystectomy

114
Q

Most common site of metastasis in Wilm’s tumor

A

Lungs

115
Q

Wilms tumor + macroglossia

A

Beckwidth-Wiedemann syndrome

116
Q

Macroglossia is seen in 2 conditions:

A

Hypothyroidism

Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome

117
Q

Most common site of metastases for neuroblastoma

A

Bone

118
Q

Stratum basale is also known as

A

Stratum germinativum

119
Q

Most common benign parotid mass

A

Pleomorhpic adenoma

120
Q

Most common malignant parotid mass

A

Mucoepidermoid

121
Q

Most common presenting sign of anal fissures

A

Pain > bleeding

122
Q

Most common sign of Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Bleeding

123
Q

Most common source or primary tumor that leads to malignant pleural effusion

A

Lung CA

124
Q

Intraaortic ballon pump is inserted where?

A

Distal to brachiocephalic

125
Q

Most common site of rupture of colonic obstruction

A

Cecum

Law of Laplace: rupture occurs in areas with the greatest diameter

126
Q

Most common organism in acute appendicitis

A

E. coli > Klebsiella and Bacteroides

127
Q

Veins of Retzius and Sappey are found in which condition?

A

Portal hypertension

128
Q

In facial nerve injury, which graft is used?

A

Sural nerve

It is accessible, long, with low rejection

129
Q

Least foreign body reaction in closing a surgical wound in the face

A

Staples (titanium-based)

Cotton, nylon, and prolene are not used

130
Q

Chronic lesion from a wound

A

Marjolin’s ulcer

131
Q

Nerve responsible for recurrent ulcers

A

Criminal nerve of Grassi

From proximal branch of the posterior vagus nerve

132
Q

Psoas sign is

A

Pain on extending the hip with knee in full extension

Detects retrocecal appendicitis

133
Q

Most common manifestation of appendicitis

A

Anorexia (hamburger sign)

134
Q

Most posterior cavity in the peritoneal cavity

A

Morrison’s pouch

Hepatorenal recess

135
Q

During normal breathing, what is the position of the vocal cords

A

Wide open (to allow easy passage of air)

Seen in laryngoscope

136
Q

Most common artery hit in pericardiocentesis

A

Internal thoracic artery

137
Q

Best access in performing pericardiocentesis

A

Subxiphoid approach

138
Q

Most common level of tracheal stenosis

A

Tracheal ring 1 (C1)

139
Q

Tracheostomy is placed at what cervical level?

A

C2-C4

140
Q

Longest portion of the fallopian tube

A

Ampulla

141
Q

Site of the major papilla in the second part of the duodenum

A

Posteromedial wall

142
Q

Zone of the neck where most traumatic injury occurs

A

Zone II

143
Q

Most common site of abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Infrarenal

144
Q

Most common type of thoracic aneurysm

A

DeBakey 1

145
Q

Left gastric vein drains to the

A

Portal vein

Portal vein = splenic vein + IMV

146
Q

Where is the site of weakness in a diaphragmatic hernia

A

Septum transversarium or pleuroperioneal membrane

147
Q

Least painful agent for pleurodesis

A

TALC (poweder)

148
Q

Most commonly involved cranial nerve in NPCA

A

CN V

149
Q

Causes dilatation of vessels for erection

A

Nitric oxide

160
Q

Gluteus maximus is innervated by which nerve?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve

196
Q

Undescended thesis

A

Cryptorchidism

Last Ditch (14 decks)

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