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Book of Tables > Scales and Assessment Tools > Flashcards

Scales and Assessment Tools Flashcards

1
Q

Grading of Pulse Quality (Strength)

0

A

Absent

No perceptible pulse even with maximum pressure

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2
Q

Grading of Pulse Quality (Strength)

1+

A

Thready

Barely perceptible
Easily obliterated with slight pressure
Fades in and out

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3
Q

Grading of Pulse Quality (Strength)

Obliterated with LIGHT pressure

A

2+ (Weak)

Difficult to palpate
Slightly stronger than Thready

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4
Q

Grading of Pulse Quality (Strength)

Obliterated with MODERATE pressure

A

3+ (Normal)

Easy to palpate

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5
Q

Grading of Pulse Quality (Strength)

Very strong

A

4+ (Bounding)

Hyperactive
Not obliterated with moderate pressure

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6
Q

Types of Fever

Intermittent

A

Body temperature alternates at regular intervals between periods of FEVER and NORMAL temperature

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7
Q

Types of Fever

Remittent

A

Elevated body temperature that fluctuates MORE THAN 3.6F (2C) within a 24-hour period, but REMAINS ABOVE NORMAL

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8
Q

Types of Fever

Periods of fever are interspersed with normal temperatures, each last AT LEAST ONE DAY

Other name?

A

Relapsing Fever (Recurrent Fever)

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9
Q

Types of Fever

Body temperature may fluctuate SLIGHTLY, but is CONSTANTLY ELEVATED ABOVE NORMAL

A

Constant Fever

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10
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

0

A

No increase in muscle tone

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11
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

Slight increase in muscle tone
Catch and release or minimal resistance at the end of the ROM

A

1

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12
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

Slight increase in muscle tone
Catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM

A

1+

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13
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

2

A

More marked increase in muscle tone through the ROM

Affected part still easily moved

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14
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

Considerable increase in muscle tone
Passive movement becomes difficult

A

3

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15
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS)

4

A

Affected part in rigid flexion or extension

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16
Q

Abnormal pulses

Decreased pulse pressure with a slow upstroke and prolonged peak

A

Small, Weak pulse

Causes: Increased peripheral vascular resistance such as occurs in cold weather or severe congestive heart failure; decreased stroke volume such as occurs in hypovolemia or aortic stenosis

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17
Q

Abnormal pulses

Causes are: Increased stroke volume, as in aortic regurgitation; increased stiffness of arterial walls, as in atherosclerosis or normal aging; exercise; anxiety; fever; hypertension

Describe the pulse.

A

Large, Bounding pulse

Bounding pulse in which a great surge precedes a sudden absence of force or fullness

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18
Q

Abnormal pulses

Corrigan’s pulse

Describe the pulse.

Other name? Causes?

A

Water-Hammer pulse

Increased pulse pressure with a rapid upstroke and downstroke and a shortened peaks

Causes: Aortic regurgitation, patent ductus arteriosus, systemic arteriosclerosis

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19
Q

Abnormal pulses

Only cause is left ventricular failure

Describe the pulse.

A

Pulsus Alterans

Regular pulse rhythm with alternation of weak and strong beats (amplitude or volume)

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20
Q

Abnormal pulses

Due to Premature ventricular beats caused by heart failure, hypoxia, or other conditions

Describe the pulse.

A

Pulsus Bigeminus

Irregular pulse rhythm in which premature beats alternate with sinus beats

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21
Q

Abnormal pulses

Pulsus Bisferiens

Causes?

A

A strong upstroke, downstroke, and second upstroke during systole

Causes are: aortic insufficiency, aortic regurgitation, aortic stenosis

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22
Q

Abnormal pulses

Pulse with a markedly decreased amplitude during inspiration

Causes?

A

Pulsus paradoxus

Causes: constrictive pericarditis, pericardial tamponade, advanced heart failure, severe lung disease

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23
Q

Respiratory patterns

Eupnea is described as?

A

Normal respirations
Equal rate and depth
12-20 breaths per minute

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24
Q

Respiratory patterns

Bradypnea is described as?

Rate?

A

Slow respiratons

<10 breaths per minute

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25
Q

Respiratory patterns

Tachypnea is described as? Usual depth of respiration?

Rate?

A

Fast respirations
Usually shallow
>24 breaths per minute

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26
Q

Respiratory patterns

Respirations that are regular but abnormally deep and increased in rate

A

Kussmaul’s respirations

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27
Q

Respiratory patterns

Irregular respirations of variable depth
(usually shallow), alternating with periods
of apnea (absence of breathing)
A

Biot’s respirations

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28
Q

Respiratory patterns

Gradual increase in depth of respirations
followed by gradual decrease and then a
period of apnea

A

Cheyne-Strokes respirations

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29
Q

Respiratory patterns

Absence of breathing

A

Apnea

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30
Q

Common sensory impairments

Inability to recognize weight

A

Abarognosis

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31
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Allesthesia and Pallanesthesia

A

Allesthesia: Sensation experienced at a site remote from point of stimulation

Pallanesthesia: Loss or absence of sensibility to vibration

They are not related!

Hint: In allesthesia, “All-“ is derived from Gr. “Allos” meaning “other”

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32
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Allodynia and Hyperalgesia

A

Allodynia: Pain produced by a non-noxious stimulus

Hyperalgesia: Increased sensitivity to pain

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33
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Analgesia and Hypalgesia

A

Analgesia: Complete loss of pain sensitivity

Hypalgesia: Decreased sensitivity to pain

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34
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Dysesthesia and Allesthesia

A

Allesthesia: Sensation experienced at a site remote from point of stimulation

Dysesthesia: Touch sensation experienced as pain

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35
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Atopognosia and Allesthesia

A

Atopognosia: Inability to localize a sensation

Allesthesia: Sensation experienced at a site remote from point of stimulation

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36
Q

Common sensory impairments

Synonymous with Tactile agnosia

Describe.

A

Astereognosis: Inability to recognize the form and shape of objects by touch

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37
Q

Common sensory impairments

Causalgia

A

Painful, burning sensations, usually along the distribution of a nerve

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38
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Hypesthesia and Hyperesthesia

A

Hyperesthesia: Increased sensitivity to sensory stimuli

Hypesthesia: Decreased sensitivity to sensory stimuli

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39
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Dysesthesia and Paresthesia

A

Dysesthesia: Touch sensation experienced as pain

Paresthesia: Abnormal sensation such as numbness, prickling, or tingling, without apparent cause

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40
Q

Common sensory impairments

Describle Thalamic (Pain) Syndrome

A

Vascular lesion of the thalamus

Results in: Sensory disturbances and partial or complete paralysis of one side of the body, associated with severe, boring-type pain; sensory stimuli may produce an exaggerated, prolonged, or painful response

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41
Q

Common sensory impairments

Type of pain experience in Thalamic (Pain) Syndrome

A

Boring-type pain

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42
Q

Common sensory impairments

True or false: In Thalamic (Pain) Syndrome, paralysis does not occur.

A

False.

Partial or complete paralysis on one side of the body may occur.

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43
Q

Common sensory impairments

Difference of Thermanalgesia and Thermanesthesia

A

Thermanalgesia: Inability to perceive heat

Thermanesthesia: Inability to perceive sensations of heat and cold

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44
Q

Common sensory impairments

Increased sensitivity to temperature

A

Thermhyperesthesia

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45
Q

Common sensory impairments

Decreased temperature sensibility

A

Thermhypesthesia

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46
Q

Common sensory impairments

Thigmanesthesia

A

Loss of light touch sensibility

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47
Q

Grading of ligamentous instability

I

A

0-5 mm

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48
Q

Grading of ligamentous instability

6-10 mm

A

II

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49
Q

Grading of ligamentous instability

11-15 mm

A

III

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50
Q

Grading of ligamentous instability

IV

A

> 15 mm

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51
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Scapula

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Retraction and downward rotation

Rhomboids

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52
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Shoulder

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Adduction and internal rotation, depression

Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi,
teres major, subscapularis

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53
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Elbow

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Flexion

Biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis

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54
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Forearm

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Pronation

Pronator teres, Pronator quadratus

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55
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Wrist

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Flexion, adduction

Flexor carpi radialis

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56
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Hand

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Finger flexion, clenched fist, thumb adducted in palm

Flexor digitorum profundus / sublimis, adductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis

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57
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Pelvis

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Retraction (hip hiking)

Quadratus lumborum

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58
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Hip

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Hip Adduction (scissoring): Adductor longus/brevis

Internal rotation: Adductor magnus, gracilis

Extension: Gluteus maximus

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59
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Knee

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Extension

Quadriceps

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60
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Foot and ankle

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Plantarflexion: Gastrocnemius/soleus

Inversion, Equinovarus: Tibialis posterior

Claw toes (TMT extension + MTP flexion), Curling of toes (TMT and MTP flexion): Long toe flexors, Extensor hallucis longus, Peroneus longus

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61
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Hip and knee in prolonged sitting

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Flexion: Iliopsoas

If sacral sitting: Rectus femoris, pectineus, hamstrings

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62
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Trunk

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Lateral flexion with concavity: Rotators

Rotation: Internal / External obliques

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63
Q

Typical Patterns of Spasticity in UMNLs

Forward posture in prolonged sitting

Action and muscle/s responsible

A

Excessive forward flexion and forward head

Rectus abdominis, External obliques, Psoas minor

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64
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Jaw Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

CN 5

Patient is sitting, with jaw relaxed and slightly open. Place finger on top of chin; tap downward on top of finger in a direction that causes the jaw to open.

Jaw rebounds and closes

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65
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Biceps Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6)

Patient is sitting with arm flexed and supported. Place thumb over the biceps tendon in the cubital fossa, stretching
it slightly. Tap thumb or directly on tendon.

Slight contraction of elbow flexors

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66
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Bracioradialis (supinator) Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Radial nerve (C5, C6)

Patient is sitting with arm flexed onto the abdomen. Place finger on the radial tuberosity and tap finger with hammer.

Slight contraction of elbow
flexors, slight wrist extension
or radial deviation

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67
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Triceps Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Radial nerve (C6, C7)

Patient is sitting with arm supported in abduction, elbow flexed. Palpate triceps tendon just above olecranon. Tap directly on tendon.

Slight contraction of elbow extensors

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68
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Finger Flexor Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Median nerve (C6-T1)

Hold hand in neutral position. Place finger across palmar surface of distal phalanges of four fingers and tap.

Slight contraction of finger flexors

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69
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Hamstrings Reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Tibial branch of the Sciatic nerve (L5, S1, S2)

Patient is prone with knee semiflexed and supported. Palpate tendon at the knee. Tap on finger or directly on tendon.

Slight contraction of knee flexors

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70
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Quadriceps Reflex

Other names of this reflex?

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Femoral nerve (L2, L3, L4)

Knee Jerk or Patellar Reflex

Patient is sitting with knee flexed, foot unsupported. Tap tendon of quadriceps muscle between the patella and tibial tuberosity.

Slight contraction of knee extensors

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71
Q

Examination of DTRs

Nerve mediating the Achilles Reflex

Other names of this reflex?

Describe the procedure and response.

A

Tibial nerve (S1, S2)

Ankle Jerk

Patient is prone with foot over the end of the plinth or sitting with knee flexed and foot held in slight dorsiflexion. Tap tendon just above its insertion on the calcaneus. Maintaining slight tension on the gastrocnemius-soleus group improves the response.

Slight contraction of plantarflexors

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72
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

Roots of the Plantar reflex

Describe the procedure and response.

A

S1, S2

With blunt object (key or wooden end of applicator stick), stroke the lateral aspect of the sole, moving from the heel to the ball of the foot, curving medially across the ball of the foot.

Normal response is flexion (plantarflexion)
of the great toe, and sometimes the other toes (negative Babinski sign).

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73
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

Describe the abnormal response to the Plantar reflex. What is this response called? What does this sign generally indicate?

A

Positive Babinski sign

Extension (dorsiflexion) of the great toe
with fanning of the four other toes (indicates UMN lesions).

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74
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

How is the Plantar reflex tested if the patient has sensitive feet? Where should the examiner stroke, and what are these tests called?

Describe the response.

A

Chaddock: stroke lateral ankle and lateral aspect of foot

Oppenheim: stroke down tibial crest

Responses are similar to the Negative Babinski sign if normal, and Positive Babinski sign if abnormal.

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75
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

Describe the procedure and response of Abdominal reflexes.

A

Position patient in supine, relaxed. Make brisk, light stroke over each quadrant of the abdominals from the periphery to the umbilicus.

Localized contraction under the stimulus, causing the umbilicus to move toward the stimulus.

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76
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

What are the roots of the abdominal reflex above the umbilicus?

If it is tested, the response is masked if the patient is?

A

T8-T10

Obesity

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77
Q

Examination of Superficial Cutaneous Reflexes

What are the roots of the abdominal reflex below the umbilicus?

In which can it be absent, UMNLs or LMNLs?

A

T10-T12

Both

78
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

What are the Primitive Reflexes? These are also called ______ reflexes.

A

Primitive reflexes are also called Spinal Reflexes because the integration center is at the Spinal Cord

Flexor Withdrawal
Crossed Extension
Traction
Moro
Grasp (Plantar and Palmar)
Startle
Rooting

Mnemonic (lecture): FaCe The Morayta GroupS + Rooting

79
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

What are the Tonic Reflexes? These are also called ______ reflexes.

A

Tonic reflexes are also called Brainstem Reflexes because the integration center is at the Brainstem

STNR
ATNR
Positive Supporting
TLR
Associated Reactions

Mnemonic (lecture): SAPTA

80
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Flexor withdrawal reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 28 weeks of gestation
Integration: 1-2 months

81
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Crossed extension reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 28 weeks of gestation
Integration: 1-2 months

82
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Traction reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 28 weeks of gestation
Integration: 2-5 months

83
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Moro reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 28 weeks of gestation
Integration: 5-6 months

84
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Plantar Grasp reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 28 weeks of gestation
Integration: 9 months

85
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Palmar Grasp reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: 4-6 months

86
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Rooting reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: 3 months

87
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The STNR starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: 4-6 months
Integration: 8-12 months

88
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The ATNR starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: 4-6 months

89
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Startle reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: persists throughout life

90
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Positive supporting reflex starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: 6 months

91
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The TLR starts and integrates when?

A

Onset: birth
Integration: 6 months

92
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Associated Reactions start and integrate when?

A

Onset: birth - 3 months
Integration: 8-9 years

93
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Response is grasping and total flexion of the UE

A

Traction

94
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Stimulus is grasping the forearm and pulling up from supine into sitting

A

Traction

95
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Stimulus and response of the flexor withdrawal reflex

A

Noxious stimulus (pinprick) to the sole of the foot. Tested in supine or sitting.

Toes extend, foot dorsiflexes, entire LE flexes uncontrollably.

96
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Stimulus and response of the crossed extension reflex

A

Noxious stimulus to ball of foot of LE fixed in extension; tested in supine position

Opposite LE flexes, then adducts and extends.

97
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Noxious stimulus presented at the SOLE of the foot

A

Flexor withdrawal

Mnemonic: Flex-Sole; Ball-Ex

98
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Noxious stimulus presented at the BALL of the foot

A

Crossed extension

Mnemonic: Flex-Sole; Ball-Ex

99
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Stimulus and response of the Moro reflex

A

Sudden change in position of head in relation to trunk; drop patient backward from sitting position.

Extension, abduction of UEs, hand opening, and crying followed by flexion, adduction of arms across chest.

100
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

In the response of Moro reflex, which occurs first?

UE abduction or UE adduction?
UE flexion or UE extension?
Crying or hand opening?
Crying or UE flexion?

A

UE abduction
UE extension
At the same time
Crying

Sequence:
UE extension + UE abduction + Hand opening + Crying; then
UE flexion + UE adduction across the chest

101
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The only reflex that persists throughout life.

A

Startle

102
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The response is sudden extension or abduction of the UEs and crying ONLY.

Name the reflex. What is its stimulus?

A

Startle

Sudden loud or harsh noise.

103
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The stimulus is rotating the head to one side.

Name the reflex. What is its response? The posturing assumed is/are called what?

This reflex, when not integrated, interferes with what activity?

A

Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR)

Flexion of skull limbs, extension of the jaw limbs.

Bow and arrow or Fencing posture.

Rolling, Eating

104
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Stimulus is maintained pressure to either the palm of the hand or the ball of the foot under the toes.

Name the reflex. What is the response?

A

Grasp reflex (Palmar if at the hand, or Plantar if at the foot)

Maintained flexion of the fingers (Palmar) or toes (Plantar)

105
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

True or False: In Grasp reflex, after a brief application of pressure to the palm of the hand, there is maintained flexion of the fingers.

A

False.

Pressure is maintained, not briefly applied.

106
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

True or False: In Grasp reflex, maintained pressure to the ball of the foot causes the toes to flex briefly.

A

False.

The toes are maintained in flexion as long as pressure is maintained.

107
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

If not integrated, this reflex interferes with the assumption of the Quadruped position.

Name the reflex. Describe the stimulus and response.

A

Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)

Flexion or extension of the head.

Flexion: flexion of UEs, extension of LEs;
Extension: extension of UEs, flexion
of LEs

108
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

If not integrated, this reflex interferes with walking and stair negotiation.

Name the reflex. Describe the stimulus and response.

A

Positive supporting

Contact to the ball of the foot in upright standing position

Rigid extension (co-contraction) of the LEs.

109
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

The Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (TLR) is also called?

A

Symmetric Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (STLR)

110
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

If not integrated, this reflex interferes with activities that involve moving from supine to sitting

Name the reflex. Describe the stimulus and response.

A

Symmetric Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (STLR or TLR)

Prone or supine position

Prone: increased flexor tone (flexion of all limbs)
Supine: increased extensor tone (extension of all limbs)

111
Q

Primitive and Tonic Reflexes

Involuntary movements at the resting extremity occur when a voluntary movement in any part of the body is resisted.

This is due to what reflex?

A

Associated reactions

112
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

ICIDH defines _____ as the intrinsic pathology or disorder.

A

Disease

113
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

Nagi defines _____ as an interruption or interference with normal processes, and efforts of the organism to regain normal state.

A

Active pathology

114
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

True or False: ICIDH and Nagi define Disability as any restriction or lack (resulting from an impairment) of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being.

A

False.

This is the ICIDH definition of Disability.

Nagi describes disability as: Limitation in performance of socially defined roles and tasks within a sociocultural and physical environment.

115
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

The ICIDH definition of Impairment is similar to that of Nagi’s.

A

True.

ICIDH: Impairments are any loss or abnormality of physchological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function.

Nagi: Impairments are anatomical, physiological, mental, or emotional abnormalities or loss.

116
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

Functional Limitations is used by which framework?

A

Nagi

117
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

The description of Functional Limitation by Nagi is synonymous to which among those used by ICIDH?

A

Disability.

Functional Limitation: Limitation in performance at the level of the whole organism or person.

Disability (ICIDH): Any restriction or lack (resulting from an impairment) of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being

118
Q

Historical Disablement Frameworks

ICIDH’s definition of a Handicap is synonymous to which term used by Nagi?

A

Disability.

Handicap: A disadvantage for a given individual, resulting from an impairment or disability, that limits or prevents the
fulfillment of a role that is normal (depending on age, sex, and social and cultural factors) for that individual

Disability (Nagi): Limitation in performance of socially defined roles and tasks within a sociocultural and physical environment

119
Q

Descriptors of Weight-Bearing Status

100%

A

Full weight-bearing (FWB)

There are no restrictions on weight-bearing

120
Q

Descriptors of Weight-Bearing Status

Limited by patient tolerance

A

Weight-bearing as tolerated (WBAT)

121
Q

Descriptors of Weight-Bearing Status

Partial weight-bearing (PWB)

A

Only a portion of weight can be borne on the extremity

Sometimes expressed as a percentage of body weight

122
Q

Descriptors of Weight-Bearing Status

The LE is non-weight-bearing, but is allowed to contact the floor

What is the other name for this WB status?

What part of the LE is allowed to contact the floor?

A

Toe-touch weight-bearing (TTWB)
Touch-down weight-bearing (TDWB)

Only the toes of the affected extremity contact the floor to improve balance, and not to support body weight.

123
Q

Descriptors of Weight-Bearing Status

The foot is not allowed to contact the floor; hence, no weight is borne on the extremity.

A

Non-weight bearing (NWB)

124
Q

GOLD Classification

FEV1/FVC < 70% is one of the prerequisites of which stage?

A

All stages (I, II, III, IV)

125
Q

GOLD Classification

Mild COPD is characterized by?

A

I

FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 ≥ 80% predicted
With or without symptoms of cough and sputum production

126
Q

GOLD Classification

Moderate COPD is characterized by?

A

II

FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 is 50-79% predicted
Shortness of breath with exertion
With or without symptoms of cough and sputum production

127
Q

GOLD Classification

Severe COPD is characterized by?

A

III

FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 is 30-49% predicted
Greater shortness of breath with exercise,
Decreased exercise capacity
Fatigue and repeated exacerbations of the disease

128
Q

GOLD Classification

Very Severe COPD is characterized by?

A

IV

FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 is < 30% predicted OR FEV1 is < 50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure

129
Q

GOLD Classification

True or False: The patient’s FEV1 is at 32% and presents with chronic respiratory failure. The patient is classified as at stage III.

A

False.

The patient is at stage IV (very severe).
FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 is < 30% predicted OR FEV1 is < 50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure

130
Q

GOLD Classification

True or False: The patient’s FEV1 is at 32% and presents with chronic respiratory failure. The patient is classified as at stage III.

A

False.

The patient is at stage IV (very severe).
FEV1/FVC < 70%
FEV1 is < 30% predicted OR FEV1 is < 50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure

131
Q

GOLD Classification

The patient experiences shortness of breath with exertion.

A

II (Moderate) or III

132
Q

GOLD Classification

True or False: To be classified as stage II (Moderate), the patient has to demonstrate symptoms of cough and has to produce moderate amounts of sputum.

A

False.

In stage I (mild) and II (moderate), symptoms of cough and sputum production MAY OR MAY NOT be present.

133
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

3 domains assessed?

A

Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Best Motor Response

134
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Highest possible score

A

15

135
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Lowest possible score

A

3

136
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Maximum score for each domain

A

Eye opening: 4
Verbal response: 5
Motor response: 6

137
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Spontaneous eye opening

A

4

138
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Eye opening to pain

A

2

139
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Eye opening to speech

A

3

140
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Does not open eyes (no response)

A

1

141
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Follows motor commands

A

6

142
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Localizes pain

A

5

143
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Withdraws from pain

A

4

144
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Abnormal flexion

A

3

145
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Extensor response

A

2

146
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

No motor response

A

1

147
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Oriented speech

A

5

148
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Confused conversation

A

4

149
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Inappropriate words

A

3

150
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Incomprehensible sounds

A

2

151
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

No verbal response

A

1

152
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

The patient demonstrates decorticate posturing and opens his eyes once his name is called. The patient says random words in response to your questions.

GCS score

A

Motor: 3
Verbal: 3
Eye: 3

9

153
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Upon entering the room, the patient is awake. The patient demonstrates decerebrate posturing. When asked what year it is, the patient responds “2055.”

GCS score

A

Motor: 2
Verbal: 4
Eye: 4

10

154
Q

Severity of TBI

Mild TBI is characterized by:

A 
LOC: 0-30 mins
AOC: brief >24 hours
PTA: 0-1 day
GCS: 13-15
Normal findings in neuroimaging
155
Q

Severity of TBI

Moderate TBI is characterized by:

A 
LOC: >30 mins - <24 hours
AOC: >24 hours
PTA: >1 - <7 days
GCS: 9-12
Normal or abnormal findings in neuroimaging
156
Q

Severity of TBI

Severe TBI is characterized by:

A 
LOC: >24 hours
AOC: >24 hours
PTA: >7 days
GCS: <9
Normal or abnormal findings in neuroimaging
157
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

I

A

Straight

Fracture across the physis only

158
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

II

A

Above

Fracture involves the physis and the metaphysis

159
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

III

A

Lower

Fracture involves the physis and the epiphysis

160
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

IV

A

Through

Fracture involves the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis

161
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

V

A

Erased

Fracture involves crushing of the growth plate

162
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

VI

A

Ring

Fracture involves the peripheral physis develops into a ridge and can cause angular deformities

163
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

VIII

A

Fractures involves the metaphysis only

164
Q

Salter Harris Classification for Growth Plate Fractures

IX

A

Fracture involves the periosteum only

165
Q

Garden Classification of Femoral Neck Fractures

I

A

Incomplete

166
Q

Garden Classification of Femoral Neck Fractures

II

A

Complete, undisplaced

167
Q

Garden Classification of Femoral Neck Fractures

III

A

Complete, partially displaced (<50%)

168
Q

Garden Classification of Femoral Neck Fractures

IV

A

Complete, full displacement (>50%)

169
Q

LeFort Classification of Facial Fractures

I

A

Upper tooth segment moves and separates from the superior maxilla; a sulcus above the lips appears

Diplopia and cheek anesthesia may develop

170
Q

LeFort Classification of Facial Fractures

II

A

Upper tooth segment moves with the midportion of the face, the nasal bone moves; a sulcus appears at the side of the nose

Diplopia and cheek anesthesia may develop

171
Q

LeFort Classification of Facial Fractures

III

This grade is indicative of?

A

Upper tooth segment moves with the middle 1/3 of the face and the nasal bone; a sulcus does not appear because the face is already moving.

Diplopia and cheek anesthesia may develop

Indicates Craniofacial separation

172
Q

Grading of DTRs

Absent

A

0

173
Q

Grading of DTRs

1+

A

Depressed, hyporeflexive

174
Q

Grading of DTRs

Normal

A

2+

175
Q

Grading of DTRs

3+

A

Increased, but not necessarily abnormal

176
Q

Grading of DTRs

Hyperreflexive

A

4+

Abnormal compared to grade 3+

177
Q

ABI

<0.5

A

Severe arterial disease

178
Q

ABI

0.74-0.5

A

Moderate arterial disease with rest pain

179
Q

ABI

Mild arterial disease with intermittent claudication

A

0.75-0.94

180
Q

ABI

Normal

A

0.95-1.19

181
Q

ABI

> 1.2

A

Falsely elevated, arterial disease, diabetes

182
Q

Scoring mechanics in FIM

A

7 point scale

18 areas

183
Q

Scoring mechanics in Tinetti POMA

A

2 sections
Maximum score of 28
Less than 19 indicates high risk for falls

184
Q

Scoring mechanics in Fugl-Meyer

A

Ordinal scale
5 areas of assessment
Maximum score of 100; may be used as a percentage of motor recovery

185
Q

Scoring mechanics in Barthel Index

A

10 different ADLs assessed
Maximum score of 100
Does not account for cognitive or safety issues, and is not sensitive to higher level patients regarding their level of disability.

186
Q

Korotkoff sound 1

A

2 consecutive beats: SBP reading

187
Q

Korotkoff sound 2

A

Murmuring or swishing sound after a momentary disappearance following sound 1

188
Q

Korotkoff sound 3

A

Sharper and louder sounds

189
Q

Korotkoff sound 4

A

Sound becomes muffled

190
Q

Korotkoff sound 5

A

Silence; the point at which sounds disappear: DBP reading

191
Q

Mini-Mental State Examination scoring mechanics

A

11 questions assessing 5 areas of cognitive function
5-10 minutes to complete
Scores can range from 0-13

Minimum score for cognitive impairment: 23
Dementia, delirium, schizophrenia, affective disorder: 20

Book of Tables (14 decks)

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