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PHASE 3A > SBA/SAQ stuff i didn't know > Flashcards

SBA/SAQ stuff i didn't know Flashcards

1
Q

haemolytic uraemic syndrome triad

A
  1. AKI
  2. normocytic anaemia
  3. thrombocytopenia
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2
Q

when do children receive the MMR vaccine

A

1 year and 3 years 4 months

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3
Q

metabolic changes in CAH

A

hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis

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4
Q

chemo sanctuary sites in ALL

A

CNS and testes

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5
Q

haemophilia
- who is affected, why?
- which factor for A, which for B

A
  • males, x-linked
  • VIII, IX
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6
Q

abdo xray finding in biliary atresia

A

double bubble

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7
Q

complications of chlamydia in preg
a) mother
b) baby

A

a) chorioamnionitis, PROM
b) conjunctivitis, pneumonia

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8
Q

most common cause of meningitis in neonates

A

GBS

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9
Q

lithium toxicity presentation

A

ataxia, seizures, slurred speech, vomiting (SE = fine tremor)

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10
Q

stimulant vs hallucinogens

A

stimulants = cocaine, MDMA (ectsasy), khat, nicotine

hallucinogens = LSD, ketamine

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11
Q

bloods/metabolic findings in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
  • raised creatinine kinase
  • raised WCC
  • deranged LFTs and U&Es
  • metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3)
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12
Q

management of mild-moderate PID if coil is in situ

A

UNLESS severe or does not respond to tx in 48-72h, leave coil in!

broad spec abx for 14 days

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13
Q

which class of antidepressants can you not have cheese with? give an example of one

A

MAOIs e.g. phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid

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14
Q

which class of antibiotics is safe in pregnancy at any stage?

A

cephalosporins e.g. cefotaxime, ceftriaxone

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15
Q

hospital indication for PID

A

fever >38

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16
Q

secondary syphilis presentation

A
  • 6-8 weeks from infection
  • rash, glomerulonephritis, neuro sx
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17
Q

migraine prophylaxis in women of child-bearing age

A

propranolol (topiramate is normal 1st line)

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18
Q

which antipsychotics cause parkinsonism/pyramidal sx?

A

TYPICAL e.g. haloperidol

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19
Q

features of non epileptic attacks (5)

A
  1. sudden drop
  2. arms flexing and extending, pelvic thrusting
  3. eyes closed
  4. prolonged seizures (>30m)
  5. symptoms wax and wane
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20
Q

1st line tx of pericarditis

A

NSAIDs

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21
Q

a) heparin reversal
b) warfarin reversal

A

a) protamine
b) vitamin K

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22
Q

joint fluid findings in
a) pseudogout
b) gout

A

a) Pseudo = Positively birefringent Rhomboid crystals (calcium Phosphate)

b) gout = Negatively birefringent Needle crystals (monosodium)

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23
Q

which enzymes are blocked with
a) aspirin
b) clopidogrel

A

a) COX-1
b) P2Y12

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24
Q

csf findings bacterial meningitis (4)

A
  • turbid
  • raised polymorphs (neutrophils)
  • raised protein
  • low glucose
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25
Q

what is given to help manage parkinsonism/anti-pyramidal SEs from antipsychotics?

A

procyclidine

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26
Q

what is the protocol for clozapine blood testing when a pt is first started on the med?

A

1 blood test per week for first 18 weeks

then fortnightly until 1 year

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27
Q

management of OCD if 12 weeks of SSRI and CBT are not working

A

either
- switch SSRI with another SSRI
- try clomipramine (TCA) if pt prefers/intolerant to SSRIs

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28
Q

1st line management of PTSD and another option

A

1 = trauma-focussed CBT

can use EMDR - if presenting between 1 and 3 months after a non-combat related trauma and refer EMDR

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29
Q

management of a woman with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) I found at colposcopy

A

discharge and screen again (FU) at 12m in the community

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30
Q

list 4 meds that may cause delirium

A
  1. furosemide (diuretic)
  2. ramipril (anti-HT)
  3. oxybutynin
  4. propranolol (B blocker)
  5. ranitidine (H2 blocker)
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31
Q

what discharge may be present in cervical cancer

A

red-brown, purulent

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32
Q

most common type of vaginal cancer

A

secondary (metastatic)

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33
Q

a surge of what hormone triggers ovulation

A

LH

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34
Q

process of foetal descent (descent > delivery) (8)

A
  1. descent
  2. engagement
  3. flexion
  4. internal rotation
  5. crowning
  6. extension of presenting part
  7. external rotation of head
  8. delivery
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35
Q

management of pregnant woman with positive asymptomatic bacteriuria culture - what is done next?

A

confirm with second culture then begin culture dependent abx

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36
Q

amniotic fluid index (AFI)

a) polyhydramnios
b) oligohydramnios

A

a) >24cm

b) <5cm

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37
Q

most common cause of polyhydramnios

A

idiopathic!!!

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38
Q

what migraine prophylactic tx is contraindicated in asthma

A

propranolol

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39
Q

least common presentation in a pt with a middle cerebral artery stroke?
a) aphasia
b) headache
c) personality change
d) weakness/numbness

A

personality change! (more common in ACA)

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40
Q

4 features of horner’s

A
  1. miosis
  2. anhidrosis
  3. ptosis
  4. enophthalmos (sinking eyes)
41
Q

young female with recurrent miscarriages and arthalgia

A

think rheum e.g. SLE

42
Q

presentation of gastric ulcers

A

pain immediately after eating

43
Q

tx of H.pylori

A

1 PPI and 2 abx (CAP)

clarithromycin + amoxicillin (or metronidazole) + PPI

44
Q

aside from hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia, which other abnormality may be seen on blood investigation of DKA prior to treatment?

A

mildly raised creatinine (sign of dehydration)

45
Q

6 complications of chickenpox

A
  1. bacterial superinfection
  2. cerebellitis/encephalitis
  3. DIC
  4. progressive disseminated disease
  5. pneumonia
  6. nec fash (strep A)
46
Q

gastroschisis vs exomphalos

A

gastroschisis - lateral to umbilicus, no layer, young mum

exomphalos - through umbilicus, in sac, older mum

47
Q

interval between UTRI and infection: post strep glom vs IgA neph

A

post strep glom - interval e.g. days/weeks

IgA - little/no interval

48
Q

atypical UTI features (6)

A
  1. no response to abx in 48 hours
  2. seriously unwell/septic
  3. not e.coli
  4. abdominal mass
  5. poor urine flow
  6. raised creatinine
49
Q

drug for arresting paediatric narrow complex tachy

A

adenosine

50
Q

most common organism causing IE in paeds

A

s.viridans

51
Q

mitral regurg murmur

A

systolic murmur, left medial ICS

52
Q

which CHD is egg-shaped on CXR?

A

transposition of great arteries

53
Q

what criteria is used to grade rheumatic fever

A

Jones

54
Q

HELPP syndrome triad

A
  1. haemolysis
  2. elevated liver enzymes (AST/ALT)
  3. low platelets
55
Q

how is magnesium sulphate toxicity monitored in the management of eclampsia?

A

testing reflexes

56
Q

RFs for DDH (5)

A
  1. breech presentation at 36w
  2. female
  3. 1st degree family hx of hip probs in childhood
  4. first born
  5. macrosomia
57
Q

acute management of a patient with CAH in salt-wasting crisis (3)

A
  1. dextrose
  2. IV fluids
  3. hydrocortisone
58
Q

mode of inheritance of
a) duchenne muscular dystrophy
b) noonan syndrome

A

a) x-linked

b) auto dominant

59
Q

pathophys of muscular dystrophy

A
  1. gene mutation on Xp21
  2. reduced/abnormal dystrophin protein
  3. muscle lost and replaced by adipose tissue
60
Q

tx of juveline myoclonic epilepsy in
a) boys
b) girls

A

a) sodium valproate
b) levetiracetam

61
Q

MDT management of duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  1. physio
  2. OT
  3. counselling
  4. corticosteroids
  5. respiratory support
62
Q

conservative vs medical tx for recurrent ear infections in children

A

conservative - nasal saline irrigation

medical - antibiotics, grommets

63
Q

cardiovasc complications of noonan’s

A
  1. pulmonary valve stenosis
  2. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  3. atrial septal defect
64
Q

which 2 cancers are patients with noonan’s at risk of?

A
  • leukaemia
  • neuroblastoma
65
Q

symptoms of neuroblastoma

A
  • racoon eyes
  • weight loss
  • bone pain
  • abdominal pain/mass
  • lymphadenopathy
66
Q

tx of lower UTI in children

A

oral nitrofurantoin 3 days

67
Q

imaging choice with a child with a UTI who
a) is not responding to abx
b) has recurrent UTIs

A

a) USS urinary tract
b) DMSA scan

68
Q

paeds UTI risk factors (7)

A
  1. structural abnormalities e.g. horseshoe kidney
  2. females
  3. white
  4. sexual abuse
  5. previous UTI
  6. poor hygiene
  7. age < 1 year
69
Q

initial management of a child < 1 year with transient synovitis

A

refer urgently to paeds (rare under 1)

70
Q

toddlers fracture - typical type and location

A

spiral fracture of tibia

71
Q

RFs for necrotising enterocolitis (5)

A
  1. prematurity
  2. sepsis
  3. formula fed
  4. respiratory distress
  5. CHD
72
Q

most common causative organism of HUS (in full)

A

Escherichia coli 0157 producing Shiga toxin

73
Q

what is tumour lysis syndrome? what biochemical abnormalities occur?

A
  • deadly complication of chemo due to breakdown of tumour cells and release of chemicals
  • high uric acid, hyperkalaemia, high phosphate, hypocalcaemia
74
Q

findings in coeliac disease on jejunal biopsy? (3)

A
  • villous atrophy
  • crypt hyperplasia
  • intraepithelial lymphocytes
75
Q

complications of coeliac disease (5)

A
  1. vitamin deficiency
  2. anaemia
  3. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  4. osteoporosis
  5. small bowel adenocarcinoma
76
Q

2nd line tx for ADHD

A

lisdexemfetamine

77
Q

which medication is used to deter/’put people off’ alcohol?

A

disulfiram

78
Q

phenelzine is what class of antidepressant?

A

MAOI-inhibitor (cheese!)

79
Q

erb’s palsy nerve roots

A

c5-6

80
Q

when are antenatal steroids used for maturing baby’s lungs?

A

after 24 weeks

81
Q

weird gynae stuff
a) haematocolpos
b) ovarian hypercothis

A

a) accumulation of blood in vagina, often due to imperforate hymen

b) hyperandrogenaemia in postmenopausal women e.g. hirsutism in 75 year old

82
Q

blood results in panhypopituitarism

A

production of all pituitary hormones is decreased&raquo_space; low EVERYTHING
- TSH, free T4
- FSH, LH
- oestradiol

83
Q

when is sumatriptan contraindicated?

A

hx of significant ischaemic disease/cardiovasc disease e.g. coronary artery disease

if cluster headaches, give O2 instead

84
Q

hodgkin’s vs non-hodgkins

A

hodgkins in younger people

85
Q

investigation of choice for acromegaly

A

OGTT - growth hormone should decrease in response to glucose but it won’t

86
Q

blood results in PCOS
a) FSH
b) LH
c) prolactin
d) testosterone
e) sex hormone-binding globulin

A

a) raised LH
b) normal/low FSH (raised ratio)
c) normal/elevated prolactin
d) normal/elevated testos
e) low

87
Q

presentation of

a) cholecystitis
b) cholangitis

A

a) biliary colicky pain, referred scapula pain, fever

b) triad of fever, RUQ pain, jaundice

88
Q

what 3 blood tests are used in lithium monitoring?

A
  1. TFTs
  2. U&Es
  3. eGFR

(lithium is nephrotoxic and can cause hypo/hyperthyroid)

89
Q

name of sign in shoulder dystocia when foetus’ head is delivered but retracts against perineum

A

turtle sign

90
Q

RFs for shoulder dystocia

A
  1. macrosomia
  2. maternal diabetes
  3. maternal high BMI
  4. prolonged labour
91
Q

describe McRobert’s position

A

mum’s hips are flexed and abducted

92
Q

sertraline antagonists:
a) 5-HT3
b) 5HT2

A

a) ondansetron (anti-emetic)

b) LSD, risperidone, olanzapine, clomipramine

93
Q

public health definition

A

the science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life and improving health through organised efforts of society

94
Q

visual field defects: where in the eye would you expect to be affected if a patient presents with:
a) tunnel vision
b) bitemporal hemianopia
c) macular sparing

A

a) retina
b) optic chiasm
c) occipital cortex

95
Q

define a seizure

A

transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

96
Q

FU for a child who has presented to ED following a seizure

A

urgent paediatrics neurology referral (within 2 weeks)

97
Q

screening tools for depression (2)

A
  1. PHQ-9
  2. HADS
98
Q

management of stage 1 endometrial cancer

A

total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

99
Q
A

PHASE 3A (18 decks)

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