SAS#2 Flashcards

1
Q

Guiding behavioral principles

A

ETHICS

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2
Q

Societal behavior standards

A

ETHICAL

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3
Q

Promulgated the deontological notion of the golden rule

A

IMMANUEL KANT

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4
Q

Who purported a teleological approach

A

JOHN STUART MILL

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5
Q

Approach allows at the sacrifice of one or more individuals so that a group of people can benefit in some important way

A

TEOLOGICAL OR UTILITARIAN

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6
Q

Refers to an internal value system

A

MORAL

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7
Q

Is expressed externally through ethical behavior

A

MORALITY

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8
Q

Documents that define a profession, describes the professions scope of practice and provide guidelines for stay professional board of nursing regarding standard for practice, and to protect the professional title

A

PRACTICED ACTS

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9
Q

refer to rules governing behavior or conduct that are enforceable under threat or punishment or penalty such as a fine or imprisonment or both

A

LEGAL RIGHTS AND DUTIES

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10
Q

Deal with intangible moral values, so they are not enforceable by law, nor are these principles lost in and of themselves

A

ETHICAL PRINCIPLES

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11
Q

Moral conflict

A

ETHICAL DILEMMAS

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12
Q

The right to full disclosure; the right to make one’s own decisions

A

INFORMED CONSENT

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13
Q

The right to protect one’s own body and to determine how it shall be treated

A

RIGHT TO SELF-DETERMINATION

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14
Q

Which is a basic tenant of ethical thought, what is stablish in the court as early as 1914 by justice benjamin cardoso

A

INFORMED CONSENT

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15
Q

Refers to the right of self-determination.
Laws have been enacted to protect the patient’s right to make choices independently

A

AUTONOMY

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16
Q

Requires either at the time of hospital admission or prior to the initiation of care or treatment in a community health setting
“ that every individual receiving health care be informed in writing of the right under state law to make decisions about his or her health care including the right to refuse medical and surgical care and the right to initiate advance”

A

PATIENCE OF DETERMINATION ACT (PSDA)

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17
Q

Truth telling
An individual has the fundamental right make decisions about his or her own body
this ruling provided a basis in law for patient education or instruction regarding invasive medical procedures including the truth regarding risk or benefits involved in these procedures

A

VERACITY

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18
Q

Which refers to the capacity of the patient to make a reasonable decision

A

COMPETENCE

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19
Q

which requires that sufficient information regarding risk and alternative treatments be provided to the patient to enable him or her to make a rational decision

A

DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION

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20
Q

Which is speaks to the individual’s ability to understand or to grasp intellectually the information being provided

A

COMPREHENSION

21
Q

Which indicates that the patient has made a decision without coercion or force from others

A

VOLUNTARINESS

22
Q

A final dimension of the legality of truth telling relate the role of the nurse as

A

EXPERT WITNESS

23
Q

The one who initiate the litigation

A

PLAINTIFF

24
Q

The one being sued

A

DEFENDANT

25
Q

Regardless of the situation the nurse must __________ and the client (or his or her health proxy) is

A
  1. ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH
  2. ALWAYS ENTITLED TO THE TRUTH
26
Q

Refers to personal information that is entrusted and protected as privileged information via a social contact healthcare standard or code or legal covenant

A

CONFIDENTIALITY

27
Q

Despite its communicability, the person with a diagnosis of aids is protected by laws promulgated by federal and state governments.
Within this context, aids is considered to be

A

PRIVATE INFORMATION

28
Q

Aids is further considered to be _________. Such information is “owned” by the patient alone and is subject to disclosure only at his or her individual discretion. Once this information is shared between the nurse and the client, it cannot be shared with other health professionals unless authorized by the patient.

A

PRIVILEGED INFORMATION

29
Q

Diagnosis of aids is also protected by law as ________. Thus anyone not involved in a client’s care has no right to private or privileged information regarding the healthy status of the client

A

CONFIDENTIAL

30
Q

Is defined as “do not harm” and refers to the ethics of legal determinations involving negligence and/or malpractice

A

NONMALEFICENCE

31
Q

Defined as “conduct which falls below the standard established by law for the protection of others against unreasonable risk of harm”

A

NEGLIGENCE

32
Q

Involves the conduct of professionals that falls below a professional standard of due care

A

PROFESSIONAL NEGLIGENCE

33
Q

the kind of care healthcare professionals give patients when they treat them attentively and vigilantly so that to avoid mistakes

A

DUE CARE

34
Q

refers to limited class of negligent activities committed within the scope of performance by those pursuing a particular profession involving highly skilled and technical services.

Has been is specifically defined as negligence, misconduct or breach of duty by a professional person that results in the injury or damage to the patient

A

MALPRACTICE

35
Q

Malpractice usually arises because of the following

A

FAILURE TO FOLLOW STANDARDS OF CARE
FAILURE TO USE EQUIPMENT IN A RESPONSIBLE MANNER
FAILURE TO COMMUNICATE
FAILURE TO DOCUMENT
FAILURE TO ASSESS AND MONITOR
FAILURE TO ACT AS PATIENT ADVOCATE
FAILURE TO DELEGATE TASK PROPERLY

36
Q

Is defined as “doing good” for the benefit of others

it is a concept that is legalized through adherents to critical task and duties contained in job descriptions; in policies, established and promulgated by professional nursing organizations

A

BENEFICENCE

37
Q

Speaks to fairness and equal distribution of goods and services
The law in the “justice system”

A

JUSTICE

38
Q

Insurance companies, medicare and medicaid programs, or “private pay”

A

THIRD PARTY REIMBURSEMENT

39
Q

the employer may be held liable for the negligence or other unlawful acts of the employee during the performance of his or her job related responsibilities

A

RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

40
Q

Those that are tangible and predictable such as rent food eating etc.

A

DIRECT COSTS

41
Q

Those that are stable and ongoing such as salaries mortgage utilities durable equipment etc.

A

FIXED COSTS

42
Q

Those related to fluctuation in volume, program attendance, occupancy rates etc.

A

VARIABLE COSTS

43
Q

those that may be fix but not necessarily directly related to a particular activity such as expenses of heating lighting housekeeping maintenance etc.

A

INDIRECT COSTS

44
Q

occurs when the institution realizes an economic gain resulting from the educational program such as a drop in readmission rates

A

COST BENEFIT

45
Q

Occurs when revenues generated are equal to or greater than expenditures

A

COST RECOVERY

46
Q

Income earned that is above the cost of the programs offered

A

REVENUE GENERATION

47
Q

The relationship (ratio) between actual program costs and actual program benefits as measured in monetary terms to determine if revenue generation was realized

A

COST BENEFIT ANALYSIS

48
Q

Refers to determining the economic value of an educational offering by making a comparison between two or more programs, based on reliable measures of positive changes in the behaviors of participants as well as evidence of maintenance of these behaviors, when a real monetary value cannot be assigned to the achievement of program outcomes

A

COST-EFFECTIVENESS ANALYSIS