SARON (Airplane Operation) Flashcards
1
Q
Emergency training procedures for pilots: when is it required and how often:
A
Required annually.
Where practical training is during initial training; only required every 3 years thereafter
2
Q
Touchdown zone is:
A
The first 3000ft of runway or first 1/3, whichever less
3
Q
When can pilots partake in elementary work?
A
Pilot must be trained and approved by company
4
Q
Does elementary work require a maintenance release?
A
No; no signature from AME required, only needs to be logged (i.e. adding 1qt oil) and signed by person who did the work.
PILOT CANNOT REPLACE A BETTERY
5
Q
With respect to a new journey log you should provide continuity by:
A
Retain the last relevant previous entries from old logbook
6
Q
When on a test flight with maintenance, who signs the logbook off and in the end, considers the aircraft “released”?
A
PIC shall have last say whether the ‘repaired’ equipment is valid or not; he/she shall state whether the flight test was successful or not
7
Q
What is density altitude?
A
Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature
As temp increase, air density decreases
8
Q
Weight shift formula:
A
weight to be moved / total weight
change in CG / distance moved
9
Q
If approaching faster than Vref, what is the best technique for landing?
A
(mains, reverse, nose, brakes)
- Land firmly
- Lower nose quickly
- Apply heavy braking
10
Q
In a constant descent, weight will equal:
A
Vertical component of lift and drag
11
Q
Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) compares:
A
Pt7 turbine discharge pressure
to
Pt2 compressor inlet pressure
Exhaust divided by Inlet
The amount of energy imported to the airstream by the jet engine
12
Q
How will high density affect a a turbocharged engine?
A
Turbocharged engine will provide sea level performance, but it will not overcome:
- Decreased propeller efficiency
- Increased IAS
- Decreased climb gradients
- Increased takeoff/landing roll
- IAS REMAINS THE SAME
13
Q
“Low energy regime” is:
A
- Aircraft in landing config with gear down
- In descent
- Thrust stabilized in idle range
- Airspeed decreasing
- Aircraft 50ft or less from touching on runway
Includes contacting ground
14
Q
What is a balked landing?
A
Aircraft touches down after entering the low energy regime and goes around
15
Q
In flight you experience a strong updraft. This will affect stall speed because of:
A
Influence on angle of attack; air is hitting aircraft from below, causing the aircrafts relative angle to wind to increase
16
Q
De-ice equipped aircraft have been certified for providing protection against ice during:
A
In-flight ONLY!
17
Q
Stall warnings are calibrated to give an effective warning under stat meteorologic conditions?
A
Under clean wing conditions
18
Q
Type II fluid:
A
- Yellow in color
- Glycol & water mixture, WITH added thickeners which causes it to act as a gel
- Type II applied after a hot type I applied
- Longer holdover times than type I
- Vr speeds of 100kts or more, due to its thickness and ability to stick to critical surfaces
19
Q
Type I fluid:
A
- Orange in color
- Glycol & water mixture
- Applied hot
- May be used as an “anti-icing fluid” if conditions on ground are not likely for the formation of ice (ground temp. over 0)
- Provides some protection against refreezing but not much after accumulation
- Deemed no longer effective when its ability to absorb more precip. has been exceeded
- removes already accumulated contamination
20
Q
Type III Fluid:
A
- Color TBA
- Properties between type I and II
- Freezing point depressant (FPD)
- Vr speeds of 60kts good for up to 100kts
21
Q
Type IV fluid:
A
- Green in color
- Type IV applied after type I applied
- Significantly longer HOT than type II
- Should only be used on Vr above 100kts
- Most major airports use type IV exclusively
22
Q
What part of the A/C gets deiced first?
A
Surfaces most visible to pilots; i.e. wingtips
23
Q
Can you takeoff with frost on the underside of the wing?
A
Yes, according to the manufacturer.
If frost is localized to the fuel cell and not the entire full length of the wing. 3mm to 1/8”
24
Q
EWH definition:
A
Vertical distance from pilot’s eyes to lowest portion of the aircraft in landing configuration at Vref; allues to if landing gear are extended!
25
AP PAPI EWH:
0ft to 10ft (2 lights; most restrictive)
26
P1 PAPI EWH:
0ft to 10ft (4 lights; normal 4 bar)
27
P2 PAPI EWH:
10ft to 25ft
28
P3 PAPI EWH:
25ft to 45ft
29
A small aircraft using P3 PAPIs will land ____ to the runway.
Too far down; aircraft will be higher than what you should be. Less EWH distance
30
Aircraft with an EWH of >25ft using a 3-bar VASI shall be indicating what to show they're on slope?
Use upwind and middle lights only. So top 2 lights, bottom light in a 3-bar VASI means nothing.
Indication from top to bottom shall be red, white, white
**shows high because the rest of the plane is below you**
31
PAPIs at certified airports provide a safe obstruction clearance of __ degrees either side out to __NM from runway threshold
6 degrees out to 4NM
*longer runways are commonly protected out to 9 degrees either side; exceptions will be noted in CFS*
32
What is V2 speed?
1. Speed attained at 35ft above runway with engine failure at critical engine failure speed (VCEF) or;
2. Speed 20% above stall speed, whichever *greater*
3. Is the minimum recommended climb-out speed
4. Must be, at all times, be 10% above minimum control speed (VMCA)
**Minimum speed that must be achieved before initiating a climb**
33
What is V1 speed?
1. Takeoff decision speed
2. Engine failure recognition at or above this speed will permit a takeoff to continue and be 35ft withing takeoff distance
3. Engine failure below this speed permits a stop on the runway within ASDA (accel-stop-dist. avail)
4. V1 will not be less than Vmcg (min control speed on ground) or greater than Vr or Vmbe (max brake energy limit speed)
**critical engine failure speed**
34
What is a balanced field length?
Accelerate/go distance = accelerate/stop distance
*Where V1 is at the same point on Accel/go and Accel/stop.
For a given runway length, this results in**MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE TAKEOFF WEIGHT**.
For a given weight, this results in **LEAST RUNWAY LENGTH REQURIED FOR TAKEOFF**
**It is where the aircraft can come to a stop at very end of runway (accel-stop), OR where the aircraft could be at 35ft (accel-go)**
35
Runway clearway definition:
- 250ft on either side of runway centreline
- Obstacle-free
- Maximum length of 1,000ft at Canadian aerodromes
- Runway lights may protrude no more than 26 inches vertically
**max incline of 1.25%*
36
What are limits of runway clearways?
Runway lights are allowed to protrude into the clearway, and terrain must not have an upward gradient more than 1.25%. No terrain or objects may protrude above the plane
37
What is a stopway?
Basically the extended part of the runway that is at least as wide as the runway and able to support weight of aircraft during aborted takeoff. i.e. chevrons at JFK
38
Landing distance definition LDA:
A point 50ft above runway down to where the aircraft stops.
39
Vmbe speed:
Max brake energy limit speed: Where a stop on the ground can be accomplished within the energy limitations of the brakes
40
V ef speed:
Engine failure speed; speed at just below V1 at which the critical engine is assumed failed for the purpose of takeoff performance analysis
Literally just a speed at which tests were conducted by manufacturer
41
V lof speed:
Lift Off Speed
42
Vmca:
1. Minimum control speed in air
2. Level flight, zero yaw. no more than 5 degree bank
3. Critical engine "inoperative"
4. Operative engine takeoff power, gear up & flaps at takeoff config
43
Vmca may not exceed ___ the Vs.
1.2 the Vs!!!!
44
Vb speed:
Maximum gust intensity speed.
66ft/sec gust without stalling or overstressing aircraft
45
Required takeoff distance is the longest of the following distances:
1. 115% all-engine takeoff distance
2. Accelerate/stop distance (one engine failed)
3. Accelerate/go distance (one engine failed)
46
Accelerate-stop distance (ASDA) includes:
1. Distance to accelerate with ALL engines
2. Then at V1 (at least once second before V1), have engine fail
3. Reconfigure for stopping using max brakes
**REVERSE THRUST NOT TO BE USED IN ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCES**
TORA + STOPWAY = ASDA
47
Accelerate-go distance includes:
1. Distance to accelerate with ALL engines
2. Then at V1 (at least one second before V1), have one engine fail
3. Continue takeoff *roll*, lift off at a point 35ft above at V2 speed
**You've committed, engine failure at least 1sec before V1!**
Takeoff roll to V1 + one-engine to Vr + one-engine to 35ft
48
Type J ARCAL:
5 keys in 5 seconds, 15mins
49
Type K ARCAL:
7 keys in 5 seconds
Low, medium, high = 3,5,7 keys
*click 5 times again when landing even if runway lights are on*
50
When climbing at constant Mach, your TAS,CAS,IAS will:
All decrease
51
Tail plane stall symptoms:
1. Buffeting
2. little elevator effectiveness
3. Unusual nose-down trim changes (even at high airspeeds)
*involves flying in icing conditions*
52
What is corrective action regarding tail plane stalling:
1. IMMEDIATE retraction of flaps *just to previous setting*
2. Increase airspeed
53
What happens to thrust, temperature and fuel consumption with bleeds ON:
Thrust decreases
Temperature increases
Fuel consumption increases
54
Regarding de-ice/anti-ice, what bleed air is used?
HIGH PRESSURE bleed air
55
What would be the result of the pitot tube becoming blocked but the drain is not?
Airspeed will indicate 0.
*no constant pressure inside pitot assembly; it all leaks out drain*
56
Swept back wings improve ____ stability.
Lateral stability
57
RAIM prediction is calculated in the ___
Receiver
58
Minimum satellites for RAIM to function?
Minimum of 5 satellites; 4 satellites are required for general navigation
59
Does RAIM compensate for satellite outages?
No! That would be WAAS
60
What is the main difference between RAIM and WAAS?
RAIM has no fault detection but WAAS does
61
What are the main components of a jet engine?
1. Fan
2. Compressor
3. Combustor
4. Turbine
5. Mixer
6. Nozzle
62
What does the exhaust mixer do on a jet engine?
Bypass cold/slow air is mixed with hot/fast exhaust gasses before exiting to atmosphere though a propelling nozzle.
*Reduces thermal signature, noise, and vibrations. More efficient*
63
3 Design features to prevent compressor stalls:
1. Variable inlet guide vanes
2. Compressor bleed valve
3. Fuel metering (FCU or EFC)
64
What is the **main function** of a compressor bleed valve:
Helps prevent compressor stall.
When turbulent air enters the compressor, the bleed valve can open and "dump" the stagnant/jammed air before it develops further down into the compressor turbine stages
At **LOW** RPM!
65
3 Types of reversers:
Cascade
Blocker/target
Bucket
66
In a cascade reverser, what air is reversed?
COLD bypass air
67
In a bucket reverser/target type, what air is reversed?
No bypass air, so just HOT non-bypass air is reversed
68
How is fuel quantity measured? How is it corrected?
A "float" is used to measure it by **volume** and is **uncorrected** for temperature and pressure
69
How is fuel weight measured?
"Capacitance" system measures *molecules* of fuel present; no the amount it takes up.
(essentially hooking up a electrical circuit to run through and it measures the fuel amount)
Therefore, pressure and temperature does not matter
70
In a gas turbine engine, what condition allows control of blade angle and fuel control?
Beta range
71
What is the low-pitch stop?
a hydro-mechanical stop prevents inadvertent reverse in flight!
72
What do you see when in BETA range on instruments?
Low engine RPM!!!
73
Pressurization is controlled by the ___ valve.
Outflow valve
74
What is the best way to evacuate the cabin for smoke?
Climb/raise the cabin (i.e. depressurize it, open DV port, etc.)
75
Air passing through a shockwave:
Pressure =
Temperature =
Density =
Velocity =
Pressure = increases
Temperature = increases
Density = increases
Velocity = decreases
76
Vortex generators are _____ which ______
Small blades on upper side of wing which delays boundary layer seperation
77
What do winglets do regarding induced drag and profile drag?
- Reduces induced drag
- Increases form drag
78
Regarding a propeller-driven aircraft and a runway friction index, what factor of the runway must the aircraft come to a stop to when calculated?
0.7, or within first 70% of LDA
79
Regarding a turbojet aircraft and a runway friction index, what factor of the runway must the aircraft come to a stop to when calculated?
0.6, or within first 60% of LDA
80
What is Coriolis effect regarding human factors?
Dangerous type of disorientation causing extreme confusion, nausea and rolling of eyeballs that prevents pilot from reading instruments correctly
*Can happen of pilot turns his/her head suddenly while in a turn*
81
What causes the ear/sinus pains when in a climb or descent?
Trapped gasses
82
What and why are smokers more susceptible to?
Hypoxia ***at any altitude.**
O2 carrying-capacity to lungs reduced
83
How long before carbon monoxide poison clears out of your system?
"a day or more"
84
Regarding alcohol and hypoxia, at what altitude is it twice as intoxicating?
6,000ft is equivalent to 2 drinks at sea level.
Remember 12hrs required before flight and 24 before heavy drinking
*alcohol remains in inner ear*
85
Drifting snow at an airport will cause what illusion?
Illusion of "movement"
86
What is the TORA:
Takeoff run available
Suitable for **ground run** of an airplane taking off
87
What is the TODA:
Takeoff distance available
Takeoff run + **clearway!**
88
What are the 3 functions of hydroplanning?
- Water depth
- Tire pressure
- Speed
89
What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?
- Viscous hydroplaning
- Dynamic hydroplaning
- Reverted rubber hydroplaning
90
What is viscous hydroplaning?
Pavement is lubricated by a thin layer of water, which is unable to penetrate to contact pavement. (usually occurs on smooth runways)
*at low speeds at low water depth*
**HAPPENS AT AIRPORTS WHERE SKIDMARKS ON RUNWAY CAUSE SLIPPERY ENVIORNMENTS**
*super smooth runway; skidmarks on rwy contribute, make it more smooth*
**Low speed, thin film**
91
What is dynamic hydroplaning?
1. Build-up of hydrodynamic pressure between tire and pavement
2. Occurs at high speeds with excessive standing water **exceeding tread depth**
3. Reduces area of tire that can maintain contact with pavement
**total loss of braking can occur**
*Normal hydroplaning, you're riding on water exceeds tread*
**HIGH TIRE PRESSURE**
**High speed, thick film**
92
What is reverted rubber hydroplaning?
1. Locked or slowly rotating wheels
2. Skidding tire on ground produces heat
3. Resulting heat generates steam in contact area; puts upward pressure on tire
4. Hot steam causes tire to shred (fold like a drag racer) due to chemical reversion; reduces braking coefficient
*Steam; chemical reaction and doesn't let your tire touch ground*
**Locked wheels hard braking**
93
Total pitot blockage:
A/S indicator acts as altimeter
Overreads in climb
Underreads in descent
94
Static port blockage:
**OPPOSITE TO PITOT BLOCKAGE**
Underreads in climb
Overreads in descent
95
Pitot, drain, static *ALL* blocked:
A/S indicator will freeze (keep pressure inside)
96
Pitot blocked/drain open:
No dynamic "intake" pressure, all remaining pressure leaks out. A/S will indicate zero
97
Mach number is the ratio of:
**TRUE** airspeed to the local speed of sound
98
In the troposphere, air temperature ___ with height.
Decreases with height
99
In stratosphere, temperature ___ with height.
Increases with height!
100
Departure obstacle clearances:
35ft above highest obstacle, 200ft horizontally inside boundaries, 300ft outside those boundaries
101
What are dynamic balance controls on actual control surfaces used for?
Helps the pilot with handling of aircraft
102
A gas turbine start, it spools the:
**HIGH** pressure spool
103
What is single-axis A/P?
A/P with only ROLL!
104
When does HOT time start?
After application of the beginning of the **last** shot of deice fluid
105
Difference between turbojet and turbofan reverse?
Turbojet uses buckets for exhaust gases
Turbofan cascades and uses bypass cold air
106
Can you fly with a broken fuel gauge?
Yes, if in accordance with MEL and company approved COM
107
What is the purpose of anti-skid?
Speed of aircraft does not correspond to the speed of the wheels on the ground; prevents tire damage and aquaplaning
**Airplane decelerates too quickly!**
108
3 map projections:
Mercator: rhumb line
Transverse Mercator: great circle
Lambert conformal conic: great circle
109
Visual VASIS glide path provides what protection?
Provides +/- 10 degrees either side to 4NM from threshold
**minimum 6 degrees either side, to a max of 8 degrees on newer systems**
110
When turbine compressor bleed air is open, the thrust _____ and the temperature _____.
Decreases and increases
111
When given a clearance to climb, at what rate should you climb:
Best **optimum** climb speed which is suitable for aircraft **OPEN CLIMB**
112
Principle of a fire detection and reaction:
Do not shut down, only **reduce** power parameters and carry on. It is not a total emergency at this point
113
When climbing at constant TAS, your Mach,CAS,IAS will:
Decrease, increase, increase
114
Compressor stall engine parameters:
1. High ITT
2. Low N1 (low low pressure)
3. Engine surge
115
Slave compass:
Directional **gyro👳♂️** with remove compass
116
When at very cold temps through mountains, what should you add to your cruise altitude?
1,000ft
117
Prop overspeed reaction:
Reduce throttle
Reduce RPM
Reduce airspeed
118
What is the biggest tail plane stall symptom:
Stall at high speed
119
As air passes through shockwave, pressure ____, temperature ____, velocity ____.
Pressure increase, temperature increase, velocity increase
120
What is a hung start:
No rise in Ng RPM on turboprop, no N1 rise in turbojet
121
Sweepback operational disadvantage:
Dutch roll!
122
When is CFIT most likely to occur?
Final approach MDA/DH
123
What kind of drag is wingtip vortex?
Induced drag
124
Cold soaking on wings produces what type of ice:
Clear ice; most severe
125
Centrifugal compressors are:
- Low compression ratio
- durable
- fast acceleration over a wide RPM range
- Easier to design and manufacture
- Fewer moving parks
- **LARGE FRONTAL AREA**
126
Axial flow compressors are:
- *High* compression ratio
- **SMALL FRONTLA AREA**
- *Slow* acceleration over wide RPM range
- Difficult to design * manufacture
- Several parts
- Susceptible to FOD
127
__ of the energy available from combustion on a gas turbine engine goes to driving the compressor.
3/4
128
What part of the compressor can be used for engine start on a turbofan?
N2! High pressure compressor
129
The autopilot controls the aircraft around the:
CENTRE OF GRAVITY!
130
Wake turbulence is heaviest when aircraft is ____, ____, and ____.
Heavy, clean, slow
131
Critical engine:
Most aircraft in Canada prop spin clockwise in reference to pilot seat.
Since the resultant "cut" of the blade on the right engine is further from the centre of the airplane, the *LEFT* engine is most critical
132
Subsonic speed range:
Mach 0 to .75
133
Transonic speed range:
Mach .75 to 1.25
*Airflow over wings is both subsonic and supersonic*
134
Supersonic speed range:
Greater than Mach 1.25
*airflow is supersonic or greater over wings*
135
What atmospheric factor affects Mach number the most?
Air temperature.
Warm air = low density = lower speed of sound
136
What is critical Mach number?
MACH CRIT!
Airflow reaches speed of sound OR shockwaves first appear on aircraft
**OR HIGHEST SPEED WITHOUT SUPERSONIC AIRFLOW**
137
How does temperature affect critical Mach number?
It doesn't
138
What is static air temperature?
The static air temp of air that the plane is about to fly through
139
What is Ram Rise (RR)?
Temperature rise caused by friction and adiabatic compression as an aircraft travels through air at high speed
140
What is true air temperature?
INDICATED temperature, **REMEMBER THIS SI AFTER RAM RISE TEMPERATURE IS APPLIED!!** This temp is affected by friction of heat through air on probes!
141
What is the most common type of hydroplanning?
Viscous hydroplaning
142
Having ice, frost or snow can reduce lift by as much as__% and increase drag by up to __%
30% and 40%
143
Ground tolerance for altimeter of known elevation:
50ft
144
Ground tolerance for altimeter of known elevation:
50ft
145
At sea level with ICAO standard atmosphere, what is the altimeter tolerance?
20ft
146
To avoid CFIT, what shall you do?
DO NOT RELY HEAVILY ON INSTRUMENTS!
- Know MDA/DA
- Know area
- Use CDFA (continuous descent)
147
What is the negative cabin pressure relief valve used for?
Prevents OUTSIDE from being higher than INSIDE.
i.e. pop can theory
148
When the aircraft is gliding, gravity is ______
Divided into lift and drag!
149
How do you reduce smoke in the cabin in regards to pressurizing the cabin?
Rise the cabin altitude to get rid of smoke!
MAKE THE CABIN HIGHER WHERE SMOKE CANNOT EXIST
150
____ temperature and _____ pressure will result in reduced terrain clearance.
Cold temp and low pressure
151
152
Where is a third attitude indicator required?
1. Any transport category
2. Any turbo-propeller in a commercial service with 10 or more pax
153
What does mode A provide?
Identifying code only
154
How is pitot pressure measured?
total dynamic pressure + static pressure
155
How is static pressure measured?
Ambient atmospheric pressure. Static pressure decreases with altitude.
156
Outflow valve on aircraft prevents:
Cabin alt. in aircraft from being too high!
157
What is a magnastick?
Used to check fuel quantity inside tank when aircraft is on ground
158
Why are most aircraft equipped with trimmable horizontal stabilizers?
System allows reduced drag in flight
159
A rise in temperature will cause Mcrit to ___ and a drop in temperature will cause Mcrit to ___
Increase and decrease Mcrit
160
LIAL is:
Low intensity approach lighting
161
Ice on wings decreases lift by up to ___ % and increases drag up to ___%
30% and 40% **drag is more!!*
162
During an overshoot in IMC, a pilot will have the tendancy to ___?
Lower the nose, this is called *somatogravic illusion*
163
At ___ft one drink is equal to ___ drinks as sea level
6,000ft, equal to 2 drinks at sea level
164
Why do you have to wait the 12 or 24hrs before flying an airplane?
Alcohol remains in inner ear
165
What does an FMA in any case display to the pilot?
Flight Mode Annunciator
Which modes are currently engaged
Which modes are ARMED
166
What battery state could indicate an overtemp situation in the aircraft?
Battery **overload**, indicates over use
167
What does class A TAWS include?
1. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS) mode 1 to 5
2. Forwards-looking terrain avoidance
3. Premature descent algorithm
4. Descent to 500ft above terrain or nearest runway elevation during non-precision approach
5. **Terrain display system**
168
What does class B TAWS include?
1. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS) mode 1 and 3
2. Forwards-looking terrain avoidance
3. Premature descent algorithm
4. Descent to 500ft above terrain or nearest runway elevation during non-precision approach
**NO DISPLAY**
169
Over what compass headings will the northernly error be most apparent?
CROSSING north, i.e. 340 to 010.
170
When climbing at a constant IAS, TAS will ____ every ____ft.
Increase 2% each 1,000ft
171
When landing in a crosswind, the upwind vortices will ____ and the downwind vortices will ____
REMAIN **FORTIFIED**, *UP*WIND
Blow away *DOWN*WIND
172
If you are away from base for 3 days, should you adjust or remain on home base sleep schedule?
ALWAYS ADJUST!
173
Pilot has taken herbal cough drops. Do you need to take precautions? If so, what?
*YES*. Seek a CAME
174
How long must you retain a journey log?
At least 1yr
175
The purpose of a diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is to ____ airflow and _____ pressure.
Decrease airflow and increase pressure!
On the outer part of a centrifugal compressor there are diffusers, that look like stators. You can see that they move the airflow at a sharper angle, which causes the airflow to slow down but increase pressure.
176
Enroute HI charts consist of __ charts.
6 charts
177
Wake turbulence is the sole responsibility of ___
**ATC**; sometimes they can get away with this responsibility by saying "caution, wake turbulence", *then* it is up to the pilot to adjust its operations/flight path to avoid turbulence
178
What is roll upset?
Associated with flying in icing conditions with SLD (supercooled large water droplets)
Water freezes on part of the wing outside of deice capabilities, makes wing surface rough and decreases aileron effectiveness
179
The point of maximum chord thickness on a laminar flow wing is located at about _____ aft of the leading edge, whereas the point on a conventional wing is located at about _____, of the leading edge.
50% **(LAMINAR = SYMMETRICAL)**
25% **(CONVENTIONAL)**
180
When climbing throughout an isothermal layer at a constant CAS, the Mach number _____ and the TAS _____
Increases and keeps the same value as Mach number
181
At night, the ___ part of the eye allows the human eye to see. It takes ___ for the eyes to completely adjust to night "vision"
*RODS* 30mins
182
On what flight segment does frost affect performance?
Affects climb performance, **does not affect lift**
183
Slave compass:
Directional Gyro with remote compass
184
Propeller overspeed procedure:
- Reduce throttle
- Reduce RPM
- Reduce airspeed
185
As density altitude increases, _____ speed decreases, and ______ speed increases
Density altitude increases, high buffet speed decreases (meaning it only take a bit of AoA to cause turbulent airflow over wings)
186
Dihedral wing:
Lower wing gives lift, lateral stability
187
When fly a long range flight, the weight is decrease and the speed is increase. what should the PIC do?
Reduce power and speed
188
What atmospheric condiiton wil give you a lower true altitude?
Cold temp, low pressure
**cold temp; altimeter *feels* higher than you are, but in reality you are lower**
189
Mach Tuck
Where not nose tends to pitch downward as air around wings reach supersonic speed.
Caused by a backwards centre of pressure. As you approach Mcrit (speed at which air is moving around aircraft; NOT the speed of aircraft), a shock wave occurs at leading edge producing high lift, then as you get faster, it moves rearward, causing the tail to lift up, and nose pitching down or "tucking"
*Sweep back wing shock waves start at wing root and move back and out as speed increases*
190
What does a tachometer show?
RPM
191
On a VASI, which bar is the upwind/downwind?
UP one is on top
DOWN one is down
Up shall be red, down shall be white
192
What is the best way to respond to the needs of one or more hydraulic systems that require different oil flows to work?
**Variable displacement** hydraulic pump
193
On a standard HSI flying an ILS, full deflection is ___ and each dot represents ___
+/- 5 degrees, 1 degree **FOR HSI, WIDER SPLAY!!**
**for a LOC, it would've been +/- 2.5 degrees either side**
194
Triangles of velocity
1. Wind direction & velocity
2. Track & groundspeed
3. Heading & true airspeed
195
2 VORs on ground must be within ___ degrees for IFR
4 degrees
196
Hydroplaning can cause an increase of the landing distance by:
700%
197
In cruise, you should ____ as the fuel burns.
Decrease Mach; power
198
In slow flight, the aircraft is ____ the power curve because of ___. Th power required ____ as speed ____.
Behind *power curve* because of *angle of attack*
Power required *increases* as speed *decreases*
199
Grey out occurs at __Gs, black out at ___Gs
+2Gs +4Gs
200
Pregnant pilot can fly until:
30th week of pregnancy
201
ILS distance and degree range:
18NM 10 degrees
10NM 35 degrees
18-10, 10-35
202
How much thrust does a reverser provide?
45%
203
How much braking does thrust revers provide on a contaminated runway?
50% - because it is so effective, **NEVER** take reverse thrust into account for landing distances
204
Frequency is:
The number of cycles **per second**
205
As frequency ____ ground wave attenuation ___ to provide less reception distance
Increases increases
206
Coastal refraction error occurs at:
30 degrees or less to a coast
207
