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Happy Dim Sum Wok Garden Bai > SARON (Airplane Operation) > Flashcards

SARON (Airplane Operation) Flashcards

1
Q

Emergency training procedures for pilots: when is it required and how often:

A

Required annually.

Where practical training is during initial training; only required every 3 years thereafter

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2
Q

Touchdown zone is:

A

The first 3000ft of runway or first 1/3, whichever less

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3
Q

When can pilots partake in elementary work?

A

Pilot must be trained and approved by company

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4
Q

Does elementary work require a maintenance release?

A

No; no signature from AME required, only needs to be logged (i.e. adding 1qt oil) and signed by person who did the work.

PILOT CANNOT REPLACE A BETTERY

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5
Q

With respect to a new journey log you should provide continuity by:

A

Retain the last relevant previous entries from old logbook

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6
Q

When on a test flight with maintenance, who signs the logbook off and in the end, considers the aircraft “released”?

A

PIC shall have last say whether the ‘repaired’ equipment is valid or not; he/she shall state whether the flight test was successful or not

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7
Q

What is density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

As temp increase, air density decreases

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8
Q

Weight shift formula:

A

weight to be moved / total weight

change in CG / distance moved

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9
Q

If approaching faster than Vref, what is the best technique for landing?

A

(mains, reverse, nose, brakes)

  • Land firmly
  • Lower nose quickly
  • Apply heavy braking
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10
Q

In a constant descent, weight will equal:

A

Vertical component of lift and drag

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11
Q

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) compares:

A

Pt7 turbine discharge pressure
to
Pt2 compressor inlet pressure

Exhaust divided by Inlet

The amount of energy imported to the airstream by the jet engine

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12
Q

How will high density affect a a turbocharged engine?

A

Turbocharged engine will provide sea level performance, but it will not overcome:
- Decreased propeller efficiency
- Increased IAS
- Decreased climb gradients
- Increased takeoff/landing roll
- IAS REMAINS THE SAME

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13
Q

“Low energy regime” is:

A
  1. Aircraft in landing config with gear down
  2. In descent
  3. Thrust stabilized in idle range
  4. Airspeed decreasing
  5. Aircraft 50ft or less from touching on runway

Includes contacting ground

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14
Q

What is a balked landing?

A

Aircraft touches down after entering the low energy regime and goes around

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15
Q

In flight you experience a strong updraft. This will affect stall speed because of:

A

Influence on angle of attack; air is hitting aircraft from below, causing the aircrafts relative angle to wind to increase

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16
Q

De-ice equipped aircraft have been certified for providing protection against ice during:

A

In-flight ONLY!

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17
Q

Stall warnings are calibrated to give an effective warning under stat meteorologic conditions?

A

Under clean wing conditions

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18
Q

Type II fluid:

A
  1. Yellow in color
  2. Glycol & water mixture, WITH added thickeners which causes it to act as a gel
  3. Type II applied after a hot type I applied
  4. Longer holdover times than type I
  5. Vr speeds of 100kts or more, due to its thickness and ability to stick to critical surfaces
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19
Q

Type I fluid:

A
  1. Orange in color
  2. Glycol & water mixture
  3. Applied hot
  4. May be used as an “anti-icing fluid” if conditions on ground are not likely for the formation of ice (ground temp. over 0)
  5. Provides some protection against refreezing but not much after accumulation
  6. Deemed no longer effective when its ability to absorb more precip. has been exceeded
  7. removes already accumulated contamination
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20
Q

Type III Fluid:

A
  1. Color TBA
  2. Properties between type I and II
  3. Freezing point depressant (FPD)
  4. Vr speeds of 60kts good for up to 100kts
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21
Q

Type IV fluid:

A
  1. Green in color
  2. Type IV applied after type I applied
  3. Significantly longer HOT than type II
  4. Should only be used on Vr above 100kts
  5. Most major airports use type IV exclusively
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22
Q

What part of the A/C gets deiced first?

A

Surfaces most visible to pilots; i.e. wingtips

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23
Q

Can you takeoff with frost on the underside of the wing?

A

Yes, according to the manufacturer.

If frost is localized to the fuel cell and not the entire full length of the wing. 3mm to 1/8”

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24
Q

EWH definition:

A

Vertical distance from pilot’s eyes to lowest portion of the aircraft in landing configuration at Vref; allues to if landing gear are extended!

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25
Q

AP PAPI EWH:

A

0ft to 10ft (2 lights; most restrictive)

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26
Q

P1 PAPI EWH:

A

0ft to 10ft (4 lights; normal 4 bar)

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27
Q

P2 PAPI EWH:

A

10ft to 25ft

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28
Q

P3 PAPI EWH:

A

25ft to 45ft

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29
Q

A small aircraft using P3 PAPIs will land ____ to the runway.

A

Too far down; aircraft will be higher than what you should be. Less EWH distance

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30
Q

Aircraft with an EWH of >25ft using a 3-bar VASI shall be indicating what to show they’re on slope?

A

Use upwind and middle lights only. So top 2 lights, bottom light in a 3-bar VASI means nothing.

Indication from top to bottom shall be red, white, white

shows high because the rest of the plane is below you

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31
Q

PAPIs at certified airports provide a safe obstruction clearance of __ degrees either side out to __NM from runway threshold

A

6 degrees out to 4NM

longer runways are commonly protected out to 9 degrees either side; exceptions will be noted in CFS

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32
Q

What is V2 speed?

A
  1. Speed attained at 35ft above runway with engine failure at critical engine failure speed (VCEF) or;
  2. Speed 20% above stall speed, whichever greater
  3. Is the minimum recommended climb-out speed
  4. Must be, at all times, be 10% above minimum control speed (VMCA)

Minimum speed that must be achieved before initiating a climb

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33
Q

What is V1 speed?

A
  1. Takeoff decision speed
  2. Engine failure recognition at or above this speed will permit a takeoff to continue and be 35ft withing takeoff distance
  3. Engine failure below this speed permits a stop on the runway within ASDA (accel-stop-dist. avail)
  4. V1 will not be less than Vmcg (min control speed on ground) or greater than Vr or Vmbe (max brake energy limit speed)

critical engine failure speed

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34
Q

What is a balanced field length?

A

Accelerate/go distance = accelerate/stop distance

*Where V1 is at the same point on Accel/go and Accel/stop.

For a given runway length, this results inMAXIMUM ALLOWABLE TAKEOFF WEIGHT.

For a given weight, this results in LEAST RUNWAY LENGTH REQURIED FOR TAKEOFF

It is where the aircraft can come to a stop at very end of runway (accel-stop), OR where the aircraft could be at 35ft (accel-go)

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35
Q

Runway clearway definition:

A
  • 250ft on either side of runway centreline
  • Obstacle-free
  • Maximum length of 1,000ft at Canadian aerodromes
  • Runway lights may protrude no more than 26 inches vertically
    **max incline of 1.25%*
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36
Q

What are limits of runway clearways?

A

Runway lights are allowed to protrude into the clearway, and terrain must not have an upward gradient more than 1.25%. No terrain or objects may protrude above the plane

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37
Q

What is a stopway?

A

Basically the extended part of the runway that is at least as wide as the runway and able to support weight of aircraft during aborted takeoff. i.e. chevrons at JFK

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38
Q

Landing distance definition LDA:

A

A point 50ft above runway down to where the aircraft stops.

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39
Q

Vmbe speed:

A

Max brake energy limit speed: Where a stop on the ground can be accomplished within the energy limitations of the brakes

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40
Q

V ef speed:

A

Engine failure speed; speed at just below V1 at which the critical engine is assumed failed for the purpose of takeoff performance analysis

Literally just a speed at which tests were conducted by manufacturer

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41
Q

V lof speed:

A

Lift Off Speed

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42
Q

Vmca:

A
  1. Minimum control speed in air
  2. Level flight, zero yaw. no more than 5 degree bank
  3. Critical engine “inoperative”
  4. Operative engine takeoff power, gear up & flaps at takeoff config
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43
Q

Vmca may not exceed ___ the Vs.

A

1.2 the Vs!!!!

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44
Q

Vb speed:

A

Maximum gust intensity speed.

66ft/sec gust without stalling or overstressing aircraft

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45
Q

Required takeoff distance is the longest of the following distances:

A
  1. 115% all-engine takeoff distance
  2. Accelerate/stop distance (one engine failed)
  3. Accelerate/go distance (one engine failed)
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46
Q

Accelerate-stop distance (ASDA) includes:

A
  1. Distance to accelerate with ALL engines
  2. Then at V1 (at least once second before V1), have engine fail
  3. Reconfigure for stopping using max brakes

REVERSE THRUST NOT TO BE USED IN ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCES

TORA + STOPWAY = ASDA

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47
Q

Accelerate-go distance includes:

A
  1. Distance to accelerate with ALL engines
  2. Then at V1 (at least one second before V1), have one engine fail
  3. Continue takeoff roll, lift off at a point 35ft above at V2 speed

You’ve committed, engine failure at least 1sec before V1!

Takeoff roll to V1 + one-engine to Vr + one-engine to 35ft

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48
Q

Type J ARCAL:

A

5 keys in 5 seconds, 15mins

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49
Q

Type K ARCAL:

A

7 keys in 5 seconds
Low, medium, high = 3,5,7 keys

click 5 times again when landing even if runway lights are on

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50
Q

When climbing at constant Mach, your TAS,CAS,IAS will:

A

All decrease

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51
Q

Tail plane stall symptoms:

A
  1. Buffeting
  2. little elevator effectiveness
  3. Unusual nose-down trim changes (even at high airspeeds)

involves flying in icing conditions

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52
Q

What is corrective action regarding tail plane stalling:

A
  1. IMMEDIATE retraction of flaps just to previous setting
  2. Increase airspeed
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53
Q

What happens to thrust, temperature and fuel consumption with bleeds ON:

A

Thrust decreases
Temperature increases
Fuel consumption increases

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54
Q

Regarding de-ice/anti-ice, what bleed air is used?

A

HIGH PRESSURE bleed air

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55
Q

What would be the result of the pitot tube becoming blocked but the drain is not?

A

Airspeed will indicate 0.

no constant pressure inside pitot assembly; it all leaks out drain

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56
Q

Swept back wings improve ____ stability.

A

Lateral stability

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57
Q

RAIM prediction is calculated in the ___

A

Receiver

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58
Q

Minimum satellites for RAIM to function?

A

Minimum of 5 satellites; 4 satellites are required for general navigation

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59
Q

Does RAIM compensate for satellite outages?

A

No! That would be WAAS

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60
Q

What is the main difference between RAIM and WAAS?

A

RAIM has no fault detection but WAAS does

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61
Q

What are the main components of a jet engine?

A
  1. Fan
  2. Compressor
  3. Combustor
  4. Turbine
  5. Mixer
  6. Nozzle
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62
Q

What does the exhaust mixer do on a jet engine?

A

Bypass cold/slow air is mixed with hot/fast exhaust gasses before exiting to atmosphere though a propelling nozzle.

Reduces thermal signature, noise, and vibrations. More efficient

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63
Q

3 Design features to prevent compressor stalls:

A
  1. Variable inlet guide vanes
  2. Compressor bleed valve
  3. Fuel metering (FCU or EFC)
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64
Q

What is the main function of a compressor bleed valve:

A

Helps prevent compressor stall.

When turbulent air enters the compressor, the bleed valve can open and “dump” the stagnant/jammed air before it develops further down into the compressor turbine stages

At LOW RPM!

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65
Q

3 Types of reversers:

A

Cascade
Blocker/target
Bucket

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66
Q

In a cascade reverser, what air is reversed?

A

COLD bypass air

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67
Q

In a bucket reverser/target type, what air is reversed?

A

No bypass air, so just HOT non-bypass air is reversed

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68
Q

How is fuel quantity measured? How is it corrected?

A

A “float” is used to measure it by volume and is uncorrected for temperature and pressure

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69
Q

How is fuel weight measured?

A

“Capacitance” system measures molecules of fuel present; no the amount it takes up.
(essentially hooking up a electrical circuit to run through and it measures the fuel amount)

Therefore, pressure and temperature does not matter

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70
Q

In a gas turbine engine, what condition allows control of blade angle and fuel control?

A

Beta range

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71
Q

What is the low-pitch stop?

A

a hydro-mechanical stop prevents inadvertent reverse in flight!

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72
Q

What do you see when in BETA range on instruments?

A

Low engine RPM!!!

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73
Q

Pressurization is controlled by the ___ valve.

A

Outflow valve

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74
Q

What is the best way to evacuate the cabin for smoke?

A

Climb/raise the cabin (i.e. depressurize it, open DV port, etc.)

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75
Q

Air passing through a shockwave:
Pressure =
Temperature =
Density =
Velocity =

A

Pressure = increases
Temperature = increases
Density = increases
Velocity = decreases

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76
Q

Vortex generators are _____ which ______

A

Small blades on upper side of wing which delays boundary layer seperation

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77
Q

What do winglets do regarding induced drag and profile drag?

A
  • Reduces induced drag
  • Increases form drag
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78
Q

Regarding a propeller-driven aircraft and a runway friction index, what factor of the runway must the aircraft come to a stop to when calculated?

A

0.7, or within first 70% of LDA

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79
Q

Regarding a turbojet aircraft and a runway friction index, what factor of the runway must the aircraft come to a stop to when calculated?

A

0.6, or within first 60% of LDA

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80
Q

What is Coriolis effect regarding human factors?

A

Dangerous type of disorientation causing extreme confusion, nausea and rolling of eyeballs that prevents pilot from reading instruments correctly
Can happen of pilot turns his/her head suddenly while in a turn

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81
Q

What causes the ear/sinus pains when in a climb or descent?

A

Trapped gasses

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82
Q

What and why are smokers more susceptible to?

A

Hypoxia *at any altitude.

O2 carrying-capacity to lungs reduced

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83
Q

How long before carbon monoxide poison clears out of your system?

A

“a day or more”

84
Q

Regarding alcohol and hypoxia, at what altitude is it twice as intoxicating?

A

6,000ft is equivalent to 2 drinks at sea level.

Remember 12hrs required before flight and 24 before heavy drinking

alcohol remains in inner ear

85
Q

Drifting snow at an airport will cause what illusion?

A

Illusion of “movement”

86
Q

What is the TORA:

A

Takeoff run available

Suitable for ground run of an airplane taking off

87
Q

What is the TODA:

A

Takeoff distance available

Takeoff run + clearway!

88
Q

What are the 3 functions of hydroplanning?

A
  • Water depth
  • Tire pressure
  • Speed
89
Q

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

A
  • Viscous hydroplaning
  • Dynamic hydroplaning
  • Reverted rubber hydroplaning
90
Q

What is viscous hydroplaning?

A

Pavement is lubricated by a thin layer of water, which is unable to penetrate to contact pavement. (usually occurs on smooth runways)

at low speeds at low water depth

HAPPENS AT AIRPORTS WHERE SKIDMARKS ON RUNWAY CAUSE SLIPPERY ENVIORNMENTS

super smooth runway; skidmarks on rwy contribute, make it more smooth

Low speed, thin film

91
Q

What is dynamic hydroplaning?

A
  1. Build-up of hydrodynamic pressure between tire and pavement
  2. Occurs at high speeds with excessive standing water exceeding tread depth
  3. Reduces area of tire that can maintain contact with pavement

total loss of braking can occur

Normal hydroplaning, you’re riding on water exceeds tread

HIGH TIRE PRESSURE

High speed, thick film

92
Q

What is reverted rubber hydroplaning?

A
  1. Locked or slowly rotating wheels
  2. Skidding tire on ground produces heat
  3. Resulting heat generates steam in contact area; puts upward pressure on tire
  4. Hot steam causes tire to shred (fold like a drag racer) due to chemical reversion; reduces braking coefficient

Steam; chemical reaction and doesn’t let your tire touch ground

Locked wheels hard braking

93
Q

Total pitot blockage:

A

A/S indicator acts as altimeter

Overreads in climb
Underreads in descent

94
Q

Static port blockage:

A

OPPOSITE TO PITOT BLOCKAGE
Underreads in climb
Overreads in descent

95
Q

Pitot, drain, static ALL blocked:

A

A/S indicator will freeze (keep pressure inside)

96
Q

Pitot blocked/drain open:

A

No dynamic “intake” pressure, all remaining pressure leaks out. A/S will indicate zero

97
Q

Mach number is the ratio of:

A

TRUE airspeed to the local speed of sound

98
Q

In the troposphere, air temperature ___ with height.

A

Decreases with height

99
Q

In stratosphere, temperature ___ with height.

A

Increases with height!

100
Q

Departure obstacle clearances:

A

35ft above highest obstacle, 200ft horizontally inside boundaries, 300ft outside those boundaries

101
Q

What are dynamic balance controls on actual control surfaces used for?

A

Helps the pilot with handling of aircraft

102
Q

A gas turbine start, it spools the:

A

HIGH pressure spool

103
Q

What is single-axis A/P?

A

A/P with only ROLL!

104
Q

When does HOT time start?

A

After application of the beginning of the last shot of deice fluid

105
Q

Difference between turbojet and turbofan reverse?

A

Turbojet uses buckets for exhaust gases
Turbofan cascades and uses bypass cold air

106
Q

Can you fly with a broken fuel gauge?

A

Yes, if in accordance with MEL and company approved COM

107
Q

What is the purpose of anti-skid?

A

Speed of aircraft does not correspond to the speed of the wheels on the ground; prevents tire damage and aquaplaning

Airplane decelerates too quickly!

108
Q

3 map projections:

A

Mercator: rhumb line
Transverse Mercator: great circle
Lambert conformal conic: great circle

109
Q

Visual VASIS glide path provides what protection?

A

Provides +/- 10 degrees either side to 4NM from threshold

minimum 6 degrees either side, to a max of 8 degrees on newer systems

110
Q

When turbine compressor bleed air is open, the thrust _____ and the temperature _____.

A

Decreases and increases

111
Q

When given a clearance to climb, at what rate should you climb:

A

Best optimum climb speed which is suitable for aircraft OPEN CLIMB

112
Q

Principle of a fire detection and reaction:

A

Do not shut down, only reduce power parameters and carry on. It is not a total emergency at this point

113
Q

When climbing at constant TAS, your Mach,CAS,IAS will:

A

Decrease, increase, increase

114
Q

Compressor stall engine parameters:

A
  1. High ITT
  2. Low N1 (low low pressure)
  3. Engine surge
115
Q

Slave compass:

A

Directional gyro👳‍♂️ with remove compass

116
Q

When at very cold temps through mountains, what should you add to your cruise altitude?

A

1,000ft

117
Q

Prop overspeed reaction:

A

Reduce throttle
Reduce RPM
Reduce airspeed

118
Q

What is the biggest tail plane stall symptom:

A

Stall at high speed

119
Q

As air passes through shockwave, pressure ____, temperature ____, velocity ____.

A

Pressure increase, temperature increase, velocity increase

120
Q

What is a hung start:

A

No rise in Ng RPM on turboprop, no N1 rise in turbojet

121
Q

Sweepback operational disadvantage:

A

Dutch roll!

122
Q

When is CFIT most likely to occur?

A

Final approach MDA/DH

123
Q

What kind of drag is wingtip vortex?

A

Induced drag

124
Q

Cold soaking on wings produces what type of ice:

A

Clear ice; most severe

125
Q

Centrifugal compressors are:

A
  • Low compression ratio
  • durable
  • fast acceleration over a wide RPM range
  • Easier to design and manufacture
  • Fewer moving parks
  • LARGE FRONTAL AREA
126
Q

Axial flow compressors are:

A
  • High compression ratio
  • SMALL FRONTLA AREA
  • Slow acceleration over wide RPM range
  • Difficult to design * manufacture
  • Several parts
  • Susceptible to FOD
127
Q

__ of the energy available from combustion on a gas turbine engine goes to driving the compressor.

A

3/4

128
Q

What part of the compressor can be used for engine start on a turbofan?

A

N2! High pressure compressor

129
Q

The autopilot controls the aircraft around the:

A

CENTRE OF GRAVITY!

130
Q

Wake turbulence is heaviest when aircraft is ____, ____, and ____.

A

Heavy, clean, slow

131
Q

Critical engine:

A

Most aircraft in Canada prop spin clockwise in reference to pilot seat.

Since the resultant “cut” of the blade on the right engine is further from the centre of the airplane, the LEFT engine is most critical

132
Q

Subsonic speed range:

A

Mach 0 to .75

133
Q

Transonic speed range:

A

Mach .75 to 1.25
Airflow over wings is both subsonic and supersonic

134
Q

Supersonic speed range:

A

Greater than Mach 1.25
airflow is supersonic or greater over wings

135
Q

What atmospheric factor affects Mach number the most?

A

Air temperature.

Warm air = low density = lower speed of sound

136
Q

What is critical Mach number?

A

MACH CRIT!

Airflow reaches speed of sound OR shockwaves first appear on aircraft

OR HIGHEST SPEED WITHOUT SUPERSONIC AIRFLOW

137
Q

How does temperature affect critical Mach number?

A

It doesn’t

138
Q

What is static air temperature?

A

The static air temp of air that the plane is about to fly through

139
Q

What is Ram Rise (RR)?

A

Temperature rise caused by friction and adiabatic compression as an aircraft travels through air at high speed

140
Q

What is true air temperature?

A

INDICATED temperature, REMEMBER THIS SI AFTER RAM RISE TEMPERATURE IS APPLIED!! This temp is affected by friction of heat through air on probes!

141
Q

What is the most common type of hydroplanning?

A

Viscous hydroplaning

142
Q

Having ice, frost or snow can reduce lift by as much as__% and increase drag by up to __%

A

30% and 40%

143
Q

Ground tolerance for altimeter of known elevation:

A

50ft

144
Q

Ground tolerance for altimeter of known elevation:

A

50ft

145
Q

At sea level with ICAO standard atmosphere, what is the altimeter tolerance?

A

20ft

146
Q

To avoid CFIT, what shall you do?

A

DO NOT RELY HEAVILY ON INSTRUMENTS!

  • Know MDA/DA
  • Know area
  • Use CDFA (continuous descent)
147
Q

What is the negative cabin pressure relief valve used for?

A

Prevents OUTSIDE from being higher than INSIDE.

i.e. pop can theory

148
Q

When the aircraft is gliding, gravity is ______

A

Divided into lift and drag!

149
Q

How do you reduce smoke in the cabin in regards to pressurizing the cabin?

A

Rise the cabin altitude to get rid of smoke!

MAKE THE CABIN HIGHER WHERE SMOKE CANNOT EXIST

150
Q

____ temperature and _____ pressure will result in reduced terrain clearance.

A

Cold temp and low pressure

151
Q
A
152
Q

Where is a third attitude indicator required?

A
  1. Any transport category
  2. Any turbo-propeller in a commercial service with 10 or more pax
153
Q

What does mode A provide?

A

Identifying code only

154
Q

How is pitot pressure measured?

A

total dynamic pressure + static pressure

155
Q

How is static pressure measured?

A

Ambient atmospheric pressure. Static pressure decreases with altitude.

156
Q

Outflow valve on aircraft prevents:

A

Cabin alt. in aircraft from being too high!

157
Q

What is a magnastick?

A

Used to check fuel quantity inside tank when aircraft is on ground

158
Q

Why are most aircraft equipped with trimmable horizontal stabilizers?

A

System allows reduced drag in flight

159
Q

A rise in temperature will cause Mcrit to ___ and a drop in temperature will cause Mcrit to ___

A

Increase and decrease Mcrit

160
Q

LIAL is:

A

Low intensity approach lighting

161
Q

Ice on wings decreases lift by up to ___ % and increases drag up to ___%

A

30% and 40% **drag is more!!*

162
Q

During an overshoot in IMC, a pilot will have the tendancy to ___?

A

Lower the nose, this is called somatogravic illusion

163
Q

At ___ft one drink is equal to ___ drinks as sea level

A

6,000ft, equal to 2 drinks at sea level

164
Q

Why do you have to wait the 12 or 24hrs before flying an airplane?

A

Alcohol remains in inner ear

165
Q

What does an FMA in any case display to the pilot?

A

Flight Mode Annunciator

Which modes are currently engaged

Which modes are ARMED

166
Q

What battery state could indicate an overtemp situation in the aircraft?

A

Battery overload, indicates over use

167
Q

What does class A TAWS include?

A
  1. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS) mode 1 to 5
  2. Forwards-looking terrain avoidance
  3. Premature descent algorithm
  4. Descent to 500ft above terrain or nearest runway elevation during non-precision approach
  5. Terrain display system
168
Q

What does class B TAWS include?

A
  1. Ground proximity warning system (GPWS) mode 1 and 3
  2. Forwards-looking terrain avoidance
  3. Premature descent algorithm
  4. Descent to 500ft above terrain or nearest runway elevation during non-precision approach
    NO DISPLAY
169
Q

Over what compass headings will the northernly error be most apparent?

A

CROSSING north, i.e. 340 to 010.

170
Q

When climbing at a constant IAS, TAS will ____ every ____ft.

A

Increase 2% each 1,000ft

171
Q

When landing in a crosswind, the upwind vortices will ____ and the downwind vortices will ____

A

REMAIN FORTIFIED, UPWIND

Blow away DOWNWIND

172
Q

If you are away from base for 3 days, should you adjust or remain on home base sleep schedule?

A

ALWAYS ADJUST!

173
Q

Pilot has taken herbal cough drops. Do you need to take precautions? If so, what?

A

YES. Seek a CAME

174
Q

How long must you retain a journey log?

A

At least 1yr

175
Q

The purpose of a diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is to ____ airflow and _____ pressure.

A

Decrease airflow and increase pressure!

On the outer part of a centrifugal compressor there are diffusers, that look like stators. You can see that they move the airflow at a sharper angle, which causes the airflow to slow down but increase pressure.

176
Q

Enroute HI charts consist of __ charts.

A

6 charts

177
Q

Wake turbulence is the sole responsibility of ___

A

ATC; sometimes they can get away with this responsibility by saying “caution, wake turbulence”, then it is up to the pilot to adjust its operations/flight path to avoid turbulence

178
Q

What is roll upset?

A

Associated with flying in icing conditions with SLD (supercooled large water droplets)

Water freezes on part of the wing outside of deice capabilities, makes wing surface rough and decreases aileron effectiveness

179
Q

The point of maximum chord thickness on a laminar flow wing is located at about _____ aft of the leading edge, whereas the point on a conventional wing is located at about _____, of the leading edge.

A

50% (LAMINAR = SYMMETRICAL)

25% (CONVENTIONAL)

180
Q

When climbing throughout an isothermal layer at a constant CAS, the Mach number _____ and the TAS _____

A

Increases and keeps the same value as Mach number

181
Q

At night, the ___ part of the eye allows the human eye to see. It takes ___ for the eyes to completely adjust to night “vision”

A

RODS 30mins

182
Q

On what flight segment does frost affect performance?

A

Affects climb performance, does not affect lift

183
Q

Slave compass:

A

Directional Gyro with remote compass

184
Q

Propeller overspeed procedure:

A
  • Reduce throttle
  • Reduce RPM
  • Reduce airspeed
185
Q

As density altitude increases, _____ speed decreases, and ______ speed increases

A

Density altitude increases, high buffet speed decreases (meaning it only take a bit of AoA to cause turbulent airflow over wings)

186
Q

Dihedral wing:

A

Lower wing gives lift, lateral stability

187
Q

When fly a long range flight, the weight is decrease and the speed is increase. what should the PIC do?

A

Reduce power and speed

188
Q

What atmospheric condiiton wil give you a lower true altitude?

A

Cold temp, low pressure

cold temp; altimeter feels higher than you are, but in reality you are lower

189
Q

Mach Tuck

A

Where not nose tends to pitch downward as air around wings reach supersonic speed.

Caused by a backwards centre of pressure. As you approach Mcrit (speed at which air is moving around aircraft; NOT the speed of aircraft), a shock wave occurs at leading edge producing high lift, then as you get faster, it moves rearward, causing the tail to lift up, and nose pitching down or “tucking”

Sweep back wing shock waves start at wing root and move back and out as speed increases

190
Q

What does a tachometer show?

A

RPM

191
Q

On a VASI, which bar is the upwind/downwind?

A

UP one is on top
DOWN one is down

Up shall be red, down shall be white

192
Q

What is the best way to respond to the needs of one or more hydraulic systems that require different oil flows to work?

A

Variable displacement hydraulic pump

193
Q

On a standard HSI flying an ILS, full deflection is ___ and each dot represents ___

A

+/- 5 degrees, 1 degree FOR HSI, WIDER SPLAY!!

for a LOC, it would’ve been +/- 2.5 degrees either side

194
Q

Triangles of velocity

A
  1. Wind direction & velocity
  2. Track & groundspeed
  3. Heading & true airspeed
195
Q

2 VORs on ground must be within ___ degrees for IFR

A

4 degrees

196
Q

Hydroplaning can cause an increase of the landing distance by:

A

700%

197
Q

In cruise, you should ____ as the fuel burns.

A

Decrease Mach; power

198
Q

In slow flight, the aircraft is ____ the power curve because of ___. Th power required ____ as speed ____.

A

Behind power curve because of angle of attack
Power required increases as speed decreases

199
Q

Grey out occurs at __Gs, black out at ___Gs

A

+2Gs +4Gs

200
Q

Pregnant pilot can fly until:

A

30th week of pregnancy

201
Q

ILS distance and degree range:

A

18NM 10 degrees

10NM 35 degrees

18-10, 10-35

202
Q

How much thrust does a reverser provide?

A

45%

203
Q

How much braking does thrust revers provide on a contaminated runway?

A

50% - because it is so effective, NEVER take reverse thrust into account for landing distances

204
Q

Frequency is:

A

The number of cycles per second

205
Q

As frequency ____ ground wave attenuation ___ to provide less reception distance

A

Increases increases

206
Q

Coastal refraction error occurs at:

A

30 degrees or less to a coast

207
Q
A

Happy Dim Sum Wok Garden Bai (6 decks)

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