SAMRA (Radio Aids/Navigation) Flashcards

1
Q

PSR transponder requirement and view limitations:

A

No transponder needed

  1. Used for weather
  2. Picks up birds
  3. 80NM range
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2
Q

How is SSR used?

A

Uses time interval between interrogation and reply from aircraft transponder

pressure altitude, longer range

Transponder up to 250NM range

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3
Q

What is TSR?

A

Terminal service radar

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4
Q

What is PAR?

A

Precision approach radar

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5
Q

What is mode A transponder?

A

Base, no altitude!

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6
Q

What is ADSE?

A

Airport surface detection equipment

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7
Q

What is mode C transponder?

A

Position with altitude encoding (pressure altitude in aircraft transponder)

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8
Q

What is mode S transponder?

A

A and C with TCAS abilities! S, TCAS

Two aircraft equipped with mode S and TCAS II can communicate to each other for RAs using the mode S transponder

Can send ADS-B messages

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9
Q

2 types of weather detection equipment:

A
  • Weather radar unit
  • Lightning detection unit (storm scope)
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10
Q

Advantages to storm scope:

A
  1. Not susceptible to the same attenuation as radar
  2. Tends to cost less
    3. Not dependent on line-of-sight, able to detect lightning behind mountains
  3. Possible to detect turbulence within clouds of little or no precipitation
  4. Stormscopes can provide an arc or 360 degree view of electrical activity of aircraft
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11
Q

Weather radar works on the basis of:

A

Primary surveillance radar

Uses a beam of energy sent out and reflects back towards antenna, shows target/echo

Reflects water! Top-down view, density/intensity of water

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12
Q

What type of precipitation is most reflective on a weather radar?

A
  • Rain
  • Wet snow
  • Wet hail

designed for LIQUID precipitation

Least reflective: dry hail, ice crystals, dry snow

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13
Q

What type of precipitation is least reflective?

A
  • Dry hail
  • Ice crystals
  • Snow
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14
Q

The amount of energy returned to the antenna on a weather radar is dependent on:

A
  1. Type of precipitation
  2. Concentration
  3. Water droplet size (returns the greatest energy)

Exam question will be which one of the three is the MOST reflective? WATER DROPLET SIZE

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15
Q

Where would you scan a thunderstorm to find its severity?

A

Lower half of storm!

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16
Q

Attenuation is based on what factors:

A
  1. Distance
    - Further you are the more energy is lost use to beam dispersal and storm is understated
  2. Heavy precipitation
    - Radar energy is absorbed and cannot detect a cell behind the area of heavy precipitation
    - This is where the tilt function needs to be used!
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17
Q

What does the gain function do?

A

Changes colours on map.

Up gain = show green as a yellow, yellow as red, etc.
Down gain = show magenta as red, red as yellow, etc.

You can use the gain (turn down) to find specific cells if your screen is showing entirely red.

does NOT change sensitivity!!!

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18
Q

Using a weather radar what would you look for to decipher a severe thunderstorm echo/target?

A
  1. Irregular shape
  2. Shape is rapidly changing

Indicates hail, severe turbulence, icing, wind shear, tornadoes

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19
Q

Ground based weather radar can detect what types of precipitation:

A
  1. Rain
  2. Snow
  3. Drizzle
  4. Hail

does NOT detect volcanic ash!

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20
Q

What types of imagery are available for ground based weather radar?

A

Precipitation rate for SNOW (INCLUDING HAIL)
or
Precipitation rate for RAIN (INCLUDING VIRGA)

Echo tops

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21
Q

Ground based weather radar modes:

A
  • National
  • Regional
  • Single
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22
Q

Source of aviation weather in Canada:

A

NAV Canada

Compiles all weather in the world, they just collect it all to display

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23
Q

When are GFAs issued?

A

Approximately 30min before the beginning of the coverage period

for ALL 6 GFAs!!!! It’ll show the issuance time for each one and all 6 read the same time!

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24
Q

GFA:

A

Time observed:
1800Z, 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z (remember the order!)

Time issued:
Approximately 30min before the beginning of the coverage period

Altitude concerned:
AT or below 24,000ft, can include convective weather above FL240

Remarks:
Graphically depicts forecast weather over a period of time, do NOT forget about the IFR outlook and its addition to its total validity time
- Each GFA is valid for 12hrs

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25
Difference between AIRMET and SIGMET:
SIGMET *Short-term* weather **warning** issued where hazardous conditions are occurring or are expected to occur. *Conditions are occurring, more severe.* - SFC winds >50kts - squall line - tornadoes - volcanic ash AIRMET *Short-term* weather **advisory** of potentially hazardous conditions that are not in a **current GFA** and not requiring a SIGMET. *Potential, not as severe.* - OUTSIDE OF CONVECTIVE ACTIVITY: - low visibility - moderate turbulence - moderate icing *SIGMETS AND AIRMETS CAN AMMEND GFAs!*
26
When are TAFs issued?
Approximately *20mins* before the beginning of the validity period
27
TAF validity periods:
Issued every 3-6hrs Valid for 12, 24, or 30hrs; next valid time is stated at the end of the TAF
28
Upper level forecast chart (PROG) time issued, applicable flight levels and its depiction:
NWS in Washington responsible **2 FORECASTS** *FL240 to FL450* - FL240,FL340,FL390,FL450 6 and 12hr forecast produced every 6hrs **Wind & temperature chart** NOT Canadian
29
Significant weather forecast chart (PROG) time issued, applicable flight levels and its depiction:
1. Issued approximately 11-12hrs before validity time of **00Z,06Z,12Z,18Z** (not amended unless a SIGMET updates sig wx prog) 2. For Canada **FL100 to FL240 (700mb to 400mb)** 3. Altitudes depicted in box square is the height of tropopause **SIGNIFICANT WEATHER FORECAST CHARTS ARE ISSUED BY WASHINGTON! THEY USE ICAO! IF YOU SEE FREQ,OCNL,ETC., ADD THE 25% BUFER TO COVERAGE!!!**
30
Surface weather chart:
*Time observed:* 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z (4 times) *Time issued:* Issued 2-3hrs **after** observation, meaning an observation while the chart was valid; NOT current *Altitude concerned:* **Surface** to 3,000ft, including MSLP *Remarks:* **Analysis** of MSL pressure pattern, **surface** location of fronts, **surface** position of precipitation and obstructions to visibility (based on weather reports). *Weather aloft that is visible from surface is also included.*
31
Upper Level Chart pressure per chart and relative altitude:
850mb = 5,000ft 700mb = 10,000ft 500mb = 18,000ft 250mb = 34,000ft
32
What's a VOLMET:
Network of radio stations that broadcast TAF's, SIGMETs, and METARs on *HF frequency* Schedule based on 5min intervals which one station in each region broadcasting reports for a fixed list of cities in each interval. 5mins you'll hear YVR 10mins you'll hear YYJ etc. TAF,METAR,SIGMET on HF!
33
Where do you find the frequency for which a VOLMET is being played on:
CFS!
34
Where are METARs valid for?
**ONLY VALID AT AERODROME!** of station reporting!!
35
What does CCA mean in a METAR?
Correction
36
What is MI in a METAR?
Shallow
37
What is BC in a METAR?
Patches
38
What is SG in a METAR?
Snow Grains **DO NOT GET CONFUSED WITH GS**
39
What is GS in a METAR?
Snow Pellets **NO NOT GET CONFUSED WITH SG**
40
What is the difference between BR and FG in a METAR?
BR = visibility greater **OR EQUAL TO** 5/8SM FG = visibility less than 5/8 SM
41
SKC:
No clouds present
42
FEW:
0 to 2 Oktas
43
SCT:
3 to 4 Oktas
44
BKN:
5 to 8 Oktas
45
OVC:
8 to 8 Oktas
46
CLR:
No clouds present below 10,000ft. Remember CLR is more restrictive, and SKC is the entire **sky** being clear
47
METAR CYFC 132100Z 26010KT 2SM -RA BR BKN030 OVC090 08/07 A2953 FG3 ST3 AC2 SLP994= What is the minimum opacity increase for the surface based layer to constitute a ceiling?
5/8s **Fog does not constitute a ceiling, until it has 8/8 coverage!** SURFACE BASED WEATHER HAS TO BE 8/8 OKTAS FOR IT TO BE CONSIDERED A CEILING AT GROUND LEVEL; NOT 5/8 AS IT WOULD BE FOR A BKN LAYER AT ALTITUDE!
48
What is an LWIS? What information does it provide?
Limited weather information system. AWOS with basic weather 1. Wind speed/direction 2. Temp/dewpoint 3. Altimeter **that's it!** COCHRANE AUTOMATED WEATHER OBSERVATION 0123Z WIND, 120 AT 5 TEMPERATURE 14, DEWPOINT 8 ALTIMETER 2994
49
When you are asked which GFA in sequence is the one you are looking at, how would you find that?
GFAs come in packs of 3, starting at: **1800Z 0000Z 0600Z 1200Z** If yours said 0600Z, your GFA would be the 3rd one in sequence from the issuance
50
What ceiling/visibility is considered IFR?
Ceilings 1,000ft AGL or less and/or Less than 3SNM
51
What are the validity periods of GFAs?
6hrs each, but note the last one: **If an IFR outlook is provided at the very bottom, not the validity period because that will be the validity period of the entire GFA!** Exam question: Of a package of 6 GFAs, what is the entire validity period? 24 hours!! NOTE IFR OUTLOOK
52
What is the green dotted enclosed sections on a GFA?
Continuous precipitation
53
What is the green hashed enclosed sections on a GFA?
Showery precipitation
54
Define the yellow dotted enclosed areas on a GFA:
Areas of obstruction **not** associated with precipitation, where it is 6SM or less
55
ISOLD in GFA coverage of the sky:
25% or less of sky *Convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *50% or less in ICAO* ISOLD,OCNL,FRQ - Convective (I Sold Occasional Fent) LCL,PTCHY,XTNSV - Non-convective
56
OCNL in GFA coverage of the sky:
26 - 50% of sky *Convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *51% to 75%*
57
FRQ in GFA coverage of the sky:
Greater than 50% of sky *Convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *Greater than 75%*
58
LCL in GFA coverage of the sky:
25% or less of sky *Non-convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *50% or less in ICAO*
59
PTCHY in GFA coverage of the sky:
26 - 50% of sky *Non-convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *51% to 75%*
60
XTNSV in GFA coverage of the sky:
Greater than 50% of sky *Non-convective* REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%. *Greater than 75%*
61
What is the symbol for a trough on a GFA?
Purple dashed line, or double purple dashed line if upper trough
62
What is the wind speed and direction of the sock shown?
From the northwest at 20 gusting 30
63
Identify the differences between the turbulence sections on a GFA:
64
GFAs are amended by:
SIGMETs and AIRMETs! Draws attention to something that is occurring that was not forecasted
65
TAF validity periods:
12hr 24hr 30hr at very few airports *someone needs to be there to make it and make amendments to it if weather differs from TAF. Remember this as this will indicate a closing time for the control tower*
66
Where are TAFs valid?
5NM from geographic centre of aerodrome. Do not be confused with METAR as a METAR is just above the airport its reporting from
67
VC in a TAF:
5-10NM
68
VC in a METAR:
Up to 5NM, but not at aerodrome
68
BECMG means:
A permanent change
69
How is this read: WS011/27055
WS at 1,100ft AGL 270 degrees at 55
70
PROB 30/PROB 40 is an indication of:
Hazardous weather only!
71
9900 means what in an FD?
Light and variable
72
791159 What is this FD wind direction, speed and temperature?
79-50=29 = 290 degrees 111kts - 59 degrees
73
792538 What does this FD mean?
SUBTRACT 50 from first number, ADD 100 to 2nd number! 290 @ 125kts! -38 degrees Straight up add 100 to the 2nd number in the FD.
74
If an FD states "No forecast" why would this be?
Elevation of station reporting is above 3,000ft or whatever the elevation is
75
What altitude is an Upper Level Prognostic Chart issued at in Canada?
4 flight levels! FL240,FL340,FL390,FL450
76
How often is an Upper Level Prognostic Chart issued?
Every 6hrs beginning at 00z For example: 00Z analysis will provide a 06Z & 12Z forecast 06Z analysis will provide a 12Z and 18Z forecast
77
WAFCs generate high-level significant weather charts for FL___ to FL___ around the world
FL250 to FL630
78
When turbulence is indicated on a weather chart, what does it imply?
A greater than 50% chance of it occurring!
79
In a prognostic chart, why are some of the wind flags/penants upside down when following a jetstream?
They *stick out* into the colder air mass!
80
What is the jetstream delta on a prognostic chart?
A box under the green jet stream that tells you the depth and tops of the jet stream where the jet stream speed exists i.e. 80kts!
81
On a sig prog chart, a jet stream states the barbs indicating 150kts at its centre at FL300 and ranging from FL160 to FL340. What is the speed of the jet stream at FL190?
It would be 80kts because on the prog chart from Washington (the ones that plainly says Washington and ICAO) the jet streams that are depicted only start at *80kts* and not *60kts* like the other charts!!! This is a **JET STREAM DELTA!**
82
Upper air analysis chart, what is different?
Anal charts show in tens of metres! You will be given a chart at a mb pressure and it will show your true altitude in metres above sea level. Exam question will be in regards to a chart like this; if you fly through a high pressure, your true altitude will increase (you could memorize this or just look at the anal chart that shows your actual height in metres at that flight level) **CALLED CONTOUR LINES**
83
How are isotachs spaced on an upper air anal?
Isotach = area of EQUAL WIND SPEED Spaced at 30kt intervals; on anal legend
84
when 30kt isotachs are spaced closer than ___NM apart, there is sufficient horizontal shear for CAT
90NM apart!!!!! Remember on upper air anal charts its measures equal wind speed. So an area where the isotachs/windspeed areas are densely close together, means **horizontal** shear for CAT. OR hard direction changes.
85
Every degree of latitude is___NM
60NM
86
On an eastern track you pick up winds from the northwest then from the southwest. What happens to your altitude?
Decreases then increases again, if you draw it out and connect the lines, it looks like you are flying around a low pressure system because it looks counter-clockwise (see picture)
87
What kind of cloud is this (refer to image)
Jet stream cirrus cloud
88
On chart for standard isobaric surface chart (250mb), 30kt isotach spaced at 90NM indicate:
Sufficient horizontal shear for CAT
89
In a jet stream, where is the CAR at its worst?
Just **above** central core of jet
90
NDB enroute and approach tolerances:
+/- 10 degrees enroute, +/- 5 degrees for approach
91
DME is the:
Different number of frequencies TIME DIFFERENCE **KEYWORD different frequency**
92
HF is faster over ____, slower over _____
Faster over water, slower over ice or frost
93
What does TEMPO mean?
Temporary change in weather lasting less than 1 hour
94
What frequency range do VLF use?
(very low frequency) 3-30 **kHz**
95
NDBs operate on the ____ and _____ frequency range and ____ restrited by line of sight
Low and medium frequency range NOT restricted by line of sight
96
To be available, RAIM needs __ satellites and baro-aiding needs ___
5 for RAIM 4 for Baro-aid; something to do with TSO-129 avionics that allow for 1 less satellite when baro-aid is available
97
GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to ___ metres and ____ metres respectively, ___% of the time
6m vertically, 8m horizontally **95%** of the time
98
GNSS approaches may be used in lieu of ___
DME! DME equipped VOR and NDB approaches **cannot use GNSS in lieu of DME when on final approach track on a VOR, DME or LOC approach (muse use the actual aids)
99
When using a VOR for a waypoint, does it need to be tuned and active throughout?
Do not need it when not in range, but when in range you must tune and track it; you cannot just use a point and not be able to use the navaid
100
TC AIM definition of RNAV key words:
WITHIN COVERAGE WITHIN LIMITS (combination of these)
101
A waypoint is:
A point defined by degrees of lat/long
102
INS measures the aircraft acceleration in relation to ___
3 axes, must be perfect!
103
Basic components of an INS:
1. Computer 2. Accelerometers 3. Gyroscopes via *dead reckoning* does not need external aids to determine position
104
VOR distance formula:
1.23√AGL **Remember to use AGL, question will give you aircraft altitude AND VOR altitude. It is actual height over VOR**
105
Wavelength is measured in?
Metres
106
During day should you use a low or high frequency?
SUN UP = FREQ UP SUN DOWN = FREQ DOWN height of ionosphere changes in day/night
107
What radio communication follows the curvature of the earth?
Ground waves; *bend* following curvature of the earth
108
What radio communication are reflected back by the ionosphere?
Sky waves
109
What radio communication travels straight upward and outward from transmitter?
Space waves (from airplane to ground to ionosphere back to ground, etc.)
110
Skip zone:
Area between end of ground wave and first sky wave reception (shorter)
111
Skip distance:
Distance from transmitter and first reception of sky wave
112
HF radio:
INCLUDES SELCAL. Good at transmitting long distance 3 MHz TO 30MHz
113
HF uses what type of modulation?
Amplitude modulation (AM), lower frequencies more power = more distance = worse in distance
114
What is SSB?
Single Side Band transmissions Way of compressing information, devoted to sending it further; not wasting data **8x stronger than basic AM transmitter** In order to compress information into a single side band, radio eliminates one side band and all carrier wave from transmission Carrier wave and other side band is reinserted at the receiver to reproduce message entirely JUST UPPER BAND STAYS, CARRIER IS REMOVED AND LOWR SIDE BAND (RECIPROCAL) IS ELIMAED AND THE RECIEVER REINSERTS THOE MISSING PARAMETERS Can receive HF/AM transmissions
115
SSB is missing:
CARRIER WVE, LOWER SIDEBAND IS REMOVED HAS TO BE REINSERTED BY RECIEVER!
116
What is SELCAL?
Way for ATC to communicate with airplane jus tto tell you they are trying to get a hold of you. You do not need ot monitor! Like a chime in flight deck; pick up HF radio someone is trying to call. **SELCAL MUST BE TESTED** **HF**
117
NDB frequency range:
LF/MF
118
NDB errors on exam:
Night effect Coastal refraction
119
What is night effect?
Sky waves interfere with ground eaves disrupting ADF navigation (NIGHT IS WORSE FOR SKYWAVE/IONOSPHERE)
120
When is ADF night affect most pronounced:
**1. Just before sunrise & sunset 2. When higher frequencies are used at night**
121
Coastal refraction basis:
Traveling through different mediums
122
What is coastal refraction? Where is it most pronounced?
NDB located near shoreline, the radio will change direction as the signal passes from over land to over water Most pronounced (up to 40 degrees of error) when **bearing** between station and aircraft makes an angle **less than 30 degrees**
123
How shall you avoid coastal refraction when tracking an NDB on a coast line?
Approach coastline at angles **greater than 30 degrees to avoid erroneous readings**
124
VOR frequency range
VHF
125
VOR works by (keyword):
**PHASE DIFFERENCE** between two signals which are transmitted simultaneously from VOR station, 3 times per second
126
LOC distance and range:
18NM 10 degrees 10NM 35 degrees
127
VORs are flight checked to an accuracy of:
3 degrees for published VOR radials
128
VOR check:
Dual VOR check OR airborne check
129
Dual VOR check tolerance:
Within 4 degrees of each other to be considered serviceable.
130
Airborne VOR check tolerance:
6 degrees of **published radial** (NEEDS LANDMARK!!) to be considered serviceable.
131
Advantages to VOR compared to NDB:
1. Little atmospheric interference (because it is VHF, not HF) 2. 360 distinct radials 3. Course alignment for VOR radials is **3 degrees** (more strict than NDB) 4. Easy to use, no need to estimate wind correction 5. Good reception at **higher altitudes** VOR is FM, NDB is AM
132
Advantages to NDB compared to VOR:
1. Line of sight transmission characteristic 2. Possible interference with other VORs with similar VHF frequencies
133
If an RMI is tuned/selected to an NDB, what is the arrow pointing at?
Magnetic bearing to station
133
An RMI can home to a:
VOR or NDB, **NOT** an ILS localizer RMI slaved to magnetic compass; give you better spatial awareness
134
Distance to station:
D to station = GS x Time **minutes** / bearing change
135
What is DME:
Distance between aircraft and DME ground station An aircraft DMW unit sends a **SET OF PAIRED PULSES** at specific spacing which is unique to only that aircraft Ground station is the receiver and sends paired pulses back to aircraft at the **same pulse spacing but a HIGHER FREQUENCY** **SLANT RANGE**
136
DME unit can be received from what navaids?
1. VORTAC 2. Standalone DME paired with; - VOR - ILS - LOC
137
What is a TACAN?
Only military installation Military DME, UHF receiver only
138
What is a VORTAC?
Civilian VOR while using a TACAN for DME information VORTAC = civilian VOR with TACAN that provides DME
139
What is slant range error:
When you're high and close to DME, distance to DME will be greater than actual over ground distance. Less pronounced at high and far
140
Can we use TACAN?
Yes, only for DME information, **NO VOR INFO**! A VORTAC is user-friendly that allows you to have VOR and DME
141
Localizer beam is ___ wide on either side of centreline
2.5 degrees either side! SMALL As an aircraft gets closer its precision **IMPROVES, BECOMES MORE SENSITIVE**
142
When flying a LOC, what is the deviation per dot when flying the approach?
Every dot becomes 1/2 a degree on a LOC! So, 3 dots to the left = 1.5 degrees off centreline
143
"I" in an approach identifier indicates what?
Less than 3 degree offset
144
What does an "X" approach identifier indicate?
Greater than 3 degree offset to runway
145
Glideslope bean thickness:
1.4 deep! **full scale deflection would be +/- 0.7 degrees of the glide slope**
146
How far out does a FAF need to be placed on an ILS?
3.5 miles to 6 miles
147
In reference with the 18/10, 10/35 localizer dimensions, what can be true in this area?
Your indications are RELIABLE here; a full scale deflection in this area would have "OFF" flag out of view; meaning it would be ACTIVE, its not showing its OFF becasue it's not off! You are just full deflection! **BACK COURSE IS THE SAME**
148
Vectored on ILS and 10NM from FAF. Within how many degrees would you expect signal reliability?
10 degrees either side of centreline. **TRICK TO THIS QUESTION is that its distance to the FAF not runway; and the FAF has to be at least 3.5 to 6NM out! so it shoves the distance in the 10 degree area either side!**
149
ATC picks up your aircraft with primary surveillance radar only. What kind of information do they see?
AZIMUTH & RANGE *primary return*
150
When ATC states they only have a primary return one something, what do they see?
AZIMUTH (direction) & range **Azimuth = PSR!**
151
What is MLAT? How does it work?
Secondary surveillance system increases situational awareness for aircraft on ground **Works by using a system of strategically placed ground stations around an airport that send interrogations and receives replies from mode A,C, or S transponders (ALL TRANSPONDERS)** Can even be used in terminal procedures
152
Transponder range SSR?
250NM
153
ADS-B out means:
Capability to TRANSMIT messages OUT, such as position
154
ADS-B in means:
ADDITIONAL capability to receive and display ADS-B messages from ground and aircraft So ADSB-in means you have ADSB-out as well.
155
ADS-B uses _____, _____ and _____ to relay aircraft parameters to ATC even outside of coverage/remote display areas
1. AVIONICS 2. SATELITES 3. GROUND SYTEMS ADS-b uses all 3 parameters of GPS essentially
156
What is a function of ADS-B regarding traffic avoidance?
Ground stations can broadcast to ADS-B aircraft traffic information. *NOTE:* **1. SEPERATE FROM TCAS 2. ADS-B WILL NOT SHOW ATC IF YOU ARE GETTING AN RA**
157
On a surface weather map, winds blow _____ to the isobars
PARALLEL
158
On a upper air analysis chart, winds blow _____ to the contour lines
PARALLEL *Contour lines are almost the same as isobars, except that they are displayed as **METERES** above sea level*
159
Upper air analysis charts are based on ____, _____ and _____.
Temperature, humidity and wind data The displayed information is a rection of these 3 variables. Remember a warm and less dense area will be lower A cold and dense is a LOWER area/pressure
160
Met charts at 250mb are measured ____ a day at ____Z and the charts are issued ____
TWICE A DAY (250=2x) 0000Z and 1200Z Issued 3 hours **AFTER** data is recorded
161
Is ADS-B used regarding TCAS avoidance?
NO! It's based on your TCAS and *transponder* equipment to provide TA/RAs ADS-B does not work together
162
3 types of augmentation systems
ABAS SBAS GBAS
163
What are types of ABAS?
Aircraft based! RAIM FDE *often combined*
164
What is RAIM essentially?
Looks at additional satellites to improve your position. 4 required, 5 required for RAIM to function! An extra added security
165
RAIM alert limits?
2NM enroute 1NM terminal 0.3NM for **non-precision approach**
166
RAIM check for arrival limit:
+/- 15mins of ETA *(a 30min period of your arrival time)*
167
How many satellites are required for FDE?
6!! Will ignore 1 if it degrades your position
168
CDI sensitivity for each flight phase:
Enroute = 5NM Terminal = 1NM Approach = 0.3NM NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH RAIM LIMITS. CDI IS BIGGER; 5NM VS 2NM ENROUTE FOR RAIM.
169
What are the switch-up/tightening points regarding CDI sensitivity?
30NM **with approach loaded** CDI, scaling will go from enroute to terminal mode (5NM to 1NM deflection). At 2NM **inbound to FAF**, CDI scaling goes from terminal to approach mode (1NM to 0.3NM) *If RAIM not available at FAF passage, go missed!*
170
If you are shooting a GNSS overlay approach on an NDB approach, do you need to monitor the NAVAID and does it need to be working?
No, do not need to monitor NOR does it need to be functioning
171
VRB in a TAF indicates wat?
3kts or less of variable winds
172
GFA indicates a continuous wind of the windspeed is greater than ___
20kts
173
NOTAM: VOR U/S: Does it need a replacement?
NO! If it was "APROX" or "EST" then it would need a replacing NOTAM
174
Isotachs spaced at __ indicate ___
90NM, indicates **horizontal shear** CAT
175
LLWS reaction:
1. Full power 2. A consistent pitch for max AoA
176
Where is CAT the strongest in a jet stream?
1. Just **above** the central core of the jet 2. Near the polar tropopause (stronger down south) 3. Just *below* the core *Essentially, where that dark blue is; just above jet, cold side of jet and just below jet
177
Where are jets more stronger in a given season?
Winter = stronger to the north Summer = stronger to the south
178
Describe the change in wind from the surface to clear of the boundary layer:
Laminar, transition, turbulence
179
On an upper chart, what is the base of the fronts depicted?
The SURFACE. Upper charts include where the fronts are on the surface
180
Prognostic forecast chart keyword:
FUTURE WEATHER
181
INS system keyword:
Accelerate
182
A continental arctic front moves over the great lakes, what fog occurs?
Steam fog (cold air over warm water)
183
An HSI using an RNAV function, what does one dot represent?
1/2nm
184
Flying in cold air at -25 degrees and you arrive at an airport that is 10 degrees on ground, what will you encounter?
Ice on fuel tanks around wing
185
AWOS visibility is measured as:
A fixed sensor in one direction. Keyword **sense**
186
When using wx radar to decipher the intensity of a cell, you should scan the:
Middle to lower regions of the CB
187
High frequency radio:
Decrease as frequency increase
188
Flying into a warmer air mass with standard altimeter, the altimeter will show:
Altimeter will show lower than you actually are. Watch the wording; as you, the aircraft, are actually higher than what the altimeter says
189
VOR/DME check tolerances:
+/- 4 degrees and within 0.5NM
190
Audio tones question:
Select longest answer
191
Echo tops will _____ as distance _______
Decrease as distance increases; less detail, less stength
192
TCAS I:
Only provides traffic information, no traffic resolution in either raxis
193
TCASS II:
Most common and provides **vertical** traffic resolutions
194
TCAS III:
Provides both **lateral and vertical** traffic resolutions
195
What is ACAS?
Aircraft Collision Avoidance System; just the term. So ACAS on exam just refers to one of the types of TCAS (I,II,III)
196
TAFs forecast a gust when winds are over:
10kts only
197
How long is a SIGMET valid for?
4hrs
198
For TCAS II, what type of transponder is required?
Mode S! **NOT A MODE C**
199
For TCAS I, what type of transponder is requried?
Mode C or S
200
For a TA to be generated, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?
Mode C or S (anything with altitude reporting)
201
For an RA to be generated, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?
Mode C or S as well!! Just altitude reporting. Do NOT get this confused with 2 aircraft with RAs; only thing important in this question is you
202
For two aircraft to avoid one another, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?
Both you and the intruder require mode S transponder
203
How do you test a 406 MHz ELT?
In accordance with manufacturers instructions only
204
If RAD ALT us U/S, what other system will be U/S?
GPWS will be U/S!
205
What are PAPI/VASI sloped at?
3 degrees unless otherwise noted.
206
How is PAPI category decided at an aerodrome?
Based on the aircraft which it is intended to serve
207
GFA will depict a LLJ when:
Core speed of **50kts** or more (may include between 35kts to 45kts if associated with turbulence or shear) LLJ will not be depicted if higher than 6,000 **MSL** *HEIGHT OF JET IS NOT INDICATED*
208
Identify the symbols
1. Drizzle 2. Ice pellets 3. Freezing rain
209
What is an AIREP?
Appended to routine position reports Aircraft cleared on a designated NAT track will give these reports only if the phrase "SEND MET REPORTS" is included in their oceanic clearance Use AIREP format and report to Gander radio
210
VHF/UHF airway width:
8NM (4 times 2, like from SARON)
211
LF/MF airway width:
8.68NM (4.34NM times 2, like from SARON)
212
All oktas with cloud coverage:
FEW = 0 to 2 SCT = 3 to 4 BKN = 5 to 8 OVC = 8 to 8
213
VHF depends on ______ while HF/MF depends on ______
VHF = line of sight HF/MF = reflection from ionosphere
214
SIG WX charts post freezing level at what interval?
Every 5,000ft ASL
215
A "I I" sign on a SIG chart on a jet stream means:
Increase or decrease in wind velocity of 20kts
216
Disadvantages of VOR:
- Station overlap at high altitudes - **Line of sight error** - Shadow effect (obstructions)