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Happy Dim Sum Wok Garden Bai > SAMRA (Radio Aids/Navigation) > Flashcards

SAMRA (Radio Aids/Navigation) Flashcards

1
Q

PSR transponder requirement and view limitations:

A

No transponder needed

  1. Used for weather
  2. Picks up birds
  3. 80NM range
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2
Q

How is SSR used?

A

Uses time interval between interrogation and reply from aircraft transponder

pressure altitude, longer range

Transponder up to 250NM range

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3
Q

What is TSR?

A

Terminal service radar

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4
Q

What is PAR?

A

Precision approach radar

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5
Q

What is mode A transponder?

A

Base, no altitude!

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6
Q

What is ADSE?

A

Airport surface detection equipment

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7
Q

What is mode C transponder?

A

Position with altitude encoding (pressure altitude in aircraft transponder)

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8
Q

What is mode S transponder?

A

A and C with TCAS abilities! S, TCAS

Two aircraft equipped with mode S and TCAS II can communicate to each other for RAs using the mode S transponder

Can send ADS-B messages

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9
Q

2 types of weather detection equipment:

A
  • Weather radar unit
  • Lightning detection unit (storm scope)
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10
Q

Advantages to storm scope:

A
  1. Not susceptible to the same attenuation as radar
  2. Tends to cost less
    3. Not dependent on line-of-sight, able to detect lightning behind mountains
  3. Possible to detect turbulence within clouds of little or no precipitation
  4. Stormscopes can provide an arc or 360 degree view of electrical activity of aircraft
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11
Q

Weather radar works on the basis of:

A

Primary surveillance radar

Uses a beam of energy sent out and reflects back towards antenna, shows target/echo

Reflects water! Top-down view, density/intensity of water

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12
Q

What type of precipitation is most reflective on a weather radar?

A
  • Rain
  • Wet snow
  • Wet hail

designed for LIQUID precipitation

Least reflective: dry hail, ice crystals, dry snow

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13
Q

What type of precipitation is least reflective?

A
  • Dry hail
  • Ice crystals
  • Snow
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14
Q

The amount of energy returned to the antenna on a weather radar is dependent on:

A
  1. Type of precipitation
  2. Concentration
  3. Water droplet size (returns the greatest energy)

Exam question will be which one of the three is the MOST reflective? WATER DROPLET SIZE

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15
Q

Where would you scan a thunderstorm to find its severity?

A

Lower half of storm!

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16
Q

Attenuation is based on what factors:

A
  1. Distance
    - Further you are the more energy is lost use to beam dispersal and storm is understated
  2. Heavy precipitation
    - Radar energy is absorbed and cannot detect a cell behind the area of heavy precipitation
    - This is where the tilt function needs to be used!
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17
Q

What does the gain function do?

A

Changes colours on map.

Up gain = show green as a yellow, yellow as red, etc.
Down gain = show magenta as red, red as yellow, etc.

You can use the gain (turn down) to find specific cells if your screen is showing entirely red.

does NOT change sensitivity!!!

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18
Q

Using a weather radar what would you look for to decipher a severe thunderstorm echo/target?

A
  1. Irregular shape
  2. Shape is rapidly changing

Indicates hail, severe turbulence, icing, wind shear, tornadoes

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19
Q

Ground based weather radar can detect what types of precipitation:

A
  1. Rain
  2. Snow
  3. Drizzle
  4. Hail

does NOT detect volcanic ash!

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20
Q

What types of imagery are available for ground based weather radar?

A

Precipitation rate for SNOW (INCLUDING HAIL)
or
Precipitation rate for RAIN (INCLUDING VIRGA)

Echo tops

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21
Q

Ground based weather radar modes:

A
  • National
  • Regional
  • Single
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22
Q

Source of aviation weather in Canada:

A

NAV Canada

Compiles all weather in the world, they just collect it all to display

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23
Q

When are GFAs issued?

A

Approximately 30min before the beginning of the coverage period

for ALL 6 GFAs!!!! It’ll show the issuance time for each one and all 6 read the same time!

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24
Q

GFA:

A

Time observed:
1800Z, 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z (remember the order!)

Time issued:
Approximately 30min before the beginning of the coverage period

Altitude concerned:
AT or below 24,000ft, can include convective weather above FL240

Remarks:
Graphically depicts forecast weather over a period of time, do NOT forget about the IFR outlook and its addition to its total validity time
- Each GFA is valid for 12hrs

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25
Q

Difference between AIRMET and SIGMET:

A

SIGMET
Short-term weather warning issued where hazardous conditions are occurring or are expected to occur. Conditions are occurring, more severe.
- SFC winds >50kts
- squall line
- tornadoes
- volcanic ash

AIRMET
Short-term weather advisory of potentially hazardous conditions that are not in a current GFA and not requiring a SIGMET. Potential, not as severe.
- OUTSIDE OF CONVECTIVE ACTIVITY:
- low visibility
- moderate turbulence
- moderate icing

SIGMETS AND AIRMETS CAN AMMEND GFAs!

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26
Q

When are TAFs issued?

A

Approximately 20mins before the beginning of the validity period

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27
Q

TAF validity periods:

A

Issued every 3-6hrs

Valid for 12, 24, or 30hrs; next valid time is stated at the end of the TAF

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28
Q

Upper level forecast chart (PROG) time issued, applicable flight levels and its depiction:

A

NWS in Washington responsible
2 FORECASTS

FL240 to FL450
- FL240,FL340,FL390,FL450

6 and 12hr forecast produced every 6hrs

Wind & temperature chart

NOT Canadian

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29
Q

Significant weather forecast chart (PROG) time issued, applicable flight levels and its depiction:

A
  1. Issued approximately 11-12hrs before validity time of 00Z,06Z,12Z,18Z (not amended unless a SIGMET updates sig wx prog)
  2. For Canada FL100 to FL240 (700mb to 400mb)
  3. Altitudes depicted in box square is the height of tropopause

SIGNIFICANT WEATHER FORECAST CHARTS ARE ISSUED BY WASHINGTON! THEY USE ICAO! IF YOU SEE FREQ,OCNL,ETC., ADD THE 25% BUFER TO COVERAGE!!!

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30
Q

Surface weather chart:

A

Time observed:
0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z (4 times)

Time issued:
Issued 2-3hrs after observation, meaning an observation while the chart was valid; NOT current

Altitude concerned:
Surface to 3,000ft, including MSLP

Remarks:
Analysis of MSL pressure pattern, surface location of fronts, surface position of precipitation and obstructions to visibility (based on weather reports). Weather aloft that is visible from surface is also included.

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31
Q

Upper Level Chart pressure per chart and relative altitude:

A

850mb = 5,000ft
700mb = 10,000ft
500mb = 18,000ft
250mb = 34,000ft

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32
Q

What’s a VOLMET:

A

Network of radio stations that broadcast TAF’s, SIGMETs, and METARs on HF frequency Schedule based on 5min intervals which one station in each region broadcasting reports for a fixed list of cities in each interval.

5mins you’ll hear YVR
10mins you’ll hear YYJ
etc.

TAF,METAR,SIGMET on HF!

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33
Q

Where do you find the frequency for which a VOLMET is being played on:

A

CFS!

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34
Q

Where are METARs valid for?

A

ONLY VALID AT AERODROME! of station reporting!!

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35
Q

What does CCA mean in a METAR?

A

Correction

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36
Q

What is MI in a METAR?

A

Shallow

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37
Q

What is BC in a METAR?

A

Patches

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38
Q

What is SG in a METAR?

A

Snow Grains DO NOT GET CONFUSED WITH GS

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39
Q

What is GS in a METAR?

A

Snow Pellets NO NOT GET CONFUSED WITH SG

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40
Q

What is the difference between BR and FG in a METAR?

A

BR = visibility greater OR EQUAL TO 5/8SM
FG = visibility less than 5/8 SM

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41
Q

SKC:

A

No clouds present

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42
Q

FEW:

A

0 to 2 Oktas

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43
Q

SCT:

A

3 to 4 Oktas

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44
Q

BKN:

A

5 to 8 Oktas

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45
Q

OVC:

A

8 to 8 Oktas

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46
Q

CLR:

A

No clouds present below 10,000ft. Remember CLR is more restrictive, and SKC is the entire sky being clear

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47
Q

METAR CYFC 132100Z 26010KT 2SM -RA BR BKN030 OVC090 08/07 A2953 FG3 ST3 AC2 SLP994=

What is the minimum opacity increase for the surface based layer to constitute a ceiling?

A

5/8s

Fog does not constitute a ceiling, until it has 8/8 coverage!

SURFACE BASED WEATHER HAS TO BE 8/8 OKTAS FOR IT TO BE CONSIDERED A CEILING AT GROUND LEVEL; NOT 5/8 AS IT WOULD BE FOR A BKN LAYER AT ALTITUDE!

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48
Q

What is an LWIS? What information does it provide?

A

Limited weather information system. AWOS with basic weather

  1. Wind speed/direction
  2. Temp/dewpoint
  3. Altimeter

that’s it!

COCHRANE AUTOMATED WEATHER OBSERVATION 0123Z
WIND, 120 AT 5
TEMPERATURE 14, DEWPOINT 8
ALTIMETER 2994

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49
Q

When you are asked which GFA in sequence is the one you are looking at, how would you find that?

A

GFAs come in packs of 3, starting at:

1800Z
0000Z
0600Z
1200Z

If yours said 0600Z, your GFA would be the 3rd one in sequence from the issuance

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50
Q

What ceiling/visibility is considered IFR?

A

Ceilings 1,000ft AGL or less and/or Less than 3SNM

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51
Q

What are the validity periods of GFAs?

A

6hrs each, but note the last one:

If an IFR outlook is provided at the very bottom, not the validity period because that will be the validity period of the entire GFA!

Exam question:
Of a package of 6 GFAs, what is the entire validity period? 24 hours!! NOTE IFR OUTLOOK

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52
Q

What is the green dotted enclosed sections on a GFA?

A

Continuous precipitation

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53
Q

What is the green hashed enclosed sections on a GFA?

A

Showery precipitation

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54
Q

Define the yellow dotted enclosed areas on a GFA:

A

Areas of obstruction not associated with precipitation, where it is 6SM or less

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55
Q

ISOLD in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

25% or less of sky

Convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.
50% or less in ICAO

ISOLD,OCNL,FRQ - Convective (I Sold Occasional Fent)
LCL,PTCHY,XTNSV - Non-convective

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56
Q

OCNL in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

26 - 50% of sky

Convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.

51% to 75%

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57
Q

FRQ in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

Greater than 50% of sky

Convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.
Greater than 75%

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58
Q

LCL in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

25% or less of sky

Non-convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.
50% or less in ICAO

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59
Q

PTCHY in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

26 - 50% of sky

Non-convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.

51% to 75%

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60
Q

XTNSV in GFA coverage of the sky:

A

Greater than 50% of sky

Non-convective

REMEMBER ICAO STANDARDS ARE DIFFERENT, ADD 25%.
Greater than 75%

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61
Q

What is the symbol for a trough on a GFA?

A

Purple dashed line, or double purple dashed line if upper trough

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62
Q

What is the wind speed and direction of the sock shown?

A

From the northwest at 20 gusting 30

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63
Q

Identify the differences between the turbulence sections on a GFA:

A
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64
Q

GFAs are amended by:

A

SIGMETs and AIRMETs! Draws attention to something that is occurring that was not forecasted

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65
Q

TAF validity periods:

A

12hr
24hr
30hr at very few airports

someone needs to be there to make it and make amendments to it if weather differs from TAF. Remember this as this will indicate a closing time for the control tower

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66
Q

Where are TAFs valid?

A

5NM from geographic centre of aerodrome. Do not be confused with METAR as a METAR is just above the airport its reporting from

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67
Q

VC in a TAF:

A

5-10NM

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68
Q

VC in a METAR:

A

Up to 5NM, but not at aerodrome

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68
Q

BECMG means:

A

A permanent change

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69
Q

How is this read:
WS011/27055

A

WS at 1,100ft AGL 270 degrees at 55

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70
Q

PROB 30/PROB 40 is an indication of:

A

Hazardous weather only!

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71
Q

9900 means what in an FD?

A

Light and variable

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72
Q

791159

What is this FD wind direction, speed and temperature?

A

79-50=29 = 290 degrees
111kts
- 59 degrees

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73
Q

792538

What does this FD mean?

A

SUBTRACT 50 from first number, ADD 100 to 2nd number!

290 @ 125kts! -38 degrees

Straight up add 100 to the 2nd number in the FD.

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74
Q

If an FD states “No forecast” why would this be?

A

Elevation of station reporting is above 3,000ft or whatever the elevation is

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75
Q

What altitude is an Upper Level Prognostic Chart issued at in Canada?

A

4 flight levels!

FL240,FL340,FL390,FL450

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76
Q

How often is an Upper Level Prognostic Chart issued?

A

Every 6hrs beginning at 00z

For example:
00Z analysis will provide a 06Z & 12Z forecast
06Z analysis will provide a 12Z and 18Z forecast

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77
Q

WAFCs generate high-level significant weather charts for FL___ to FL___ around the world

A

FL250 to FL630

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78
Q

When turbulence is indicated on a weather chart, what does it imply?

A

A greater than 50% chance of it occurring!

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79
Q

In a prognostic chart, why are some of the wind flags/penants upside down when following a jetstream?

A

They stick out into the colder air mass!

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80
Q

What is the jetstream delta on a prognostic chart?

A

A box under the green jet stream that tells you the depth and tops of the jet stream where the jet stream speed exists i.e. 80kts!

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81
Q

On a sig prog chart, a jet stream states the barbs indicating 150kts at its centre at FL300 and ranging from FL160 to FL340. What is the speed of the jet stream at FL190?

A

It would be 80kts because on the prog chart from Washington (the ones that plainly says Washington and ICAO) the jet streams that are depicted only start at 80kts and not 60kts like the other charts!!!

This is a JET STREAM DELTA!

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82
Q

Upper air analysis chart, what is different?

A

Anal charts show in tens of metres! You will be given a chart at a mb pressure and it will show your true altitude in metres above sea level.

Exam question will be in regards to a chart like this; if you fly through a high pressure, your true altitude will increase (you could memorize this or just look at the anal chart that shows your actual height in metres at that flight level)

CALLED CONTOUR LINES

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83
Q

How are isotachs spaced on an upper air anal?

A

Isotach = area of EQUAL WIND SPEED

Spaced at 30kt intervals; on anal legend

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84
Q

when 30kt isotachs are spaced closer than ___NM apart, there is sufficient horizontal shear for CAT

A

90NM apart!!!!!

Remember on upper air anal charts its measures equal wind speed. So an area where the isotachs/windspeed areas are densely close together, means horizontal shear for CAT. OR hard direction changes.

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85
Q

Every degree of latitude is___NM

A

60NM

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86
Q

On an eastern track you pick up winds from the northwest then from the southwest. What happens to your altitude?

A

Decreases then increases again, if you draw it out and connect the lines, it looks like you are flying around a low pressure system because it looks counter-clockwise (see picture)

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87
Q

What kind of cloud is this (refer to image)

A

Jet stream cirrus cloud

88
Q

On chart for standard isobaric surface chart (250mb), 30kt isotach spaced at 90NM indicate:

A

Sufficient horizontal shear for CAT

89
Q

In a jet stream, where is the CAR at its worst?

A

Just above central core of jet

90
Q

NDB enroute and approach tolerances:

A

+/- 10 degrees enroute, +/- 5 degrees for approach

91
Q

DME is the:

A

Different number of frequencies TIME DIFFERENCE

KEYWORD different frequency

92
Q

HF is faster over ____, slower over _____

A

Faster over water, slower over ice or frost

93
Q

What does TEMPO mean?

A

Temporary change in weather lasting less than 1 hour

94
Q

What frequency range do VLF use?

A

(very low frequency)

3-30 kHz

95
Q

NDBs operate on the ____ and _____ frequency range and ____ restrited by line of sight

A

Low and medium frequency range

NOT restricted by line of sight

96
Q

To be available, RAIM needs __ satellites and baro-aiding needs ___

A

5 for RAIM

4 for Baro-aid; something to do with TSO-129 avionics that allow for 1 less satellite when baro-aid is available

97
Q

GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to ___ metres and ____ metres respectively, ___% of the time

A

6m vertically, 8m horizontally

95% of the time

98
Q

GNSS approaches may be used in lieu of ___

A

DME!

DME equipped VOR and NDB approaches

**cannot use GNSS in lieu of DME when on final approach track on a VOR, DME or LOC approach (muse use the actual aids)

99
Q

When using a VOR for a waypoint, does it need to be tuned and active throughout?

A

Do not need it when not in range, but when in range you must tune and track it; you cannot just use a point and not be able to use the navaid

100
Q

TC AIM definition of RNAV key words:

A

WITHIN COVERAGE
WITHIN LIMITS
(combination of these)

101
Q

A waypoint is:

A

A point defined by degrees of lat/long

102
Q

INS measures the aircraft acceleration in relation to ___

A

3 axes, must be perfect!

103
Q

Basic components of an INS:

A
  1. Computer
  2. Accelerometers
  3. Gyroscopes

via dead reckoning does not need external aids to determine position

104
Q

VOR distance formula:

A

1.23√AGL

Remember to use AGL, question will give you aircraft altitude AND VOR altitude. It is actual height over VOR

105
Q

Wavelength is measured in?

A

Metres

106
Q

During day should you use a low or high frequency?

A

SUN UP = FREQ UP

SUN DOWN = FREQ DOWN

height of ionosphere changes in day/night

107
Q

What radio communication follows the curvature of the earth?

A

Ground waves; bend following curvature of the earth

108
Q

What radio communication are reflected back by the ionosphere?

A

Sky waves

109
Q

What radio communication travels straight upward and outward from transmitter?

A

Space waves (from airplane to ground to ionosphere back to ground, etc.)

110
Q

Skip zone:

A

Area between end of ground wave and first sky wave reception (shorter)

111
Q

Skip distance:

A

Distance from transmitter and first reception of sky wave

112
Q

HF radio:

A

INCLUDES SELCAL. Good at transmitting long distance

3 MHz TO 30MHz

113
Q

HF uses what type of modulation?

A

Amplitude modulation (AM), lower frequencies

more power = more distance = worse in distance

114
Q

What is SSB?

A

Single Side Band transmissions

Way of compressing information, devoted to sending it further; not wasting data 8x stronger than basic AM transmitter

In order to compress information into a single side band, radio eliminates one side band and all carrier wave from transmission

Carrier wave and other side band is reinserted at the receiver to reproduce message entirely

JUST UPPER BAND STAYS, CARRIER IS REMOVED AND LOWR SIDE BAND (RECIPROCAL) IS ELIMAED AND THE RECIEVER REINSERTS THOE MISSING PARAMETERS

Can receive HF/AM transmissions

115
Q

SSB is missing:

A

CARRIER WVE, LOWER SIDEBAND IS REMOVED

HAS TO BE REINSERTED BY RECIEVER!

116
Q

What is SELCAL?

A

Way for ATC to communicate with airplane jus tto tell you they are trying to get a hold of you. You do not need ot monitor! Like a chime in flight deck; pick up HF radio someone is trying to call.

SELCAL MUST BE TESTED

HF

117
Q

NDB frequency range:

A

LF/MF

118
Q

NDB errors on exam:

A

Night effect
Coastal refraction

119
Q

What is night effect?

A

Sky waves interfere with ground eaves disrupting ADF navigation

(NIGHT IS WORSE FOR SKYWAVE/IONOSPHERE)

120
Q

When is ADF night affect most pronounced:

A

1. Just before sunrise & sunset
2. When higher frequencies are used at night

121
Q

Coastal refraction basis:

A

Traveling through different mediums

122
Q

What is coastal refraction? Where is it most pronounced?

A

NDB located near shoreline, the radio will change direction as the signal passes from over land to over water

Most pronounced (up to 40 degrees of error) when bearing between station and aircraft makes an angle less than 30 degrees

123
Q

How shall you avoid coastal refraction when tracking an NDB on a coast line?

A

Approach coastline at angles greater than 30 degrees to avoid erroneous readings

124
Q

VOR frequency range

A

VHF

125
Q

VOR works by (keyword):

A

PHASE DIFFERENCE between two signals which are transmitted simultaneously from VOR station, 3 times per second

126
Q

LOC distance and range:

A

18NM 10 degrees
10NM 35 degrees

127
Q

VORs are flight checked to an accuracy of:

A

3 degrees for published VOR radials

128
Q

VOR check:

A

Dual VOR check OR airborne check

129
Q

Dual VOR check tolerance:

A

Within 4 degrees of each other to be considered serviceable.

130
Q

Airborne VOR check tolerance:

A

6 degrees of published radial (NEEDS LANDMARK!!) to be considered serviceable.

131
Q

Advantages to VOR compared to NDB:

A
  1. Little atmospheric interference (because it is VHF, not HF)
  2. 360 distinct radials
  3. Course alignment for VOR radials is 3 degrees (more strict than NDB)
  4. Easy to use, no need to estimate wind correction
  5. Good reception at higher altitudes

VOR is FM, NDB is AM

132
Q

Advantages to NDB compared to VOR:

A
  1. Line of sight transmission characteristic
  2. Possible interference with other VORs with similar VHF frequencies
133
Q

If an RMI is tuned/selected to an NDB, what is the arrow pointing at?

A

Magnetic bearing to station

133
Q

An RMI can home to a:

A

VOR or NDB, NOT an ILS localizer

RMI slaved to magnetic compass; give you better spatial awareness

134
Q

Distance to station:

A

D to station = GS x Time minutes / bearing change

135
Q

What is DME:

A

Distance between aircraft and DME ground station

An aircraft DMW unit sends a SET OF PAIRED PULSES at specific spacing which is unique to only that aircraft

Ground station is the receiver and sends paired pulses back to aircraft at the same pulse spacing but a HIGHER FREQUENCY

SLANT RANGE

136
Q

DME unit can be received from what navaids?

A
  1. VORTAC
  2. Standalone DME paired with;
    - VOR
    - ILS
    - LOC
137
Q

What is a TACAN?

A

Only military installation

Military DME, UHF receiver only

138
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

Civilian VOR while using a TACAN for DME information

VORTAC = civilian VOR with TACAN that provides DME

139
Q

What is slant range error:

A

When you’re high and close to DME, distance to DME will be greater than actual over ground distance. Less pronounced at high and far

140
Q

Can we use TACAN?

A

Yes, only for DME information, NO VOR INFO! A VORTAC is user-friendly that allows you to have VOR and DME

141
Q

Localizer beam is ___ wide on either side of centreline

A

2.5 degrees either side! SMALL

As an aircraft gets closer its precision IMPROVES, BECOMES MORE SENSITIVE

142
Q

When flying a LOC, what is the deviation per dot when flying the approach?

A

Every dot becomes 1/2 a degree on a LOC!

So, 3 dots to the left = 1.5 degrees off centreline

143
Q

“I” in an approach identifier indicates what?

A

Less than 3 degree offset

144
Q

What does an “X” approach identifier indicate?

A

Greater than 3 degree offset to runway

145
Q

Glideslope bean thickness:

A

1.4 deep!

full scale deflection would be +/- 0.7 degrees of the glide slope

146
Q

How far out does a FAF need to be placed on an ILS?

A

3.5 miles to 6 miles

147
Q

In reference with the 18/10, 10/35 localizer dimensions, what can be true in this area?

A

Your indications are RELIABLE here; a full scale deflection in this area would have “OFF” flag out of view; meaning it would be ACTIVE, its not showing its OFF becasue it’s not off! You are just full deflection!

BACK COURSE IS THE SAME

148
Q

Vectored on ILS and 10NM from FAF. Within how many degrees would you expect signal reliability?

A

10 degrees either side of centreline. TRICK TO THIS QUESTION is that its distance to the FAF not runway; and the FAF has to be at least 3.5 to 6NM out! so it shoves the distance in the 10 degree area either side!

149
Q

ATC picks up your aircraft with primary surveillance radar only. What kind of information do they see?

A

AZIMUTH & RANGE

primary return

150
Q

When ATC states they only have a primary return one something, what do they see?

A

AZIMUTH (direction) & range

Azimuth = PSR!

151
Q

What is MLAT? How does it work?

A

Secondary surveillance system increases situational awareness for aircraft on ground

Works by using a system of strategically placed ground stations around an airport that send interrogations and receives replies from mode A,C, or S transponders (ALL TRANSPONDERS)

Can even be used in terminal procedures

152
Q

Transponder range SSR?

A

250NM

153
Q

ADS-B out means:

A

Capability to TRANSMIT messages OUT, such as position

154
Q

ADS-B in means:

A

ADDITIONAL capability to receive and display ADS-B messages from ground and aircraft

So ADSB-in means you have ADSB-out as well.

155
Q

ADS-B uses _____, _____ and _____ to relay aircraft parameters to ATC even outside of coverage/remote display areas

A
  1. AVIONICS
  2. SATELITES
  3. GROUND SYTEMS

ADS-b uses all 3 parameters of GPS essentially

156
Q

What is a function of ADS-B regarding traffic avoidance?

A

Ground stations can broadcast to ADS-B aircraft traffic information.

NOTE:
1. SEPERATE FROM TCAS
2. ADS-B WILL NOT SHOW ATC IF YOU ARE GETTING AN RA

157
Q

On a surface weather map, winds blow _____ to the isobars

A

PARALLEL

158
Q

On a upper air analysis chart, winds blow _____ to the contour lines

A

PARALLEL

Contour lines are almost the same as isobars, except that they are displayed as METERES above sea level

159
Q

Upper air analysis charts are based on ____, _____ and _____.

A

Temperature, humidity and wind data

The displayed information is a rection of these 3 variables. Remember a warm and less dense area will be lower

A cold and dense is a LOWER area/pressure

160
Q

Met charts at 250mb are measured ____ a day at ____Z and the charts are issued ____

A

TWICE A DAY (250=2x)

0000Z and 1200Z

Issued 3 hours AFTER data is recorded

161
Q

Is ADS-B used regarding TCAS avoidance?

A

NO! It’s based on your TCAS and transponder equipment to provide TA/RAs

ADS-B does not work together

162
Q

3 types of augmentation systems

A

ABAS
SBAS
GBAS

163
Q

What are types of ABAS?

A

Aircraft based!

RAIM
FDE

often combined

164
Q

What is RAIM essentially?

A

Looks at additional satellites to improve your position. 4 required, 5 required for RAIM to function! An extra added security

165
Q

RAIM alert limits?

A

2NM enroute
1NM terminal
0.3NM for non-precision approach

166
Q

RAIM check for arrival limit:

A

+/- 15mins of ETA (a 30min period of your arrival time)

167
Q

How many satellites are required for FDE?

A

6!! Will ignore 1 if it degrades your position

168
Q

CDI sensitivity for each flight phase:

A

Enroute = 5NM
Terminal = 1NM
Approach = 0.3NM

NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH RAIM LIMITS. CDI IS BIGGER; 5NM VS 2NM ENROUTE FOR RAIM.

169
Q

What are the switch-up/tightening points regarding CDI sensitivity?

A

30NM with approach loaded CDI, scaling will go from enroute to terminal mode (5NM to 1NM deflection).

At 2NM inbound to FAF, CDI scaling goes from terminal to approach mode (1NM to 0.3NM)

If RAIM not available at FAF passage, go missed!

170
Q

If you are shooting a GNSS overlay approach on an NDB approach, do you need to monitor the NAVAID and does it need to be working?

A

No, do not need to monitor NOR does it need to be functioning

171
Q

VRB in a TAF indicates wat?

A

3kts or less of variable winds

172
Q

GFA indicates a continuous wind of the windspeed is greater than ___

A

20kts

173
Q

NOTAM: VOR U/S:

Does it need a replacement?

A

NO! If it was “APROX” or “EST” then it would need a replacing NOTAM

174
Q

Isotachs spaced at __ indicate ___

A

90NM, indicates horizontal shear CAT

175
Q

LLWS reaction:

A
  1. Full power
  2. A consistent pitch for max AoA
176
Q

Where is CAT the strongest in a jet stream?

A
  1. Just above the central core of the jet
  2. Near the polar tropopause (stronger down south)
  3. Just below the core

*Essentially, where that dark blue is; just above jet, cold side of jet and just below jet

177
Q

Where are jets more stronger in a given season?

A

Winter = stronger to the north

Summer = stronger to the south

178
Q

Describe the change in wind from the surface to clear of the boundary layer:

A

Laminar, transition, turbulence

179
Q

On an upper chart, what is the base of the fronts depicted?

A

The SURFACE. Upper charts include where the fronts are on the surface

180
Q

Prognostic forecast chart keyword:

A

FUTURE WEATHER

181
Q

INS system keyword:

A

Accelerate

182
Q

A continental arctic front moves over the great lakes, what fog occurs?

A

Steam fog

(cold air over warm water)

183
Q

An HSI using an RNAV function, what does one dot represent?

A

1/2nm

184
Q

Flying in cold air at -25 degrees and you arrive at an airport that is 10 degrees on ground, what will you encounter?

A

Ice on fuel tanks around wing

185
Q

AWOS visibility is measured as:

A

A fixed sensor in one direction. Keyword sense

186
Q

When using wx radar to decipher the intensity of a cell, you should scan the:

A

Middle to lower regions of the CB

187
Q

High frequency radio:

A

Decrease as frequency increase

188
Q

Flying into a warmer air mass with standard altimeter, the altimeter will show:

A

Altimeter will show lower than you actually are.

Watch the wording; as you, the aircraft, are actually higher than what the altimeter says

189
Q

VOR/DME check tolerances:

A

+/- 4 degrees and within 0.5NM

190
Q

Audio tones question:

A

Select longest answer

191
Q

Echo tops will _____ as distance _______

A

Decrease as distance increases; less detail, less stength

192
Q

TCAS I:

A

Only provides traffic information, no traffic resolution in either raxis

193
Q

TCASS II:

A

Most common and provides vertical traffic resolutions

194
Q

TCAS III:

A

Provides both lateral and vertical traffic resolutions

195
Q

What is ACAS?

A

Aircraft Collision Avoidance System; just the term. So ACAS on exam just refers to one of the types of TCAS (I,II,III)

196
Q

TAFs forecast a gust when winds are over:

A

10kts only

197
Q

How long is a SIGMET valid for?

A

4hrs

198
Q

For TCAS II, what type of transponder is required?

A

Mode S! NOT A MODE C

199
Q

For TCAS I, what type of transponder is requried?

A

Mode C or S

200
Q

For a TA to be generated, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?

A

Mode C or S (anything with altitude reporting)

201
Q

For an RA to be generated, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?

A

Mode C or S as well!! Just altitude reporting. Do NOT get this confused with 2 aircraft with RAs; only thing important in this question is you

202
Q

For two aircraft to avoid one another, what type of transponder does the intruder aircraft need?

A

Both you and the intruder require mode S transponder

203
Q

How do you test a 406 MHz ELT?

A

In accordance with manufacturers instructions only

204
Q

If RAD ALT us U/S, what other system will be U/S?

A

GPWS will be U/S!

205
Q

What are PAPI/VASI sloped at?

A

3 degrees unless otherwise noted.

206
Q

How is PAPI category decided at an aerodrome?

A

Based on the aircraft which it is intended to serve

207
Q

GFA will depict a LLJ when:

A

Core speed of 50kts or more
(may include between 35kts to 45kts if associated with turbulence or shear)

LLJ will not be depicted if higher than 6,000 MSL

HEIGHT OF JET IS NOT INDICATED

208
Q

Identify the symbols

A
  1. Drizzle
  2. Ice pellets
  3. Freezing rain
209
Q

What is an AIREP?

A

Appended to routine position reports

Aircraft cleared on a designated NAT track will give these reports only if the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS” is included in their oceanic clearance

Use AIREP format and report to Gander radio

210
Q

VHF/UHF airway width:

A

8NM (4 times 2, like from SARON)

211
Q

LF/MF airway width:

A

8.68NM (4.34NM times 2, like from SARON)

212
Q

All oktas with cloud coverage:

A

FEW = 0 to 2
SCT = 3 to 4
BKN = 5 to 8
OVC = 8 to 8

213
Q

VHF depends on ______ while HF/MF depends on ______

A

VHF = line of sight
HF/MF = reflection from ionosphere

214
Q

SIG WX charts post freezing level at what interval?

A

Every 5,000ft ASL

215
Q

A “I I” sign on a SIG chart on a jet stream means:

A

Increase or decrease in wind velocity of 20kts

216
Q

Disadvantages of VOR:

A
  • Station overlap at high altitudes
  • Line of sight error
  • Shadow effect (obstructions)

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