SARON (Air Law) Flashcards
1
Q
Experience requirements for ATPL:
A
- 1,500hrs total (900 in aeroplanes)
- 250hrs PIC; including:
- 100hrs x-country
- 200hrs x-country co-pilot in two-crew aircraft (or 100hrs PIC x-country)
- 25hrs night x-country PIC or co-pilot
- 100hrs night PIC or co-pilot (30hrs must be in aeroplane)
- 75hrs instrument time (up to 25hrs in sim, ground time does not count)
2
Q
Privileges of an ATPL:
A
- All privileges of a CPL and PPL
- Can act as PIC or SIC of a two-crew aircraft
3
Q
General requirements to hold an ATPL:
A
- 21 or older
- CAT 1 medical
- Obtain 70% on SAMRA, SARON, INRAT
- Valid group 1 instrument rating
4
Q
How often must you get a medical renewed based on age?
A
- up to and including 60, every 12 months
- Over 60, every 6 months
5
Q
How often must you compete an electrocardiogram based on age?
A
- Upon initial medical
- Every 2 years between age 30 and 40
- Every 12 months over age 40
6
Q
How often must you complete an audiogram?
A
- Initial medical
- First medical after age 55
7
Q
For pilots operating single-pilot commercial carrying passengers, how often must you compete a medical?
A
Every 6 months if over the age of 40!!!
8
Q
What does your ATPL revert to if your CAT 1 medical expired?
A
PPL privileges
9
Q
When must you have completed your group 1 to submit for your ATPL?
A
Group 1 within 12 months of application
10
Q
When an ATPL pilot in commercial has his IFR lapsed (not current), can act as:
A
- PIC in single-crew operations carrying less than 10 passengers in day VFR
- Co-pilot of an aircraft certified for two-crew operations carrying cargo only during day OR night VFR
PIC, VFR, less than 10 passengers, and
SIC of cargo, day OR night VFR
Essentially can fly a PC-12 day VFR or;
Beech 1900C cargo two-crew day/night VFR
11
Q
Recency requirements of an ATPL:
A
Holder of a flight crew permit, license or rating must have acted as PIC or SIC in an aircraft:
- Within the last 5 years or;
- Have competed a flight review within the preceding 12 months
Also, in order to exercise privileges of a flight crew permit or license a pilot must complete a recurrent training program within the previous 24 months. And if passengers are to be carried, 5 takeoffs and landings within 6 months; same goes for night operations.
12
Q
A holder of a CPL or ATPL may instruct other licensed pilots as long as they meet the following requirements:
A
Seaplane = 50hrs total on seaplanes in its class
Multi-engine = 50hrs total and not less than 10hrs on type to be trained on
13
Q
Can the holder of a CPL instruct instrument procedures?
A
Yes, and so can ATPL holders.
- 500hrs PIC
- 100hrs on applicable group (group 1, etc.)
- Where teaching a group 1, need not less than 10hrs on type use to train
14
Q
A large aeroplane is categorized as:
A
A/C more that 5700kg or 12,566lbs MCTOW
(different certification process)
5700; remember 757
15
Q
A transport category aircraft is classed as:
A
Pursuant to Chapter 525
Generally means large multi-engine aircraft with more than 19 seats operated under 705 operations.
Based on FAA part 25! See below:
- Propeller driven aircraft with more than 19 seats OR a MTOW greater than 19,000lbs
- Jets with more than 10 seats or a MTOW greater than 12,500lbs
16
Q
Aircraft accident definition:
A
- Killed or serious injury
- Coming into contact with parts of the aircraft including parts that have become detached
- Rotor down or prop wash incidents
- Aircraft sustains structural damage that affects its structural strength, except for:
- Engine failure or damage when its damage is limited to inside the cowling
- Damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennae, tires, brakes or small dents
- Aircraft is missing or inaccessible
17
Q
During a comm failure after ATC has cleared you below the minimum vectoring altitude, what should you next course of action be?
A
Climb back to and above the published minimum altitude unless in VMC
18
Q
How shall the pitot-static system be certified before entering class B airspace?
A
Every 24 months a test of the system must be carried out, and tolerance is +/- 50ft. If it is more than this, system should be inspected.
19
Q
IFR High level controlled airspace standby squawk:
A
2000
20
Q
IFR Low level controlled airspace standby squawk:
A
1000
21
Q
VFR standby squawk:
A
1200 from ground at or above 12,500’. At 12,501 and above, 1400.
22
Q
Squawking 7500 to 7700 indicates:
A
Hijack and situation is desperate
23
Q
What is mandatory transponder airspace?
A
- Mandatory class E airspace between 10,000’ and 12’500
- All A,B,C airspace and requires mode C
- DAH distinguishes D and E airspace
24
Q
RVSM altitude:
A
FL290 to FL410
25
Requirement to enter RVSM:
Certification from State of Registry
26
Prior to entering RVSM requirements:
- 75ft tolerance on ground between 2 altimeters!
- 2 primary altimeters within 200ft
- 1 secondary surveillance radar altitude (if only 1, must be able to switch between the 2 altimeter sources)
- Autopilot to function an altitude hold
- **one** altitude alerting system
**If a required system fails, before entering RVSM, advise ATC and get a new clearance**
75ft ground tolerance between 2
200ft air tolerance between 2
1 secondary surveillance, if only 1 altimeter need to go between 2
Altitude hold
Altitude alerting
27
While in RVSM airspace:
- No deviations larger than 300ft (during level-out events, do not exceed 150ft deviations to avoid TCAS)
- Cross-check altitude upon level and record
- If traffic is nearby, minimize to 1,000ft/min when 1,000ft from desired FL. This avoid TCAS
28
Pilots must notify ATC in RVSM if:
- No longer RVSM-compliant
- Loss of redundancy
- Encounters turbulence affecting ability to maintain altitude
- 300ft deviations
29
Are non-RVSM compliant aircraft allowed to enter RVSM airspace?
Yes, provided special procedures and must append "negative RVSM" on:
1. Initial calls
2. FLCH requests
3. FLCH readbacks
4. Readbacks on climb/descent
30
Non-RVSM aircraft are able to climb above FL410 or below FL290 while transiting RVSM airspace. Under what requirement:
A continuous climb must be maintained throughout RVSM airspace
31
Low-level airspace:
All airspace **below** FL180
32
High-level airspace:
All airspace **at and above** FL180
33
Where does CMNPS exist?
From FL330 to FL410 within lateral dimensions of NCA, ACA and northern parts of SCA are designated as Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace
LATERAL ERROR UP TO 6.3NM
**CONTROLLED**
34
Vertical dimensions of low-level airways:
2,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL
35
VHF/UHF airway dimensions:
4NM each side
50.8NM distance
4.5 degree splay
36
VHF/UHF & LF/MF airway dimensions:
4.34NM each side
49.66NM distance
5 degree splay
37
LF/MF airway dimensions:
4.34NM each side
49.66NM distance
5 degree splay
38
What are T-routes & their dimensions?
Low-level fixed RNAV routes.
- 4NM either side for traffic protection
- 2NM either side secondary
- T-routes are 10NM either side "associated" airspace
39
What are L-routes and their dimensions?
Low-level uncontrolled RNAV points designated by a green dotted line on Lo charts.
MOCA for these routes extend only 6NM each side.
40
What is an MRB?
Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) are sown on L-routes to depict a reference bearing. Should only be used as a reference as the aircraft will fly the course.
41
Base of SCA?
18,000ft and above
42
Base of NCA?
23,000ft and above
43
Base of ACA?
27,000ft and above
44
What are Q-routes?
high-level RNAV routes depicted as black-dotted lines on Hi-charts.
45
When flying a Q-route, what is required?
1. RNAV systems
2. GNSS performance capabilities or distance-measuring equipment/inertial reference unit
**NOTE: due to navigational facility coverage, some routes will be annotated with "GNSS required". These routes can also be re-designated as RNP 2 routes**
46
Control area extension:
- Controlled airspace extending from 2,200ft AGL up to 17,999ft ASL or as specified
- No lower than 700ft AGL
47
Control zone:
Airspace SFC to 3,000ft AAE
48
Control zones with a terminal control area are normally __NM in radius.
7NM; i.e. Ottawa; although Sudbury is also 7NM!
49
Average dimension of a military control area:
10NM radius from SFC to 6,000ft AAE
50
Terminal control area:
1. Only assists IFR control service; subject to operating/equipment requirements
51
Terminal control areas are similar to control area extensions except:
1. TCAs may extend into high-level airspace
2. Controlled by a terminal frequency (if closed, its ACC will provide coverage, like YQT)
3. Outer limit up to 45NM, based at 9,500ft AGL
4. Medial limit up to 35NM, based at 2,200ft AGL
5. Inner circle up to 12NM based at 1,200ft AGL
*control area will start at 7NM radius to SFC*
**up to FL230**
52
Transition areas:
Provide additional controlled airspace to service IFR traffic; bases not lower than 700ft AGL. Normally up to 15NM from airport
*trazzzz7zzition*700ft, 15NM
53
Class A footnotes:
1. Controlled high-level airspace IFR only
2. Mode C transponder
3. SCA: 700ft AGL **OR** 18,000ft ASL up to and including FL600 (if not assigned)
4. NCA: 23,000ft ASL up to and including FL600
5. ACA: 27,000ft up to and including FL600
54
Class B airspace:
1. IFR and VFR permitted **BUT** subject to clearance
2. Aircraft must be equipped with:
- two-way radio
- Navigation radio capable of navigation intended route
- Mode C transponder
3. Maintain continuous watch and make position reports at designated points
55
Class C airspace:
1. IFR and VFR permitted **BUT** subject to clearance
2. Two-way radio, mode C transponder
3. IFR aircraft will be given traffic advisories
4. VFR aircraft will be given traffic advisories if two aircraft are conflicting each other
**NOTE aircraft with no transponder or radio equipment may enter via prior permission with the controlling agency**
56
Class D airspace:
1. VFR aircraft must establish communication
2. ATC separation only provided to IFR aircraft
3. All aircraft will be given traffic information
4. Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will be provided between IFR and VFR aircraft, and VFR to VFR upon request
5. Normally associated with a control tower with terminal radar capabilities (they see you coming)
6. Becomes class E when not operating
57
Class E airspace:
1. VFR does not require a clearance to enter
2. ATC separation provided to IFR aircraft only
3. May include low-level airways, RNAV routes, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones (think of areas like DERLO, middle of southern Ontario is class E)
4. Includes all airspace above FL600 and all airspace not designated as A,B,C,D, or F
5. Mode C transponder required in designated transponder airspaceC
58
Class F airspace:
1. Classed as CYA, CYR, CYD (advisory, restriction, danger)
2. VFR aircraft "encouraged" to avoid CYA airspace unless participating
3. IFR aircraft will not be given clearance through a class F unless:
- flight crew tells ATC prior permission as ben granted
- aircraft id on a "altitude reservation approval"
- Aircraft cleared visual or contact approach
**CYA=PILOT DECISION CYR=NEED PERMIT**
59
Class G airspace:
1. All other airspace not designated as A,B,C,D,E, or F
2. ATC has no responsibility
60
What is an altitude reservation?
1. Reservation for civil or military use of defined dimensions; can be stationary or move with an aircraft
2. Published by NOTAM
3. Will not be cleared through unless specifically authorized
61
Altimeter setting region:
1. Airspace below 18,000ft ASL
2. Prior to takeoff/approach an altimeter must be obtained
3. Must be set to nearest airport along route of flight or to a station nearest if route of flight is more than 150NM
62
Standard pressure region:
1. At or above 18,000ft ASL and low-level airspace outside altimeter setting region
2. Everything is **IMMEDIATELY PRIOR** as to when you set an altimeter:
- Before Takeoff
- Before leveling off
- Before approach (including VFR approach)
- Before descending out of hold (holds are done at standard altimeter)
- Before entering altimeter setting region (the south gets priority)
63
Mountain region MEA & MOCA altitudes:
1 & 5 = 2000ft
2,3,4 - 1,500ft
everywhere else = 1,000ft
**ALL WITHIN 5NM OF ROUTE**
64
Areas where aircraft should operate above published minimum altitude:
Minimum sector altitudes & transitions = 1,000ft
AMA & non-mountainous = 1,000ft
AMA mountainous = 1,500ft
**for operations on airways or air routes, add 1,000ft to minimum IFR altitudes when there are large pressure/temperature variations**
**All IFR aircraft should should fly at least 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 5NM**
**combination of mountain waves and non-standard temeratures can cause the altimeter to over read by up to 3,000ft!**
65
Operations when altimeter settings are above 31.00:
1. All VFR,CVFR,IFR are to set 31.000 to enroute operations below 18,000ft ASL until exited high pressure area
2. VFR aircraft to set actual altimeter upon final approach
3. IFR aircraft to set actual altimeter at FAF
4. All aircraft able to select higher than 31.00 shall use 31.00 enroute, and then actual until final approach/landing
5. All aircraft unable to set higher than 31.00 will maintain 31.00 with the following restriction:
- Departure alternate & alternate minimas to be adjusted 100ft higher & 1/4NM higher for every 00.10 over 31.00
**CAT II & III ILS not affected by above restrictions**
66
How long are altimeters considered valid for?
90 minutes!
67
When is a circling minima published?
When rate of descent exceeds design parameters when applying altitude corrections.
**This draws attention to the pilot that you cannot use straight-in minima when using an alternate altimeter source**
68
ADIZ:
1. Must file IFR or DVFR
2. Must revise on ATC when:
- +/- 5min deviation from a;
- reporting point
- point of penetration
- point of destination in ADIZ
- A 20NM tolerance for;
- ETA to entering ADIZ
- From the centerline of the intended route
69
Forest fire airspace restriction:
No closer than 3,000ft AGL within 5NM
70
Super heavy wake turbulence class:
More than 560,000kgs
71
Heavy wake turbulence class:
560,000kgs to 136,000kgs
72
Medium wake turbulence class:
136,000kgs to 7,000kgs
Based on MA CERTIFIED TAKEOFF “MASS”
73
Light wake turbulence class:
7,000kgs or less
74
Radar separation super heavy following super heavy:
4NM
75
Radar separation heavy following super heavy:
6NM
76
Radar separation medium following super heavy:
7NM
77
Radar separation light following super heavy:
8NM
78
Radar separation heavy following heavy:
4NM
79
Radar separation medium following heavy:
5NM
80
Radar separation light following heavy:
6NM
81
Radar separation light following medium:
4NM
82
Rule of thumb for radar separation regarding weight classes:
Any time the following aircraft is bigger than the lead, radar separation is not provided or listed. i.e. a medium following a light = no radar separation
83
When is a two-minute separation given to an aircraft taking off?
Behind any **heavy/super heavy** regardless of weight class(super heavy down to light) on the same runway, or a parallel runway less than 2,500ft away
**ATC will NOT provide any timed separation for a light following a medium in the above scenarios, but in the very least they will advise**
84
When is a three-minute separation given to an aircraft taking off?
Behind heavy aircraft (or a light following a medium) if the aircraft concerned takes off from an intersection or a point further down the runway from the preceding (ahead) aircraft**OR** the controller believes the following aircraft will require more runway length for takeoff than the preceding (ahead) aircraft.
Also provided when a light or medium is following a super heavy.
ATC will also append separation intervals to keep trailing aircraft from crossing a heavies flight path!
85
Non-radar light following super heavy:
3 minutes
86
Non-radar medium following super heavy:
3 minutes
87
Non-radar heavy following super heavy:
2 minutes
88
Non-radar super heavy following super heavy:
2 minutes
89
Non-radar light following heavy:
2 minutes
90
Non-radar medium following heavy:
2 minutes
91
Non-radar heavy following heavy:
2 minutes
92
Non-radar super heavy following heavy:
2 minutes
93
Non-radar light following medium:
No time standard, although an advisory will be given!
94
Are pilots allowed to waive a wake turbulence protection?
Yes, unless one of these situations occur:
1. A light or medium behind a heavy at an intersection significantly further down the runway (in same direction)
2. A light or medium behind a heavy that made a low approach or went missed in the *same **OR** opposite* direction on the same runway
95
Is wake turbulence given to VFR aircraft?
Yes, but VFR has less restrictions because they can accept full responsibility of wake turbulence. ATC only really concerns itself with IFR
96
Airspeed limit below 10,000ft ASL:
250kts unless authorized
97
Airspeed limit below 3,000ft AGL:
**AND** within 10NM of controlled airport, 200kts unless authorized
98
What are exceptions to airspeed limit orders?
1. Special flight operations certificate - special aviation event
2. Minimum safe speed exceeds these parameters
- ATC shall be advised of this!
**Can exceed the 200kts below 3,000 AGL within 10NM by up to a maximum of 250kts**
99
All holding speed limitations:
1. At or below 6,000ft ASL: 200kts 1min legs
2. Above 6,000ft ASL up to and including 14,000ft ASL: 230kts 1 min legs
3. Above 14,000ft ASL: 265kts 1½ min legs
**BASED ON INBOUND LEG timing**
*must be entered t or below maximum speeds*
100
When holding at 11,000ft ASL, what is your speed limit?
230kts maximum
101
What does an MHA assure?
Minimum Holding Altitude
1. Navigational signal coverage
2. Communication
3. Obstacle clearance
102
What is the maximum speed for airspace protection for holds in turbulent air?
280kts or 0.80 Mach, whichever is lower
**ATC to be notified if speed restrictions based on altitude cannot be met**
103
What does military aerodromes protected airspace allow for regarding speed?
310kts unless otherwise depicted
104
Where may you possibly exceed holding speed limitations up to 310kts?
Military aerodromes
105
What is the maximum holding speed of helicopters?
90kts unless otherwise specified
106
When is a shuttle procedure usually published on an approach plate?
Where a descent of more than 2,000ft is required during initial or intermediate approach segments
107
Before commencing a shuttle procedure, what must be observed before hand?
1. Speed limit for climb/descent on approach chart and/or:
2. Speed limit the general airspeed limit order as per altitude
3. If no published speeds:
- For climbs, max holding is 310kts
- For descents, refer to general airspeed limit order
4. The inbound/outbound timed legs as per altitude
5. DME holding restrictions, if any
108
When is it advisable to file an IFR flight plan?
At least 30mins before wheels up
109
What is the rule of IFR itineraries?
Allowed only 1 entry or exit from controlled airspace
110
What is a responsible person regarding an IFR/VFR itinerary?
A dispatch service or a person who "agrees"
111
When filing a flight plan from Canada to a country NOT the US, what must you file?
An ICAO flight plan
112
Changes to an IFR flight plan:
1. Cruising altitude
2. Route of flight
3. Destination
4. *When* in controlled airspace
5. TAS changes by 5% or 0.01 Mach
**notify ATS when ETA at reporting point exceeds 3 minutes**
113
When must a flight plan be closed?
As soon as practical, but no later than the SAR time*or* where no SAR time, **1hr** after latest reported ETA
114
When must a flight itinerary be closed?
As soon as practical, but no later than the SAR time *or* where no SAR time, **24hrs** after last reported ETA
115
What is a NOTAMN?
New NOTAM
116
What is a NOTAMR?
Replacing NOTAM
117
What is a NOTAMC?
Canceling NOTAM
118
What is a NOTAMJ?
RSC report NOTAM
119
What is the validity of a NOTAMJ?
An RSC NOTAM report is valid up to a maximum of 24hrs. Allures to wet, snow, slush, ice on runway
120
When are NOTAMs published?
NOTAM notifications must be made at least 6hrs in advance but no longer than 48hrs in advance
121
Resumption of flight duties following alcohol or drugs:
- 12hrs after alcohol intake
- Under the influence
- While using any drug that impairs the person’s faculties to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board the aircraft is endangered in any way
122
Resumption of flight duties following scuba diving:
24 hours
123
Resumption of flight duties following local or dental anesthetics:
24 hours
124
Resumption of flight duties following blood donation:
48 hours
125
Resumption of flight duties following general anesthetic:
Do not fly until consulting with doctor
126
Definition of operator of aircraft:
- Person in possession; owner, lessee, hirer, otherwise
- Operator ensures ADs complied with
- Operator responsible for any over-flight charges
127
Definition of operator of airport:
Holder of the airport license or person in charge; employee, agent, or representative
128
Definition of owner of aircraft:
- Has his/her name of registered aircraft
- Person in possession of chattel mortgage
- Person with a bona fide lease
129
What is a maneuvering area?
Taxi, takeoff, landing areas, run up bays, etc.
**Does NOT include apron areas**
130
What is a movement area?
Any part of the aerodrome used for surface movement of aircraft including both maneuvering area AND apron.
Essentially, if an airplane can be towed onto it, its a movement area
131
What 3 main factors affect RVR:
- Transmissivity of the atmosphere provided by a visibility sensor
- Brightness of lights
- Time of day
132
When are life preservers needed?
- When taking off or landing on water or;
- Operating over water beyond a point where an aircraft could reach shore in the event of an engine failure
- When going beyond 50NM from shore (i.e. multi-engine aircraft)
133
When are life rafts needed? (SE,ME,Transport)
- Single-engined or multi-engined aircraft unable to maintain flight after **any engine failure** at more than 100NM away from shore **OR** a distance that can be overed in 30 minutes at cruise speed (in itinerary), whichever less, from a *suitable landing site*
- Multi-engined aircraft able to maintain flight **after any engine fails** at more than 200NM from shore at a distance that can be covered in 60 minutes or less, whichever less, from a *suitable landing site*
- Transport category aircraft at **normal** cruise speed up to 400NM from shore or a distance that can be covered in 120 minutes or less, whichever less, from a *suitable landing site*
134
PPC validity:
Proficiency check:
- Expires first day of 13th month following PPC
- If PPC renewed within last 90 days of its validity period, the original due date is extended by 12 months
- Can be extended by up to 60 days where safety is not affected
- After 24 months, a whole new initial training shall be completed
135
In 705 operations, no person shall operate above FL___ unless there is portable oxygen to each FA to supply them for ___.
FL250, 15 minutes for 705
136
Under IFR, when a point at a reporting point exceeds __ of planned time, ATC must be notified
3 minutes
137
IF an ATF freq. is not published, what should you use:
123.2
138
RVOP is:
REDUCED.
Below 2600 RVR 1/2 down to and including 1200 RVR 1/4
139
LVOP is:
LOW.
Below 1200 RVR 1/4
140
Aerodrome operating visibility is based on:
- AD visibility
- Any RVR
- Pilot visibility
**THE LOWEST OF THE THREE**
141
No aircraft shall land unless:
- Aircraft passed the FAF/on final approach and wx drops
- RVR fluctuating above and below minimum on rwy in use
- Visibility is fluctuating at or above minimum, RVR is at or above minimum
- Pilot identifies local phenomenon
142
Start/pushback request RVR minima (RVOP):
RVR 1000
For runway in use
143
Start/pushback request RVR minima (LVOP):
RVR 600
For runway in use
144
Takeoff minima RVOP:
RVR 600
For runway in use
145
Takeoff minima LVOP:
RVR 600
For runway in use
146
703 takeoff minima:
Where 9 or less passengers:
Takeoff prohibited when at or above takeoff minima but below landing minima unless:
- Takeoff alternate filed within 60mins at normal cruise
- Company AOC authorized
Takeoff possible if weather is above landing minima at another runway at the same aerodrome
147
704/705 takeoff minima:
Takeoff prohibited
Takeoff possible if weather is above landing minima at another runway at the same aerodrome
148
Can you fly a two-crew A/C with an expired instrument rating?
Yes, if valid on type/group and in **day VFR only**
149
ATPL privileges revert to ____ privileges when CAT 1 expires.
PPL
150
How much of co-pilot time can be credited towards the issuance of a higher class pilot license?
- 100% of co-pilot time
- When aircraft is to be operated with a co-pilot
151
If PPC lapses, can you partake in a commercial operation?
No!
152
When must an IPC (instrument proficiency check) be completed before conducting an IFR flight?
- Completed within the preceding 24 months in aircraft with GNSS capabilities **of the same group**;
- or a flight simulator level A,B,C or D, or Flight Training Device (FTD) certified for IFR proficiency checks
- If 604 (Private ops), can be done by competency check (PCC),line-oriented evaluation (LOE) or proficiency check (PPC) instead of IPC
153
Aviation occurance means:
1. Any accident or incident with regards to operation of aircraft
2. Any grounds to believe, if left unattended, will induce an accident
154
Who may report an aviation occurrence to transport?
- Owner
- Operator
- PIC
- Any crewmember
- Any ATS with direct knowledge
155
Dangerous goods means:
TDG act: risk to health, safety, property or environment
156
A "mandatory reportable incident" means:
**ANY of the following involving an aircraft MCTOW greater than 2,250kg (5,000lbs) operated under any VII operation with an AOC**
- Engine fails or is turned off for precautionary measure
- Powertrain transmission gearbox malfunction
- Smoke is detected or fire occurs onboard
- Difficulties in controlling the aircraft; system malfunction, weather, wake, uncontrolled vibrations outside flight envelope
- Aircraft fails to remain in intended takeoff or landing area *or* all or part landing gear retracted, dragging a wingtip or engine pod or any other part
- A crewmember whose duties are related to safety operation is unable to perform their duties as a result of physical incapacitation which poses a threat
1. engine fail/turned off on purpose
2. powertrain/gearbox malfunction
3. Smoke/fire detected
4. flight control problems
5. overshoot/undershoot on takeoff/landing, scraping any part of A/C on ground
6. Crewmember incapacitation posing a threat to safety
157
From mode C transponder, what altitude does ATC see?
YOUR PRESSURE ALTITUDE (ON OUR PC-12s)
158
What is an encoding altimeter?
Onboard an aircraft used to send signal to ATC on ground showing pressure altitude
159
IF you miss an altimeter through FL180 and reset at FL200 from 30.12 to 29.92 (200ft), would ATC see?
NO change, transponder has a separate encoding altimeter. TOTALLY up to pilots to reset altitude to 29.92 when above FL180
160
If a comm failure occurs when operating VFR in VMC, a pilot should:
- Maintain VFR
- Clear class C if possible
- Land as soon as **practicable**
161
When IFR and an comm fialure occurs in IMC, ATC will:
Protect the airspace for 30 minutes
*just like if you forget to call in YHF, they will protect that airspace as well*
162
RVSM is the application of:
1,000ft vertical separation instead of normal 2,000ft separation
163
In RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in opposite directions will be separated by___ft
1,000ft
164
In RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in same direction will be separated by___ft
2,000ft
165
In non-RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in opposite directions will be separated by___ft
4,000ft
166
In non-RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in same direction will be separated by___ft
2,000ft
167
What letter denotes RVSM-approved aircraft on a flight on an ICAO flight plan?
W
168
You have two altimeters, one showing 20ft AAE and other showing 30ft AAE. can you cruise at FL310?
Yes, within 75ft of each other.
If it showed a known field elevation, you could say the 50ft tolerance too
169
Aircraft without oxygen can operate to a maximum altitude of:
13,000ft
170
RVSM flight:
Field elevation: 120ft
Altimeter 1: 160ft
Altimeter 2: 190ft
Can you go RVSM?
NO! field elevation is 120ft, altimeter 2 showing over 75ft tolerance from ground, AND altimeters must be 50ft of known elevation with altimeter
171
Altimeters must be within __ft of field elevation at a known altimeter setting airport.
50ft
172
Minimum altitude to fly over uncontrolled aerodrome:
2000ft
173
Minimum altitude to fly over uncontrolled aerodrome for landing:
1500ft
174
What is the only type of low-level airspace that can be found in high-level airspace?
TCA, can be up to FL230
175
In standard pressure region, when planning FL180 what altimeter setting should you have?
29.92 is acceptable
176
When flying through mountainous area, non-standard temps and mountain waves can cause the altimeter to over-read by ___ft
3000ft
177
How do you find pressure altitude using an altimeter?
Set 29.92
178
When is an alternate airport required for flight planning in Canada?
Whenever filing IFR!
179
A mandatory IFR route ______
Starts and ends with a waypoint
180
Alerting service:
Where ATC communication is difficult on ground when IFR, pilots may depart VFR and get IFR clearance in air. In Canada, if IFR clearance is not received on ground, SAR activates at:
Your ETD on flight plan, and if under an AD where FAA is in control, FAA procedures apply (ex. departing Windsor, Detroit approach has your clearance)
*In such cases, alerting service is not activated until aircraft calls ATC for clearance. Therefore if the aircraft departs before obtaining IFR clearance, alerting service does not begin until contact is established with ATS*
181
You depart at an uncontrolled on a VFR or IFR flight plan and you do not depart for 60 mins if your proposed departure time:
SAR activated!
182
Who determines if personal electronic devices cause interference? When can you use a PED?
The operator of the aircraft
When directed by PIC
183
Cold soaking can cause ______ when light rain or wet snow falls on wing?
(What type of ice)
Clear ice - water droplets freeze and you may be unable to actually tell if its ice or just the wing unless a tactile feel is completed
Most dangerous type of ice
184
What is the maximum distance a transport category A/C can operate from shore without ANY life saving equipment on board?
50NM
185
RVR gives you lowest expected visibility where?
In the touchdown zone
186
Where is runway level of service found?
CFS!
187
How is ground power organized when a runway is placed on CATII/III operations?
Standby power becomes primary power, so that in the event of the standby failure, the commercial (grid) power will take over without interruption; versus the other way around will result in an interruption
188
Repair intervals of MEL list:
CAT A - As specified
CAT B - 3 days
CAT C - 10 days
CAT D - 120 days
** EXCLUDING DAY OF DISCOVERY**
189
Aircraft light requirements for flying at night with passengers:
- Illumination for flight instruments
- Position lights
- Anti-collision lights
- Landing lights
- ONE landing light for 703 & 704 ops
- TWO landing lights for 705 ops
190
Air Transport aircraft flying between ___ft and ___ft for more than ___, supply of oxygen must be available to **ALL** crew and __% of passengers, but not less than 1 passenger for _____ at altitude.
10,000ft and 13,000ft for **more than** 30mins must have 10% oxygen available for passengers (Not less than 1 pax) for duration at such altitude.
Remember, first 30mins at altitude is free
**EACH CREW MEMBER SHALL HAVE OXYGEN MASK**
191
Air Transport aircraft flying over ____ft shall have oxygen supply **and** masks available for all persons for ____ or ____, whichever is longer at such altitude.
13,000ft for entire duration OR 1hr, whichever more.
**EACH PERSON SHALL HAVE OXYGEN MASK**
192
Quick donning oxygen masks must be:
Put on with one hand in 5 seconds or less
193
Oxygen equipment/supply in Air Transport:
- Crew must have O2 briefing
- Flight crew members must have 2hrs O2 available
- If no quick donning available, **one pilot at controls** must have mask at all times at or above FL250
- If quick donning available and above FL410, **one pilot at controls** must use O2 mask continuously
194
Useful consciousness per altitude:
10,000ft - 1hr
20,000ft - 5-12mins
30,000ft - 45-75 seconds
40,000ft - 15-30 seconds
50,000ft - 15-20 seconds
**based on RAPID decompression; dust and debris flies around cabin**
195
First Aid O2 for 703 & 704:
O2 must be available on pressurized A/C over FL250 to provide at least 1 pax for 1hr OR entire duration over cab. alt. above 8,000ft; after emergency descent following cabin depressurization - whichever longer
703/704 is above FL250
705 is 2% of pax/not less than 1 pax
196
First Aid O2 for 705:
O2 must be available on pressurized A/C for 2% of pax, at least 1 pax, for 1hr OR entire duration over cab. alt. above 8,000ft; after emergency descent following cabin depressurization - whichever longer
703/704 is above FL250
705 is 2% of pax/not less than 1 pax
197
FDR is required on:
- Any **large**, turbine multi-engine under 705 ops
- Any turbine, multi-engine under 704 ops with seating of **10 or more pax** manufactured after Oct. 11, 1991
198
When shall an FDR be on:
Takeoff roll to landing roll
199
Can a 704/705 operate without an FDR?
Yes, in accordance with an approved MEL, up to 90 days - as long as CVR is operational (tech records show date of failure)
200
CVR is required on:
- Any **large**, turbine multi-engine under 705 ops
- Any turbine multi-engine in **commercial ops** with seating 6 or more and where two pilots are required with type ratings (blanketed essentially)
FDR is only required on 10 or more pax on 704 ops. Reember the difference between the two
This is why PC12 does not have CVR; not a 2-crew A/C
201
When does the CVR need to be on:
From start and end of electrical power on
202
Can a 704/705 operate without an CVR?
Yes, in accordance with an approved MEL, up to 90 days - as long as FDR is operational (tech records show date of failure)
203
Where are altitude alerting systems required?
In turbojet aircraft
204
Can a turbojet aircraft operate without an altitude alerting system?
Yes, if:
1. In accordance with an MEL
2. If no MEL, in accordance with:
- PIC takes aircraft to repair facility
- For flight test/PCC/PPC/training
- When it becomes inoperative in flight, where you are flying it to an airport where it can be repaired
205
Aircraft may operate without an ELT where:
- Operated by a flight test unit within 25NM
- Test flight
- Ferry flight to get an ELT installed
206
Newer 406 ELTs provide:
- Accuracy within 5km
- Do not ring continuously
- Do not need to be near an ATC facility
207
Where is a standby attitude indicator required:
Any large turbojet in commercial air service (After July 1, 1997 it is required in any transport category A/C)
208
Standby attitude requirements:
- Powered by separate independent source
- Operate minimum for 30mins following failure
- Operate independently from primary attitude systems
- Must be in view from either pilot
209
Where are GPWS systems required:
In **all turbojet aircraft**
*705:*
All airplanes
*704*
- 10 or more pax seats
- 15,000kg MCTOW
*Remember, can be inop. if in accordance with MEL and may be turned off for safety purposes*
210
When is TAWS required:
In **ANY** turbine-powered aircraft with room for 6 or more pax under a **commercial service**
All 704 operations require at least a TAWS, unless it's over 10 pax seating and 15,000kg
*Remember, can be inop. if in accordance with MEL and may be turned off for safety purposes*
211
What does GPWS use to provide warnings?
RAD ALT
**IF RAD ALT IS U/S, SO WILL GPWS!**
212
Standard for transport of passengers in a single-engine airplane in IFR or night VFR:
- Only factory-built aircraft
- Turbine engine must have a proven "Mean Time Between Failure" (MTBF) of 0.01/1000 or less over 100,000 hours in service
- Pilots are trained properly
- RAD ALT
- 2 GENs
- Functioning landing light
- Authorized in AOC
213
What equipment is required in a single-engine aircraft carrying passengers in IFR/night VFR:
- Chip detector
- manual throttle (MOR lever)
- ONE landing light
214
705 aircraft is:
- Multi-engine aircraft with MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000lbs) or more, with 20 or more seats for passengers
- Any aircraft authorized by minister
**FA required on flights with more than 19 passengers**
215
704 aircraft:
Multi-engine: MCTOW 19,000lbs or less, 10-19 passengers inclusive
Turbojet: MZFW 50,000lbs or less, 19 and under passengers inclusive
216
703 aircraft:
Single engine: All weights, no seat restrictions (do whatever you want)
Multi-engine (non-turbojet): MCTOW 19,000lbs or less, 9 or less seats
217
What is the max flight duty time can be extended by in any 24hr period:
14hrs
218
Flight crew member on reserve:
Report for flight duty on notice of 1hr or more
219
Flight crew member on standby:
Report for flight duty on notice of 1hr or less
220
Flight crew member max **WORK** hours:
2,200hrs in 365 days
192hrs in 28 days
60 or 70hrs in any 7 days
221
Can a duty day be reduced by the PIC?
**A PIC MAY REDUCE THE DUTY PERIOD BASED ON THE SAFETY OF FLIGHT, AND AFTER CONSULTING WITH ALL CREW MEMBERS REGARDING FATIGUE**
222
What is maximum reserve for a FCM:
14 consecutive hours, with 10 hours rest in between periods
Maximum reserve is between 14 and 18 based on start time
223
What is "flight watch"?
Maintaining current info on progress of a flight and monitoring all factors and conditions that might affect the OFP
224
704 VFR fuel requirements
VFR day: +30mins
VFR night: +45mins
225
705 VFR fuel requirements:
VFR day: +45mins
VFR night: +45mins
226
705 IFR fuel requirements:
1. fly to destination
2. fly an approach and missed approach
3. fly and land at alternate **the hold for 30mins at 1500ft AGL AT ALTERNATE**
4. To descend to any point along route:
- To single-engine ceiling or 10,000ft
- To land at suitable diversion
- Approach and missed approach
- 30mins at 1,500' AGL above **diversion** airport
5. fuel for foreseeable delays
**6. On designated routes/areas, 5% reserve**
227
704 IFR fuel requirements:
1. fly to destination
2. fly an approach and missed approach
3. fly and land at alternate
4. fly for **45mins** in propeller or;
fly for **30mins** in turbojet
5. To descend to any point along route:
- To single-engine ceiling or 10,000ft
- To land at suitable diversion
- Approach and missed approach
- 30mins at 1,500' AGL above **diversion** airport
6. fuel for foreseeable delays
228
704 ops airborne storm detection requirements:
While carrying passengers in IMC and weather reports and forecasts thunderstorms:
- Thunderstorm detection equipment or weather radar
- Storm scope or weather radar
229
705 ops airborne storm detection requirements:
While carrying passengers in IMC and weather reports and forecasts thunderstorms:
- Weather radar (required for airline ops)
230
How often must you complete TDG training at a 705?
Every 24 months
231
How often must you be trained in CRM at a 705?
Every 24 months
232
How often must you complete high altitude training at a 705?
Every 3 years above 13,000
233
When is a COM required explicitly?
When performing an **assignment**
234
ETOPS requirements (extended twin):
- Adequate aerodrome within 60 minutes at **one-engine-inop. cruise speed** unless flight conducted wholly in CDA
235
What frequency is sued for air to air comms in North Atlantic (NAT) or Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace:
123.45 easy to remember
236
Where are fire extinguishers required?
Hand-held extinguisher in flight deck, passenger compartment and cargo compartment
- At least 1 in the flight deck, each galley and each class E cargo compartment
**60 or fewer passengers, two extinguishers required**
237
You receive a clearance to climb. You commence this clearance with:
BEST RATE OF CLIMB, be cautious of an answer like *"optimum climb speed which is suitable for aircraft"* that will be more correct
238
3 components of threat & error management:
- threats
- errors
- undesired (aircraft) states
T.E.U.
239
What weather reporting event amends the relevant GFA and significant prognostic weather charts?
SIGMETs
240
How long can SIGMET be valid?
ONLY 4 hours, can be issued up to 4hrs before validity time of report.
241
When may a SIGMET be issued 4hrs before its validity time?
For volcanic ash (WV) or a tropical storm (WC). Valid for 6hrs and may be issued up to 12hrs before validity time
242
FEW oktas covered:
>0 to 2
243
SCT octas covered:
3 to 4
244
BKN oktas covered:
5 to 8
245
OVC oktas covered:
8
246
What does "CLR" mean on a METAR?
No cloud below 10,000ft!
**NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH SKC; NO CLOUD PRESENT**
247
Recency requirements or T/O and landings are:
3 takeoffs and landings **ON TYPE** within preceding 90 days
248
What is a general rule of thumb regarding how many degrees are there per timezone?
15 degrees of LONGITUDE per time zone
249
705 dispatch limitations LDA for a turbo-jet aircraft at destination/alternate:
Weight of aircraft will allow for a full-stop landing in:
60% of runway LDA for destination
60% of runway LDA for alternate
250
705 dispatch limitations LDA for propeller-driven aircraft at destination/alternate:
Weight of aircraft will allow for a full-stop landing in:
70% of runway LDA for destination
70% of runway LDA for alternate
(propellers are more lenient, meaning you can use more runway to land, vs a turbojet has a lot at stake)
251
705 dispatch limitations LDA for turbojet aircraft at destination in WET weather:
LDA is at least 115% of the distance required
**can be shorter, no shorter than the 60% in 705.60, *IF* the aircraft flight manual includes specific information about landing distances on wet runways**
252
Number of first aid kits onboard regarding passengers (705):
0 to 50, 1 kit
51 to 150, 2 kits
151 to 250, 3 kits
251 or more, 4 kits
**if there are more than 100 passengers, emergency medical kit must also be carried**
253
If a NOTAM is published as "PERM", doe sit need a replacing NOTAM?
Yes, must be either NOTAMR (replacing) or NOTAMC (cancelling)
254
Net takeoff flight path:
1. Clear obstacles by 35ft
2. By 200ft within boundaries horizontally
3. By 300ft outside boundaries horizontally
4. Wind component! (50% HW, 150% TW)
Calculations based on:
- no bank below 50ft
- 15 degrees max bank at or below 400ft
- no more than 25 degrees thereafter
**more than 15 degrees allowed if AOC states**
255
Enroute limitations regarding 1 engine inoperative (a net flight path):
1. Positive slope at 1,000ft above all terrain AND obstructions within 5NM
2. When in cruise, clears all by at least 2,000ft within 5NM
- fuel jettison taken into account
- wind and temperature
256
Smokers are more susceptible to hypoxia because:
Carbon monoxide prevents O2 from getting into blood
257
TODA is _____ plus ____
TORA + clear way
258
What is RNPC airspace?
Required Navigation Performance Capability
**CONTROLLED AIRSPACE** to accommodate RNAV operations within southern control area and northern control area **NOT ARCTIC CONTORL AREA**
*RNAV certification is based on:
1. Crew training
2. NAV performance +/- 4NM
3. One long range and one short range NAV*
259
With what endorsements may an ATPL pilot fly *any* aircraft:
1. Instrument rating
2. Endorsement on **type of aircrafts**
260
Mode awareness keyword:
ARMED
261
Low aircraft energy includes:
Landing or go-around INCLUDING CONTACT GROUND
262
SVFR is a pilot relived of traffic avoidance:
NO! pilot still needs to avoid traffic
263
If a PROB indicates better weather, can you use that minima?
Yes!
264
Flights operating on predominately north or south tracks shall report over each ____ of _______.
EACH 5 DEGREES OF LATITUDE (LEFT TO RIGHT)
265
NAT MNPS altitude:
FL285 to FL420
266
What does NAT airspace mainly require?
2 operational LRNSs; long range navigation systems
**MUST REMAIN WITHIN 4NM OF THE TRACK 95% OF THE TIME**
267
What is the lateral spacing of NAT tracks?
30NM or 60NM
268
RVSM tolerance regarding altimeters:
On ground:
- +/- 20ft sea level ICAO atmosphere or if not at sea level;
- +/- 50ft of known elevation, and
- +/- 75ft between 2 altimeters
In air:
- +/- 200ft between 2 altimeters
269
When do you need a flight attendant regarding passengers?
from 19 passengers up to:
1 flight attendant per 40 **passengers**
or
1 flight attendant per 50 **seats**
*starting at Beech 1900, 19 seats, up to CRJ-200 50 seats **or** 40 passengers*
270
When an aircraft increases weight, the gust factor ____.
Decrease
**both positive and negative factor increase**
271
When an aircraft decreases weight, the gust factor ____.
Increase
**both positive and negative factor increase**
272
What speed prevents all icing accretion?
500kts
273
How is split duty calculated?
First take the break duration and minus 45 minutes from it. Then depending if the break is between 0600 and 2359 (100% of break can be used to extend) **OR** 2400 and 0559 (50% of break can be used to extend)
274
What does pilot Line Indoctrination include (situation and experience gained on the training)?
1. Airlines typical route structure
2. a sector flight (take-off, departure, arrival and landing including at least a 50 NM enroute segment)
*Reciprocating engine powered*
- 15 flying hours
- 4 sectors (2 as PF, 2 as PM)
- After 4 sectors required time flying may be reduced by 50%; each sector flown thereafter may drop the required time by 1hr
*Turbo-prop*
- 20 flying hours
- 4 sectors (2 as PF, 2 as PM)
- After 4 sectors required time flying may be reduced by 50%; each sector flown thereafter may drop the required time by 1hr
*Turbo-jet*
- 25 flying hours
- 4 sectors (2 as PF, 2 as PM)
- **no time reduction allowed**
**Sectors/hours acquired during proving or ferry flights may be counted towards this requirement***
275
On what groups of aircraft is a Line Indoctrination completed on?
Reciprocating engine powered
turbo-propeller
turbo-jet
276
Airline fuel reserves IFR:
- Destination
- Alternate
- Approach
- Missed approach
- **30mins holding at 1,500ft above AAE**
277
To act as SIC in airline operation you must:
1. Semi-annual flight training (like what Red does)
2. PPC semi-annually
3. 3 takeoffs/landings **plus one sector** within 90 days
4. Complete line check!
278
What is consolidation period in an Airline Operation?
Upon successful PPC, means crew pairing restrictions with the combined experience of the PIC and SIC new to an aircraft type
50hrs in 60 days
75hrs in 90 days
100hrs in 120 days
279
To carry passengers at night what is the reccurency?
5 TO/LDG at night within 90 days
280
After completion of ground training at an Air Carrier,how shall the company test your proficency?
Written test!
281
243 ELT quick notes:
1. 100 times stronger than 121.5 ELT
2. Detected within minutes with COSPAS-SARSAT
282
When may you operate without TAWS?
1. Day VFR
2. Operation takes place within 3 days of failure if no MEL
3. Necessary to pilot to turn it off regarding safety
283
704 Operation is:
**Air operator in air transport service OR aerial work involving sightseeing**
- Multi-engined A/C
- 19,000lbs MCTOW or less
- 10 to 19 pax
- turbojet A/C MZFW 50,000lbs or less
- any other authorized by minister
284
How much instrument time do you need for an ATPL?
75 hours instrument time (25hrs in simulator)
285
What type of OCS does a 704 operation utilize?
Type C and D
286
What type of OCS does a 705 operation utilize?
Type A, B, or C
287
Difference between 704 & 705 first-aid oxygen:
704:
**for flights over FL250**
- First aid oxygen for **at least 1 pax** for at least 1hr or entire duration over cab. alt. >8,000ft or following emergency descent
705:
**for pressurized aircraft**
- First aid oxygen for **2% of pax (at least 1 person)** for 1hr or entire duration over cab. alt. over >8000ft following emergency descent
288
Elementary work by pilot must record:
In journey log and tech log and authorize the aircraft to fly
289
Flight duty time commences at ____ and ends at ____
When the flight crew member reports for duty to engines off at the last flight
290
Are IFR flights permitted to enter an active restricted airspace?
Yes, with prior permission from user agency
291
Difference between advisory and restricted class F airspace?
Advisory = unusual traffic
Restricted = specific air or ground activity
292
What is strategic lateral offset procedure (SLOP) in NAT region?
- Mitigates collision risk and wake turbulence
- Offsets not to exceed 2NM
- Pilots **DO NOT** need prior clearance from ATC
- Aircraft without auto-offset capability must fly the route centreline
**UP TO 2NM, TO THE RIGHT!!**
Essentially, NATs can be too accurate, so much that it could cause a mid air collision based on the uncertainty of altitude deviations (NATs can be flown at very close proximity to other aircraft)
293
In NAT airspace, pilots must squawk:
Last assigned ATC code for **30 minutes** after entering NAT airspace (unless otherwise directed) than 2000!
294
Low level air routes are contained in what altitude range?
Surface to 17,999ft.
Air *root*, right to ground
295
Where are the dimensions of the ADIZ found?
DAH
296
No portable electronic devices in flight are permitted in ___
Canada! Remember, its not only if your just IFR, or carrying passengers, or in a commercial service. **It is everywhere in Canada regardless**
297
Who is authorized to declare an aircraft ready to takeoff when getting deiced?
**NOT JUST PIC**
1. PIC
2. Flight crew member
3. A person designated by the operator who completed training
4. A person designated by the PIC
298
What basis does the anti-skid system work on?
SENSORS!
Each wheel with a brake has a sensor that detects rapid decelerations on the wheel
299
What conditions allows you to be 1,000ft on top?
1. 1,000ft above haze,smoke,cloud
2. Visibility is at least 3NM
3. Well-defined ceilings
4. Altitude appropriate for direction of flight
5. Authorized by ATC unit
6. Within C,D,E controlled airspace
**1,000 ON TOP NOT ALLOWED IN UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE**
300
Hoar frost = ?
Clear night in winter! *Deposition*
Not to be confused with white dew. White dew is when dew sets then freezes afterwards
301
Throughout NAT region, airspace at and above FL___ is class __, and below this is class ___
FL055 (5,500ft), class A and below this is class G
302
What is the airspace in which Gander Oceanic Transition Area is located?
FL290 to FL600
303
Without prior authorization fueling during _____ is prohibited.
Onboard, boarding or disembarking, unless stated in company operations manual
304
Where do VFR altitudes begin?
3,000ft **AGL**
IFR as well.
305
When shall the passengers be briefed on over-water flights?
Before the segment of flight over the water
306
Consider a flight climbing to FL270. When shall the passengers be briefed on oxygen equipment?
Before flying through FL250
307
The gyro of the attitude indicator reacts to __ and the turn and bank indicator reacts to ___
Roll & yaw
Rate of turn
308
RMI bearings are based on:
Magnetic bearing...magnetic, because you are seeing it in flight, and its YOUR relative bearing to the station
309
VOT testing indication:
180 **FROM**
310
