Sample In Class Final Flashcards

0
Q

During a sleep study, 40% of the EEG waves are high amplitude low frequency delta waves,what sleep stage is the subject in?

a. REM
b. NREM stage I
c. NREM stage II
d. NREM stage III
e. NREM stage IV

A

d. NREM stage III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

During which sleep stage are spindles involved?

a. REM
b. NREM stage I
c. NREM stage II
d. NREM stage III
e. NREM stage IV

A

c. NREM stage II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During a sleep study, more than 50% of the EEG waves are high amplitude low frequency delta waves,what sleep stage is the subject in?

a. REM
b. NREM stage I
c. NREM stage II
d. NREM stage III
e. NREM stage IV

A

e. NREM stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lesions in the raphe nucleus produce what effect in the short term?

a. narcolepsy
b. seizures
c. insomnia
d. REM behavior disorder

A

c. insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Experimentally how can REM sleep be induced?

a. Cholinergic stimulation of the medulla
b. adrenergic stimulation of the medulla
c. cholinergic stimulation of the pons
d. adrenergic stimulation of the pons

A

c. cholinergic stimulation of the pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What factor has a hypnogenic (sleep inducing) effect on the anterior hypothalamus?

a. PGD2
b. glutamate
c. PGF 2-alpha
d. norepinephrine

A

a. PGD2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The nucleus basalis of Meynert which functions as a sleep modulating center is associatedwith what type of neuronal projections?

a. adrenergic
b. glutamanergic
c. serotonergic
d. cholinergic

A

d. cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what sleep stage does the EEG resemble the awake state?a. stage II

b. stage IV
c. REM
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

c. REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slow wave sleep is associated wth which of the following autonomic changes?

a. Increase SNS, decrease Parasympathtic
b. increase Parasympathetic, decrease SNS
c. Increase SNS, increase Parasympathetic
d. Decrease SNS, decrease Parasympathetic
e. increase Parasympathetic, SNS remains the same

A

b. increase Parasympathetic, decrease SNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kindling may be associated with which of the following?

a. depression
b. sleep apnea
c. binge drinking
d. schizophrenia

A

c. binge drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PGO (pontine geniculate occipital) spikes are associated with what sleep stage?

a. REM
b. NREM stage I
c. NREM stage II
d. NREM stage III
e. NREM stage IV

A

a. REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leptin from adipose had what effect(s). Pick all correct answers.

a. increased hunger
b. increased energy utilization
c. increased food intake
d. decreased food intake

A

b. increased energy utilization
d. decreased food intake
(Leptin thins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 30% increase in rheobase in motor neurons occurs during what sleep stage?

a. NREM stage I
b. NREM stage II
c. NREM stage III
d. NREM stage IV
e. REM

A

e. REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Increased levels of what hormone may be associated with weight gain associated with sleepdeprivation by increasing feelings of hunger and increasing food intake?

a. leptin
b. ghrelin
c. thyroxine
d. cortisol
e. growth hormone

A

b. ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A common cause of epilepsy is head trauma.

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is not a precipitating cause of a seizure?

a. fever
b. flashing lights
c. acidosis
d. hyperventilation

A

c. acidosis (alkalosis is a cause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following cognitive symptom associated with schizophrenia involves theprefrontal cortex?

a. poor attention
b. deficits in working memory
c. hallucinations
d. flat effect

A

b. deficits in working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Positive schizophrenic symptoms like delusions and hallucinations are associated with whatexcessive dopaminergic projection activity that originate in the ventral tegmental area?

a. mesocortical
b. mesolimbic
c. mesostriatal
d. mesocerebellar

A

b. mesolimbic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Negative schizophrenic symptoms like poverty of speech and anhedonia are associated with what excessive dopaminergic projection activity that originate in the ventral tegmental area?

a. mesocortical
b. mesolimbic
c. mesostriatal
d. mesocerebellar

A

a. mesocortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In schizophrenia, exaggerated activity of dopaminergic projections from the ventraltegmental area to the neocortex is associated with which of the following?

a. flat affect
b. hallucinations
c. illogical thinking
d. delusions

A

a. flat affect (withdrawn with no personality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How likely is an identical twin to become schizophrenia if the other identical twin developsthe disease?

a. less than 1%
b. 10%
c. 40%
d. 100%

A

c. 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Schizophrenics may benefit from what type of diet?

a. high protein, low fat
b. high carbohydrate
c. gluten free
d. a diet rich in omega 3 fatty acids

A

c. gluten free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bipolar’s may benefit from what type of diet?

a. high protein, low fat
b. high carbohydrate
c. gluten free
d. a diet rich in omega 3 fatty acids

A

d. a diet rich in omega 3 fatty acids

23
Q

Over the last century the decline in the average age of the onset of depression is thought tobe due to what reason?

a. stress
b. genetics
c. radiation
d. free radical damage

A

a. stress

24
Q

Unipolar depression is associated with decreased levels of what neurotransmitters? (Pick allcorrect answers)

a. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. substance P
d. serotonin
e. glutamate

A

a. norepinephrine

d. serotonin

25
Q

Lack of the parasympathetic nervous system activity is a key finding in all anxiety disorders.

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

26
Q

Infusion of what substance will induce a panic attack in a person who is predisposed to that condition? (Choose all)

a. morphine
b. sodium pentobarbital
c. isotonic saline
d. sodium lactate
e. carbon dioxide

A

d. sodium lactate

e. carbon dioxide

27
Q

Which of the following non drug treatments for depression is relatively new and received FDA approval in 2008 and also has other applications like treating asperger’s?

a. vagal nerve stimulation
b. electroconvulsive shock therapy
c. transcranial magnetic stimulation
d. omega 3 fatty acid supplementation

A

c. transcranial magnetic stimulation

28
Q

What is by far the most common emotion associated with chronic back pain?

a. anxiety
b. fear
c. laughter
d. depression

A

d. depression

29
Q

Stimulation of what neuronal receptors is associated with opening of chloride channels?

a. NMDA
b. GABA
c. beta adrenergic
d. muscarinic

A

b. GABA

30
Q

All areas of the CNS has a blood brain barrier.

a. true
b. false

A

false

31
Q

What area of the CNS lacks a blood brain barrier?

A

posterior pituitary & circumventricular organs (e.g. area postrema & median eminence)

32
Q

Which of the following will increase cerebral blood flow?

a. increase in local oxygen
b. increase in systemic blood pressure
c. increase in local carbon dioxide
d. increase in pH in the brain

A

c. increase in local carbon dioxide

Decrease in pH will also increase flow

33
Q

Which of the following has been shown to bind to cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain and help prevent degeneration associated alzheimer’s disease?

a. omega 3 fatty acids
b. nerve growth factor
c. substance P
d. PGD2

A

b. nerve growth factor

34
Q

A fairly common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy to treat major depression is which of the following?

a. schizophrenia
b. epilepsy
c. memory loss
d. anterograde amnesia

A

c. memory loss

35
Q

The entire CSF volume turns over about how times per day?

a. once
b. three X
c. five X
d. ten X

A

b. three X

36
Q

CSF can provide a transport route for neuropeptides to distant sites.

a. true
b. false

A

true

37
Q

Activation of what division of the autonomic nervous system inhibits proliferation of lymphocytes and results in a suppression of the immune response?

a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. enteric
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

a. sympathetic

38
Q

Which of the following is a CNS effect of alpha MSH on the hypothalamus?

a. promote fever
b. stimulate thirst centers
c. negate fever
d. stimulate the sympathetic nervous system

A

c. negate fever

39
Q

Which of the following substances is associated with producing a fever state?

a. alpha MSH
b. nerve growth factor
c. norepinephrine
d. interleukin I

A

d. interleukin I

40
Q

What is considered a normal cranial sacral rhythm?

a. 6 Cycles/sec
b. 60 Cycles/second
c. 6 Cycles/minute
d. 60 Cycles/minute

A

c. 6 Cycles/minute

41
Q

What neuropeptide in autonomic nerves innervating the thymus, spleen and lymph nodeshelp regulate immune cells?

a. NPY
b. norepinephrine
c. leptin
d. prolactin

A

a. NPY

42
Q

Cellular adhesion molecules, NK cell function, and T cell function are diminished in which of the following situations?

a. panic attacks
b. epilepsy
c. spinal cord injury
d. schizophrenia

A

c. spinal cord injury

43
Q

Immune cells can produce neurologically active peptides such as ACTH and VIP.

a. true
b. false

A

true

44
Q

Experimentally if two adjacent digits are sewn together, the following might be expected to occur?

a. cortical reorganization, whereby the two digits cannot be controlled individually
b. cortical degeneration, the sewn together digits will become progressively paralysed
c. an increase in cortical area devoted to both digits, greater than the sum previously
d. no change in the cortical area devoted to both digits

A

a. cortical reorganization, whereby the two digits cannot be controlled individually

45
Q

In mice, what can prolong lifespan?

a. immobilization stress
b. melatonin administration
c. naltrexone administration
d. norepinephrine administration

A

b. melatonin administration

46
Q

Following injury new neural connections can reform in both the CNS and PNS.

a. true
b. false

A

true

47
Q

In neonatal mice what increased the number of degranulated acidophilic cells in the anteriorpituitary, a sign of degeneration?

a. thymectomy
b. thyroidectomy
c. lesion of the cerebellum
d. removal of the adrenal glands

A

a. thymectomy

48
Q

In old mice, what restores thymic capacity to produce thymulin?

a. dopamine
b. tyrosine
c. L-thyroxine
d. insulin

A

c. L-thyroxine

49
Q

Compare the regenerative capacity of the PNS to the CNS.

a. PNS > CNS
b. CNS > PNS
c. PNS = CNS

A

a. PNS > CNS

50
Q

Astrocytes communicate among themselves & with neurons by what mechanism?

a. Mg++ waves
b. Ca++ waves
c. action potentials
d. neuropeptides

A

b. Ca++ waves

51
Q

Astrocytes typically inhibit aynaptogenesis.

a. true
b. false

A

false

52
Q

Somnabulism (sleep walking) typically occurs during which of the following?

a. gran mal seizure
b. REM sleep
c. slow wave sleep
d. depression

A

c. slow wave sleep

53
Q

Which of the following has been shown to cause the brain to age up to 20 X faster than normal with a loss of gray matter?

a. schizophrenia
b. chronic low back pain
c. panic attacks
d. all of the above

A

b. chronic low back pain

54
Q

What area of the CNS functions as a endogenous (biologic) clock entraining circadian rhythms?

a. raphe nucleus
b. nucleus of the tractus solitarius
c. basal ganglia
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

d. suprachiasmatic nucleus