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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY > Safety and Quality Assessment > Flashcards

Safety and Quality Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Describes how microorganisms are transmitted

A

Chain of infection

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2
Q

It refers to a procedure used to control and monitor infection

A

Infection control

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3
Q

Components of the chain of infection

A

Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Means of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host

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4
Q

Examples of infectious agents

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Parasites
Viruses

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5
Q

A place where the infectious agent can live and possible multiply

A

Reservoir

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6
Q

Inanimate objects that serve as reservoirs

A

Fomites

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7
Q

What are the different modes of transmission

A

Direct contact
Airborne
Droplets
Vehicle
Vector

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8
Q

The unprotected host touches the patient, specimen, or a contaminated object (reservoir)

A

Direct contact

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9
Q

Inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating on air currents or attached to dust particles

A

Airborne

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10
Q

The host inhales material from the reservoir (e.g., aerosol droplets from a patient or an uncapped centrifuge tube, or when specimens are aliquoted or spilled)

A

Droplets

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11
Q

Ingestion of a contaminated substance (e.g., food, water, specimen)

A

Vehicles

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12
Q

Transmission thru an animal or insect bite

A

Vector

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13
Q

Susceptible hosts include

A

Infants
Newborns
Elderly

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14
Q

Factors that depress the immune system

A

Stress
Fatigue
Lack of proper nutrition
Immunocompromised
Healthcare workers

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15
Q

What is the primary objective of biological safety?

A

Preventing completion of the chain of infection

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16
Q

Under this, all patients are considered to be possible carriers of blood-borne pathogens

A

Universal Precaution

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17
Q

Body fluids not included in Universal Precaution

A

Urine and body fluids not visibly contaminated by blood

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18
Q

Guideline the is not limited to blood-borne pathogens; they consider all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious.

A

Body Substance Isolation

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19
Q

Major disadvantage of BSI guidelines

A

Do not recommend handwashing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.

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20
Q

Combination of the major features of UP and BSI guidelines

A

Standard Precautions

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21
Q

Hand hygiene includes

A

Both hand washing and the use of alcohol-based antiseptic cleansers.

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22
Q

Hand hygiene should be done when

A

Immediately after gloves are removed
Between patient contacts
When otherwise indicated

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23
Q

Is it necessary to sanitize our hands when dealing with the same patient

A

Yes of course it is necessary

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24
Q

Why is hand hygiene important?

A

To avoid transferring microorganisms

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25
Q

Is there a need to change gloves when treating the same patient?

A

Yes yes yes

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26
Q

Used to protect mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, and mouth during patient care

A

Mask and face shield

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27
Q

Purpose of wearing a laboratory gown

A

To protect skin and to prevent soiling of clothing

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28
Q

Single most important way of breaking the chain of infection

A

Hand washing

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29
Q

What to do with reusable laboratory equipment?

A

Clean and reprocess

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30
Q

Container for sharps

A

Puncture-resistant container

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31
Q

Importance of cough etiquette

A

To contain respiratory secretions to prevent droplet and fomite transmission of respiratory pathogens

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32
Q

Given after exposure to blood borne pathogen

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis

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33
Q

When to remove gloves

A

When noticeably contaminated, damaged, and before leaving the work area

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34
Q

Reactions to latex include

A

Irritant contact dermatitis

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35
Q

Irritant contact dermatitis produce:

A

Patches of dry, itchy irritation on the hands

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36
Q

Delayed latex hypersensitivity reaction

A

Resembling poison ivy

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37
Q

Immediate latex hypersensitivity reaction

A

Facial flushing and breathing difficulties

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38
Q

How to prevent the formation of latex allergy?

A

Hand sanitizing immediately after removing gloves and avoiding powdered gloves

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39
Q

Alternative for latex gloves

A

Nitrile or vinyl gloves

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40
Q

Where should we place disposable coats

A

Container for biohazardous wastes

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41
Q

Where should we place nondisposable coats

A

Designated laundry receptacles

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42
Q

What to do when the exterior of sample container is contaminated?

A

Disinfect the exterior; new specimen may be requested

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43
Q

Primary method of infection transmission

A

Hand contact

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44
Q

How to clean hands that are not visibly contaminated

A

Use alcohol-based cleaners

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45
Q

How to decontaminate biological wastes

A

Incineration
Autoclaving
Pickup by a certified hazardous waste company.

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46
Q

How to discard urine?

A

Pour into laboratory sink

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47
Q

Used to disinfect countertops and accidental spills; and also sink after discarding urine

A

1:5 or 1:10 sodium hypochlorite

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48
Q

Shelf life of 1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite if protected from light after preparation

A

1 month

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49
Q

Absorbent materials used for cleaning countertops and removing spills must be discarded in

A

Biohazard containers

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50
Q

Empty urine containers can be discarded as

A

Nonbiologically hazardous waste

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51
Q

All sharp objects must be disposed in

A

Puncture-resistant, leak-proof container with the biohazard symbol

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52
Q

Best first aid when contact between chemical and skin occurs

A

Flush the area with large amounts of water for at least 15 minutes

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53
Q

Use base to neutralize acidic chemicals. True or false?

A

False, only use water

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54
Q

Is pipetting by mouth acceptable in laboratory?

A

No

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55
Q

Who developed the Standard System for the Identification of the Fire Hazards of Materials

A

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

56
Q

This symbol system is used to inform firefighters of the hazards they may encounter with fires in a particular area

A

NFPA hazardous material symbols

57
Q

The diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol contains information relating to

A

Health
Flammability
Reactivity
Personal protection/special precautions

58
Q

They require that all employees have a right to know about all chemical hazards present in their workplace

A

OSHA Federal Hazard Communication Standard

59
Q

They are required to provide MSDSs to purchasers

A

Vendors

60
Q

They are responsible for obtaining and making MSDSs available to employees

A

Purchasing facility

61
Q

It is encountered in the clinical laboratory when procedures using radioisotopes are performed

A

Radioactivity

62
Q

The effects of radiation are cumulative related to the amount of exposure. True or false?

A

True

63
Q

The amount of radiation exposure is related to a combination of

A

Time
Distance
Shielding

64
Q

Is it safe to operate equipment with wet hands?

A

No

65
Q

What to do when equipment becomes wet?

A

Equipment should be unplugged and allowed to dry completely before reusing

66
Q

Necessary thing to do before cleaning equipment

A

Unplug the equipment

67
Q

All electrical equipment must be grounded with two-pronged plugs. True or false?

A

False; three-pronged

68
Q

What to do when there is an accident involving electrical shock

A

The electrical source must be removed immediately

69
Q

Is it safe to touch a person that is being electrocuted? Why?

A

No, to avoid transferring of current

70
Q

Safe procedures to follow when handling electrical equipment

A

Turning off the circuit breaker
Unplugging the equipment
Moving the equipment using a nonconductive object

71
Q

Necessary medical procedure for patient following electrocution

A

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

72
Q

They require that all health-care institutions post evacuation routes and detailed plans to follow in the event of a fire

A

Joint Commission (JC)

73
Q

The acronym RACE means

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish/Evacuate

74
Q

It classifies fires with regard to the type of burning material and type of fire extinguisher that is used to control them

A

NFPA

75
Q

The most common type of fire extinguisher used

A

Multipurpose ABC fire extinguishers

76
Q

The acronym PASS means

A

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

77
Q

Extinguishing materials of Class A fires

A

Wood
Paper
Clothing

78
Q

Extinguishing materials of Class B fires

A

Flammable organic chemicals

79
Q

Extinguishing materials of Class C fires

A

Electrical equipment

80
Q

Extinguishing materials of Class D fires

A

Combustible metals

81
Q

Extinguishing materials of Class K fires

A

Grease
Oils
Fats

82
Q

Fire extinguisher used for Class A fires; and its composition

A

Class A; water

83
Q

Fire extinguisher used for Class B fires; and its composition

A

Class B; dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, foam, or halon

84
Q

Fire extinguisher used for Class C fires; and its composition

A

Class C; dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, or halon

85
Q

Fire extinguisher used for Class most fires; and its composition

A

Class ABC; dry chemicals

86
Q

Fire extinguisher used for Class K fires; and its composition

A

Class K; liquid designed to prevent splashing and cool the fire

87
Q

General precautions to consider in avoiding physical hazards

A

Avoid running
Watch for wet floors
Proper posture when lifting
Proper grooming
Avoid dangling jewelry
Maintain clean work area
Use closed-toed shoes

88
Q

Fire extinguishing used for Class D fires; and its composition

A

Sand or dry powder

89
Q

The overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care and is regulated throughout the total testing system

A

Quality Assessment (QA)

90
Q

Refers to all of the laboratory’s policies, processes, procedures, and resources needed to achieve quality testing

A

Quality system

91
Q

Quality assessment program that includes testing of controls

A

Quality Control (QC)

92
Q

It encompasses the examination phases

A

Quality Control (QC)

93
Q

Three phases of examination

A

Preexamination
Examination
Postexamination

94
Q

Variables that occur before the actual testing of the specimen

A

Preexamination variables

95
Q

Examples of preexamination variables

A

Test requests
Patient preparation
Timing
Specimen collection
Specimen handling
Specimen storage

96
Q

It is defined as the amount of time required from the point at which a test is ordered, until the results are reported

A

Turnaround time (TAT)

97
Q

All urine specimens should be examined within

A

2 hours

98
Q

What to do if it is not possible for urine specimen to be examined within 2 hours?

A

Preserve the specimen

99
Q

Variables that directly affect the testing of specimens

A

Examination variables

100
Q

Examples of examination variables

A

Reagents
Instrumentation and equipment
Testing procedure
QC
Preventive maintenance (PM)
Access to procedure manuals
Competency of personnel performing the tests

101
Q

How often do we need to check reagent strips against negative and positive control solutions?

A

Each shift
Minimum once a day
Whenever a new bottle is opened

102
Q

Reagents should be checked every:

A

Daily or when tests requiring their use are requested

103
Q

Reagent strips must be refrigerated, and must be recapped immediately after removing each strip. True or false?

A

False; Reagent strips must never be refrigerated

104
Q

The most frequently encountered instruments in the urinalysis laboratory are

A

Refractometers
Osmometers
Automated reagent strip readers
Automated microscopy instruments

105
Q

Common equipment found in the urinalysis laboratory

A

Refrigerators
Centrifuges
Microscopes
Water baths

106
Q

How often do we need to calibrate centrifuges?

A

Every 3 months

107
Q

How often do we need to disinfect centrifuges?

A

Weekly

108
Q

How often a microscopes should be professionally cleaned?

A

Annually

109
Q

Deionized water used for reagent preparation is quality controlled by checking

A

pH and purity meter resistance on a weekly basis and the bacterial count on a monthly schedule

110
Q

It refers to the materials, procedures, and techniques that monitor the accuracy, precision, and reliability of a laboratory test

A

Quality control

111
Q

Why is there a need to perform Quality Control procedures?

A

To ensure that acceptable standards are met during the process of patient testing

112
Q

When do we perform QC procedures?

A

Beginning of each shift
Before testing patient samples
When reagents are changed
When instrument malfunction
When test results are questioned

113
Q

Patient test results may be reported even if the QC is not verified. True or false?

A

False; Patient test results may not be reported until the QC is verified

114
Q

It is used to verify the accuracy and precision of a test and are exposed to the same conditions as the patient samples

A

External quality controls

115
Q

It is the ability to obtain the expected result

A

Accuracy

116
Q

It is the ability to obtain the same result on the same specimen

A

Precision

117
Q

It is the ability to maintain both precision and accuracy

A

Reliability

118
Q

The average of all data points

A

Control mean

119
Q

A measurement statistic that describes the average distance each data point in a normal distribution is from the mean

A

Standard deviation (SD)

120
Q

The SD expressed as a percentage of the mean

A

Coefficient of variation (CV)

121
Q

CV must have a value of

A

Less than 5%

122
Q

The limits between which the specified proportion or percentage of results will lie

A

Confidence intervals

123
Q

These are determined by setting confidence limits

A

Control ranges

124
Q

The gradual changing in the mean in one direction

A

Trend

125
Q

It is an abrupt change in the mean

A

Shift

126
Q

How does commercial QC program for laboratories are conducted?

A

Results from the same lot of QC material sent by the manufacturer to participating laboratories are returned to the manufacturer for statistical analysis and comparison with other laboratories using the same methodology

127
Q

It consists of internal monitoring systems built in to the test system and are called internal or procedural controls

A

Internal quality control

128
Q

It verifies the functional ability of a testing device, but it does not verify the integrity of the testing supplies

A

External quality control (EQC)

129
Q

The testing of unknown samples received from an outside agency, and provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results

A

Proficiency Testing (External Quality Assessment)

130
Q

These are processes that affect the reporting of results and correct interpretation of data

A

Postexamination variables

131
Q

Procedure that compares a patient’s test results with the previous results

A

Delta check

132
Q

Important things to do when telephoning test results

A

Confirm that the results are being reported to the appropriate person
The time of the call and the name of the person receiving the results must be documented according to the facility’s policy

133
Q

The Joint Commission Patient Safety Goals require that when verbally reporting test results

A

The information must be repeated by the person receiving the information and documented by the person giving the report

134
Q

Common errors during preexamination

A

Patient misidentification
Wrong test ordered
Incorrect urine specimen type collected Insufficient urine volume
Delayed transport of urine to the laboratory
Incorrect storage or preservation of urine

135
Q

Common errors during examination

A

Sample misidentification
Erroneous instrument calibration
Reagent deterioration
Poor testing technique
Instrument malfunction
Interfering substances present
Misinterpretation of quality control data

136
Q

Common errors during postexamination

A

Patient misidentification
Poor handwriting
Transcription error
Poor quality of instrument printer
Failure to send report
Failure to call critical values
Inability to identify interfering substances

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY (20 decks)

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