Safety and Quality Assessment Flashcards
1
Q
Describes how microorganisms are transmitted
A
Chain of infection
2
Q
It refers to a procedure used to control and monitor infection
A
Infection control
3
Q
Components of the chain of infection
A
Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Means of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
4
Q
Examples of infectious agents
A
Bacteria
Fungi
Parasites
Viruses
5
Q
A place where the infectious agent can live and possible multiply
A
Reservoir
6
Q
Inanimate objects that serve as reservoirs
A
Fomites
7
Q
What are the different modes of transmission
A
Direct contact
Airborne
Droplets
Vehicle
Vector
8
Q
The unprotected host touches the patient, specimen, or a contaminated object (reservoir)
A
Direct contact
9
Q
Inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating on air currents or attached to dust particles
A
Airborne
10
Q
The host inhales material from the reservoir (e.g., aerosol droplets from a patient or an uncapped centrifuge tube, or when specimens are aliquoted or spilled)
A
Droplets
11
Q
Ingestion of a contaminated substance (e.g., food, water, specimen)
A
Vehicles
12
Q
Transmission thru an animal or insect bite
A
Vector
13
Q
Susceptible hosts include
A
Infants
Newborns
Elderly
14
Q
Factors that depress the immune system
A
Stress
Fatigue
Lack of proper nutrition
Immunocompromised
Healthcare workers
15
Q
What is the primary objective of biological safety?
A
Preventing completion of the chain of infection
16
Q
Under this, all patients are considered to be possible carriers of blood-borne pathogens
A
Universal Precaution
17
Q
Body fluids not included in Universal Precaution
A
Urine and body fluids not visibly contaminated by blood
18
Q
Guideline the is not limited to blood-borne pathogens; they consider all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious.
A
Body Substance Isolation
19
Q
Major disadvantage of BSI guidelines
A
Do not recommend handwashing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.
20
Q
Combination of the major features of UP and BSI guidelines
A
Standard Precautions
21
Q
Hand hygiene includes
A
Both hand washing and the use of alcohol-based antiseptic cleansers.
22
Q
Hand hygiene should be done when
A
Immediately after gloves are removed
Between patient contacts
When otherwise indicated
23
Q
Is it necessary to sanitize our hands when dealing with the same patient
A
Yes of course it is necessary
24
Q
Why is hand hygiene important?
A
To avoid transferring microorganisms
25
Is there a need to change gloves when treating the same patient?
Yes yes yes
26
Used to protect mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, and mouth during patient care
Mask and face shield
27
Purpose of wearing a laboratory gown
To protect skin and to prevent soiling of clothing
28
Single most important way of breaking the chain of infection
Hand washing
29
What to do with reusable laboratory equipment?
Clean and reprocess
30
Container for sharps
Puncture-resistant container
31
Importance of cough etiquette
To contain respiratory secretions to prevent droplet and fomite transmission of respiratory pathogens
32
Given after exposure to blood borne pathogen
Post-exposure prophylaxis
33
When to remove gloves
When noticeably contaminated, damaged, and before leaving the work area
34
Reactions to latex include
Irritant contact dermatitis
35
Irritant contact dermatitis produce:
Patches of dry, itchy irritation on the hands
36
Delayed latex hypersensitivity reaction
Resembling poison ivy
37
Immediate latex hypersensitivity reaction
Facial flushing and breathing difficulties
38
How to prevent the formation of latex allergy?
Hand sanitizing immediately after removing gloves and avoiding powdered gloves
39
Alternative for latex gloves
Nitrile or vinyl gloves
40
Where should we place disposable coats
Container for biohazardous wastes
41
Where should we place nondisposable coats
Designated laundry receptacles
42
What to do when the exterior of sample container is contaminated?
Disinfect the exterior; new specimen may be requested
43
Primary method of infection transmission
Hand contact
44
How to clean hands that are not visibly contaminated
Use alcohol-based cleaners
45
How to decontaminate biological wastes
Incineration
Autoclaving
Pickup by a certified hazardous waste company.
46
How to discard urine?
Pour into laboratory sink
47
Used to disinfect countertops and accidental spills; and also sink after discarding urine
1:5 or 1:10 sodium hypochlorite
48
Shelf life of 1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite if protected from light after preparation
1 month
49
Absorbent materials used for cleaning countertops and removing spills must be discarded in
Biohazard containers
50
Empty urine containers can be discarded as
Nonbiologically hazardous waste
51
All sharp objects must be disposed in
Puncture-resistant, leak-proof container with the biohazard symbol
52
Best first aid when contact between chemical and skin occurs
Flush the area with large amounts of water for at least 15 minutes
53
Use base to neutralize acidic chemicals. True or false?
False, only use water
54
Is pipetting by mouth acceptable in laboratory?
No
55
Who developed the Standard System for the Identification of the Fire Hazards of Materials
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
56
This symbol system is used to inform firefighters of the hazards they may encounter with fires in a particular area
NFPA hazardous material symbols
57
The diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol contains information relating to
Health
Flammability
Reactivity
Personal protection/special precautions
58
They require that all employees have a right to know about all chemical hazards present in their workplace
OSHA Federal Hazard Communication Standard
59
They are required to provide MSDSs to purchasers
Vendors
60
They are responsible for obtaining and making MSDSs available to employees
Purchasing facility
61
It is encountered in the clinical laboratory when procedures using radioisotopes are performed
Radioactivity
62
The effects of radiation are cumulative related to the amount of exposure. True or false?
True
63
The amount of radiation exposure is related to a combination of
Time
Distance
Shielding
64
Is it safe to operate equipment with wet hands?
No
65
What to do when equipment becomes wet?
Equipment should be unplugged and allowed to dry completely before reusing
66
Necessary thing to do before cleaning equipment
Unplug the equipment
67
All electrical equipment must be grounded with two-pronged plugs. True or false?
False; three-pronged
68
What to do when there is an accident involving electrical shock
The electrical source must be removed immediately
69
Is it safe to touch a person that is being electrocuted? Why?
No, to avoid transferring of current
70
Safe procedures to follow when handling electrical equipment
Turning off the circuit breaker
Unplugging the equipment
Moving the equipment using a nonconductive object
71
Necessary medical procedure for patient following electrocution
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
72
They require that all health-care institutions post evacuation routes and detailed plans to follow in the event of a fire
Joint Commission (JC)
73
The acronym RACE means
Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish/Evacuate
74
It classifies fires with regard to the type of burning material and type of fire extinguisher that is used to control them
NFPA
75
The most common type of fire extinguisher used
Multipurpose ABC fire extinguishers
76
The acronym PASS means
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep
77
Extinguishing materials of Class A fires
Wood
Paper
Clothing
78
Extinguishing materials of Class B fires
Flammable organic chemicals
79
Extinguishing materials of Class C fires
Electrical equipment
80
Extinguishing materials of Class D fires
Combustible metals
81
Extinguishing materials of Class K fires
Grease
Oils
Fats
82
Fire extinguisher used for Class A fires; and its composition
Class A; water
83
Fire extinguisher used for Class B fires; and its composition
Class B; dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, foam, or halon
84
Fire extinguisher used for Class C fires; and its composition
Class C; dry chemicals, carbon dioxide, or halon
85
Fire extinguisher used for Class most fires; and its composition
Class ABC; dry chemicals
86
Fire extinguisher used for Class K fires; and its composition
Class K; liquid designed to prevent splashing and cool the fire
87
General precautions to consider in avoiding physical hazards
Avoid running
Watch for wet floors
Proper posture when lifting
Proper grooming
Avoid dangling jewelry
Maintain clean work area
Use closed-toed shoes
88
Fire extinguishing used for Class D fires; and its composition
Sand or dry powder
89
The overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care and is regulated throughout the total testing system
Quality Assessment (QA)
90
Refers to all of the laboratory’s policies, processes, procedures, and resources needed to achieve quality testing
Quality system
91
Quality assessment program that includes testing of controls
Quality Control (QC)
92
It encompasses the examination phases
Quality Control (QC)
93
Three phases of examination
Preexamination
Examination
Postexamination
94
Variables that occur before the actual testing of the specimen
Preexamination variables
95
Examples of preexamination variables
Test requests
Patient preparation
Timing
Specimen collection
Specimen handling
Specimen storage
96
It is defined as the amount of time required from the point at which a test is ordered, until the results are reported
Turnaround time (TAT)
97
All urine specimens should be examined within
2 hours
98
What to do if it is not possible for urine specimen to be examined within 2 hours?
Preserve the specimen
99
Variables that directly affect the testing of specimens
Examination variables
100
Examples of examination variables
Reagents
Instrumentation and equipment
Testing procedure
QC
Preventive maintenance (PM)
Access to procedure manuals
Competency of personnel performing the tests
101
How often do we need to check reagent strips against negative and positive control solutions?
Each shift
Minimum once a day
Whenever a new bottle is opened
102
Reagents should be checked every:
Daily or when tests requiring their use are requested
103
Reagent strips must be refrigerated, and must be recapped immediately after removing each strip. True or false?
False; Reagent strips must never be refrigerated
104
The most frequently encountered instruments in the urinalysis laboratory are
Refractometers
Osmometers
Automated reagent strip readers
Automated microscopy instruments
105
Common equipment found in the urinalysis laboratory
Refrigerators
Centrifuges
Microscopes
Water baths
106
How often do we need to calibrate centrifuges?
Every 3 months
107
How often do we need to disinfect centrifuges?
Weekly
108
How often a microscopes should be professionally cleaned?
Annually
109
Deionized water used for reagent preparation is quality controlled by checking
pH and purity meter resistance on a weekly basis and the bacterial count on a monthly schedule
110
It refers to the materials, procedures, and techniques that monitor the accuracy, precision, and reliability of a laboratory test
Quality control
111
Why is there a need to perform Quality Control procedures?
To ensure that acceptable standards are met during the process of patient testing
112
When do we perform QC procedures?
Beginning of each shift
Before testing patient samples
When reagents are changed
When instrument malfunction
When test results are questioned
113
Patient test results may be reported even if the QC is not verified. True or false?
False; Patient test results may not be reported until the QC is verified
114
It is used to verify the accuracy and precision of a test and are exposed to the same conditions as the patient samples
External quality controls
115
It is the ability to obtain the expected result
Accuracy
116
It is the ability to obtain the same result on the same specimen
Precision
117
It is the ability to maintain both precision and accuracy
Reliability
118
The average of all data points
Control mean
119
A measurement statistic that describes the average distance each data point in a normal distribution is from the mean
Standard deviation (SD)
120
The SD expressed as a percentage of the mean
Coefficient of variation (CV)
121
CV must have a value of
Less than 5%
122
The limits between which the specified proportion or percentage of results will lie
Confidence intervals
123
These are determined by setting confidence limits
Control ranges
124
The gradual changing in the mean in one direction
Trend
125
It is an abrupt change in the mean
Shift
126
How does commercial QC program for laboratories are conducted?
Results from the same lot of QC material sent by the manufacturer to participating laboratories are returned to the manufacturer for statistical analysis and comparison with other laboratories using the same methodology
127
It consists of internal monitoring systems built in to the test system and are called internal or procedural controls
Internal quality control
128
It verifies the functional ability of a testing device, but it does not verify the integrity of the testing supplies
External quality control (EQC)
129
The testing of unknown samples received from an outside agency, and provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results
Proficiency Testing (External Quality Assessment)
130
These are processes that affect the reporting of results and correct interpretation of data
Postexamination variables
131
Procedure that compares a patient’s test results with the previous results
Delta check
132
Important things to do when telephoning test results
Confirm that the results are being reported to the appropriate person
The time of the call and the name of the person receiving the results must be documented according to the facility’s policy
133
The Joint Commission Patient Safety Goals require that when verbally reporting test results
The information must be repeated by the person receiving the information and documented by the person giving the report
134
Common errors during preexamination
Patient misidentification
Wrong test ordered
Incorrect urine specimen type collected Insufficient urine volume
Delayed transport of urine to the laboratory
Incorrect storage or preservation of urine
135
Common errors during examination
Sample misidentification
Erroneous instrument calibration
Reagent deterioration
Poor testing technique
Instrument malfunction
Interfering substances present
Misinterpretation of quality control data
136
Common errors during postexamination
Patient misidentification
Poor handwriting
Transcription error
Poor quality of instrument printer
Failure to send report
Failure to call critical values
Inability to identify interfering substances
