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S9 Flashcards

1
Q

Root canal treated posterior teeth are more prone to fracture than untreated posterior teeth. Endodontically treated teeth are commonly lost due to restorative failure than root canal treatment failure.

a. First statement is true; second statement is false
b. First statement is false; second statement is true
c. Both statements are true

d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

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2
Q

Which of the following has the poorest prognosis when it comes to the location of the perforation?

a. Bifurcation
b. CEJ

c. Apex
d. Crown

A

a. Bifurcation

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3
Q

Tooth most commonly associated with C-shaped orifices

a. Maxillary 1st pm

b. Maxillary 2nd molar
c. Mandibular 1st pm
d. Mandibular 2nd molar

A

d. Mandibular 2nd molar

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4
Q

The final shape and texture of the gingiva is determined ________

a. After the development of the alveolar bone
b. After the eruption of the teeth

c. Before the eruption of the teeth
d. Before the complete development of the alveolar bone

A

b. After the eruption of the teeth

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5
Q

Principal virulence factor of gram (-) microorganisms

a. MMP
b. ELAM
c. LPS

d. LBP

A

c. LPS

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6
Q

Ideal concentration of sodium hypochlorite as irrigating solution during endodontic therapy

a. 5.25%
b. 1:9

c. 8%
d. 12%

A

a. 5.25%

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7
Q

Lymphokines are produced by what cells?

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. PMN
d. Plasma cells

A

b. T cells

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8
Q

Rarefaction means ___________

a. Radiopaque
b. Radiolucent
c. Rare
d. Idiosyncrasy

A

b. Radiolucent

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9
Q

Used for confirmation of furcation involvement when diagnosing periodontitis

a. Williams Probe

b. Naber’s probe
c. Marquis Probe
d. Michigan Probe

A

b. Naber’s probe

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10
Q

A patient has a pocket depth of 4mm. The distance from the free gingival margin to the CEJ is 2mm. What is the CAL?

a. 2mm
b. 4mm
c. 6mm

d. 8mm

A

c. 6mm

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11
Q

A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is _____.

a. Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
b. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy

c. Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
d. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha

A

b. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy

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12
Q

Koch’s postulates refer to all of the following, except:

a. The organism must be regularly associated with the disease
b. The organism must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in the culture
c. The disease must be reproducible using the same microorganism isolated from a diseased host.

d. The infected host, once freed of the organism, will still result to disease progression.

A

d. The infected host, once freed of the organism, will still result to disease progression.

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13
Q

Which of the following is the first colonizer of plaque?

a. Red complex
b. Yellow complex

c. Orange complex
d. Green complex

A

b. Yellow complex

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14
Q

Which is best indicated for endodontic treatment

a. Internal root resorption and external root resorption

b. Non-vital tooth with open apices
c. Developmental anomaly
d. Vertical root fracture

A

b. Non-vital tooth with open apices

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15
Q

The following are TRUE regarding the nature of root canal infections, which is incorrect?

a. Root canal infections are primarily polymicrobial
b. The size of the periradicular radiolucency has a positive correlation with the number of bacteria in the root canal system.

c. The predominant microorganisms found in primary endodontic infection are obligate aerobic organisms.
d. The root canal of a tooth that has a FAILED ROOT CANAL TREATMENT consists primarily of facultative anaerobes.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

A

c. The predominant microorganisms found in primary endodontic infection are obligate aerobic organisms.

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16
Q

Primary reason for adding calcium salts in root canal sealers

a. To increase radiodensity
b. To strengthen the sealer
c. Increase radiolucency of the sealer
d. To increase binding of sealer to gutta percha

A

a. To increase radiodensity

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17
Q

When instrumenting and subsequently obturating a root canal, the length should be determined by the:

a. Anatomic apex
b. Radiographic apex

c. Apical foramen
d. Apical constriction

A

d. Apical constriction

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18
Q

Shape of the access preparation of maxillary central incisors

a. Squarish
b. Triangular

c. Trapezoidal
d. Ovoid

A

b. Triangular

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19
Q

Clinically, the mucogingival junction in the palatal gingiva is __________

a. Not seen
b. Scalloped line

c. Straight line
d. Extends towards the rugae

A

a. Not seen

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20
Q

It is the proper design of the access preparation

a. It must be parallel to the direction of the enamel rods

b. As small as possible to conserve the tooth structure
c. It must be confined to the carious lesion
d. Extended to remove all overhanging tooth structure

A

d. Extended to remove all overhanging tooth structure

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21
Q

It is a contraindication for RCT of monorooted tooth

a. Vertical root fracture with a deep periodontal defect

b. Chronic abscess with a sinus tract
c. Tooth discoloration
d. Apical third horizontal root fracture

A

a. Vertical root fracture with a deep periodontal defect

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22
Q

After a successful RCT, you will only notice in the radiograph the healing of the adjacent periodontal structures after ___________

a. 6 to 12 months
b. 2 to 3 weeks
c. 4 weeks

A

a. 6 to 12 months

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23
Q

The most effective instrument for subgingival scaling and root planing

a. Sickle Scalers

b. File scalers
c. Curettes
d. Hoe scalers
e. Chisel scalers

A

c. Curettes

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24
Q

Moving a small file (such as #10 file) 0.5mm to 1mm pass the apex or known as patency check may result to which of the following?

a. It damages the periodontium causing moderate to severe post-operative pain
b. Enlarges the apical foramen excessively causing obturation material to extrude towards the periapex
c. Introduces bacteria into the periodontium decreasing the prognosis of the root canal treatment
d. Prevents apical transportation and canal blockage during treatment

A

d. Prevents apical transportation and canal blockage during treatment

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25
Q

It refers to the repeated clockwise rotation of the instrument particularly during insertion

a. Filing
b. Reaming
c. Circumferential filing

d. Crown down

A

Correct answer
b. Reaming

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26
Q

You have initiated root canal therapy on a patient when he suddenly experiences sudden pain during working length determination, begins to hemorrhage, and detects a burning sensation when you attempt to irrigate with sodium hypochlorite. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

a. Inadequate straight line access
b. Root canal contamination
c. Root perforation
d. Incomplete canal debridement

e. Ledging

A

Correct answer
c. Root perforation

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27
Q

It refers to the soft tissue extending from the base of the gingival sulcus up to the alveolar crest.

a. Pocket depth

b. Probing depth
c. Biologic width
d. Clinical attachment loss

A

Correct answer
c. Biologic width

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28
Q

A procedure done to remove small bits of debris in the apical region using smaller files

a. Step-back
b. IAF
c. Recapitulation

d. Watch winding

A

c. Recapitulation

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29
Q

Gracey curette used during planing of the distal surfaces of maxillary and mandibular molars.

a. 7 and 8
b. 9 and 10
c. 11 and 12

d. 13 and 14

A

Correct answer
d. 13 and 14

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30
Q

It is the epithelium covering the gingiva which faces the tooth without being in contact with the tooth surface.

a. Oral gingival epithelium
b. Oral sulcular epithelium
c. Junctional epithelium

d. Lamina propria

A

b. Oral sulcular epithelium

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31
Q

Osseous defects are also known as angular defects. Which is the most common type?

a. One-wall defect

b. Two-wall defect
c. Three-wall defect
d. Four-wall defect

A

Correct answer
b. Two-wall defect

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32
Q

Removal of canal wall structure on the outside curve in the apical half of the canal due to the tendency of files to restore themselves to their original linear shape during canal preparation.

a. Perforation
b. Ledge

c. Transportation
d. Zipping

A

Correct answer
c. Transportation

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33
Q

Success rate of pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth is higher than direct pulp capping procedure. This is why pulpotomy is more recommended than direct pulp during mechanical pulpal exposures in primary teeth.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true; the second is false

d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

Correct answer
a. Both statements are true

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34
Q

Cementum to cementum attachment

a. Transseptal

b. Oblique
c. Interradicular
d. Free gingival

A

a. Transseptal

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35
Q

The distance from the CEJ of the tooth down to the base of the sulcus is known as the

a. Probing depth
b. Gingival recession
c. Clinical attachment loss

d. Biologic width

A

c. Clinical attachment loss

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36
Q

All of the following are important parameters in determining the prognosis of a periodontally treated tooth. Which is the most important?

a. Pocket depth
b. Anatomical crown length
c. Attachment loss

d. Bleeding on probing

A

c. Attachment loss

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37
Q

The following are pulpal therapies, which is not associated with apexogenesis of a young permanent tooth?

a. Direct pulp capping
b. Indirect pulp capping

c. Pulpotomy
d. Pulpectomy

A

Correct answer
d. Pulpectomy

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38
Q

It refers to the loss of buccal or lingual bone overlaying the root portion of a tooth, leaving the area covered by soft tissue only.

a. Gingival recession
b. Dehiscence
c. Suprabony pocket
d. Vertical bone loss

A

Correct answer
b. Dehiscence

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39
Q

All of the following may induce or increase the inflammatory reaction of the gingiva, except:

a. Proteases
b. PGN
c. Lysozymes
d. Antihistamines

A

d. Antihistamines

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40
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes internal root resorption?

a. It is usually asymptomatic

b. It is commonly confused with its external counterpart
c. Rare in deciduous
d. Initiated by odontoblast

A

a. It is usually asymptomatic

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41
Q

A patient complaining of toothache, malaise, fever and swelling of buccal gingiva on tooth #16 may have which of the following conditions?

a. Chronic pulpitis
b. Chronic apical abscess
c. Acute apical abscess

d. Hyperemia

A

c. Acute apical abscess

42
Q

When probing, the proper technique used is walking technique. The reason for this is primarily

a. to allow more accurate probing
b. to explore all the whole circumference of the tooth and detect areas of deepest penetration.

c. to reduce damage to the periodontal structures
d. to reduce the pain felt by the patient during probing

A

b. to explore all the whole circumference of the tooth and detect areas of deepest penetration.

43
Q

The most common reason for the failure of free gingival autografts

a. Infection
b. Transudate formation
c. Scar formation
d. Loss of blood supply

A

d. Loss of blood supply

44
Q

A tooth presenting a deep carious lesion with pulpal necrosis and apical abscess with 5mm pocket in the mesial side should have ______________

a. Endodontic treatment only
b. Periodontal treatment only
c. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment
d. Periodontal treatment followed by endodontic treatment
e. Extraction

A

c. Endodontic treatment followed by periodontal treatment

45
Q

The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically treated teeth result from:

a. Traumatic occlusion

b. Locking temporaries into prepared teeth
c. Cementing the cast post and core
d. Permanent cementing crowns
e. Condensation forces during gutta-percha fill

A

Correct answer
e. Condensation forces during gutta-percha fill

46
Q

Fibrotic gingival hyperplasia is induced mainly by

a. Chemical burns
b. Drug activity

c. Bacteria
d. Viruses

A

b. Drug activity

47
Q

Which is a disadvantage of ZOE sealer?

a. It stains
b. Slow setting
c. Highly soluble

d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

Correct answer
d. All of the above

48
Q

Among the following types of perforations, which has the poorest prognosis?

a. Crown perforation at the cervical of tooth
b. Root perforation at the cervical 3rd of the root

c. Root perforation at the mid-root region
d. Root perforation at the apical 3rd of the root

A

b. Root perforation at the cervical 3rd of the root

49
Q

Which is considered as “Moderate” degree of attachment loss

a. <1mm
b. 1 to 2mm

c. 3 to 4mm
d. >5 mm

A

c. 3 to 4mm

50
Q

Angular defects are classified based on the number of walls remaining. A Three-wall defect means that three-walls are missing and has poorer prognosis during treatment.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true; the second is false
d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

c. The first statement is true; the second is false

51
Q

When removing gutta percha using a rotary device, fracture of the tooth or the mechanical instrument less frequently happens when the RPM is around

a. 100 to 250 RPM
b. 350 to 1500 RPM

c. 2000 to 4500 RPM
d. 5000 to 10000 RPM

A

b. 350 to 1500 RPM

52
Q

Which of the following is the best approach when doing extensive scaling and root planing?

a. Several appointments must be done and segment or quadrant of teeth is thoroughly treated per appointment

b. Supragingival scaling and subgingival scaling of the entire mouth is done in one appointment followed by scaling and polishing in another appointment
c. All must be done in one appointment.
d. None of the above

A

a. Several appointments must be done and segment or quadrant of teeth is thoroughly treated per appointment

53
Q

Which of the following accurately happens as plaque is ageing?

a. The number of cocci increase
b. The number of gram-positive microorganisms increase
c. The number of aerobic microorganisms increase
d. The number of gram-negative microorganisms increase

A

d. The number of gram-negative microorganisms increase

54
Q

Patients in their 60s have significantly wider gingiva than patients that are within 40-50 years old. Moreover, patients that are within 40-50 years old have significantly wider gingiva than patients within 20-30 years old.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true; the second is false

d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

Correct answer
a. Both statements are true

55
Q

Which of the following is the best way to differentiate symptomatic apical periodontitis from asymptomatic apical periodontitis?

a. Vitality test, radiographic imaging, clinical symptoms
b. Vitality test and radiographic appearance
c. Clinical symptoms and vitality test

d. No any test can be done to differentiate the two

A

Correct answer
a. Vitality test, radiographic imaging, clinical symptoms

56
Q

Treatment for Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis with lymphadenopathy, fever and malaise

a. Topical antibiotic
b. Anti-inflammatory drugs
c. Analgesics
d. Systemic antibiotics

A

d. Systemic antibiotics

57
Q

A dull pain is often transmitted by what nerve fibers?

a. Myelinated A fibers
b. Unmyelinated A fibers
c. Myelinated C fibers
d. Unmyelinated C fibers

A

d. Unmyelinated C fibers

58
Q

True vitality test of the pulp that detects blood flow towards the pulp

a. Laser Doppler test

b. Pulse oximeter
c. Cold test
d. Electric Pulp Test

A

True vitality test of the pulp that detects blood flow towards the pulp

a. Laser Doppler test

b. Pulse oximeter
c. Cold test
d. Electric Pulp Test

59
Q

With regards to post placement, all of the following are true, except one:

a. A major disadvantage of post/dowels is that it weakens the tooth structure.

b. Pins may add microfractures in dentin
c. We must retain at least 3 mm of gutta-percha during post preparation
d. Parallel posts are more retentive than tapered posts

A

Correct answer
c. We must retain at least 3 mm of gutta-percha during post preparation

60
Q

Which of the following surfaces of the mandibular incisors is most commonly perforated during access preparation?

a. Facial

b. Lingual
c. Mesial
d. Distal

A

a. Facial

61
Q

After obturating a tooth, what happens to the microorganisms left in the confines of the periapical tissues?

a. They will be eliminated by the chemicals used during treatment of the root canal.
b. They will persist and will form a granuloma
c. They will re-enter the root canal and will cause reinfection unless root-end surgery is performed.
d. They will be eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.

A

d. They will be eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.

62
Q

These are the cells found within the pulpal tissue which can differentiate to new odontoblast.

a. Macrophage
b. Fibroblast
c. Polymorphonuclear cells
d. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

A

d. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

63
Q

This is the microorganism commonly found in deep pockets

a. Gram positive aerobes
b. Gram positive anaerobes
c. Gram negative aerobes
d. Gram negative anaerobes

A

d. Gram negative anaerobes

64
Q

Aging of pulp is associated with an increase in which of the following

a. Fibers

b. Cells
c. Odontoblast
d. Vascularity

A

a. Fibers

65
Q

Which of the following is the use of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid?

a. Antibacterial agent
b. Chelating agent

c. Irrigating solution
d. Temporary filling

A

b. Chelating agent

66
Q

Most common cause of localized aggressive periodontitis

a. Actinobacillus

b. Capnocytophaga
c. Prevotella
d. Eikenella

A

a. Actinobacillus

67
Q

Excessive occlusal loading resulting to tooth flexure

a. Abrasion
b. Attrition

c. Erosion
d. Abfraction

A

Correct answer
d. Abfraction

68
Q

A patient went to your clinic complaining of tooth #22 with a draining fistula apical to it. The tooth has a crown, was root canal treated and had undergone apicoectomy 2 years ago. Which of the following is the proper treatment to be done?

a. Do root canal retreatment and re-restore the tooth
b. Do root canal retreatment, apicoectomy and re-restore the tooth
c. Do apicoectomy and retrograde filling

d. Do root canal treatment, apicoectomy, retrograde filling and re-restore the tooth

A

c. Do apicoectomy and retrograde filling

69
Q

This is the other term for pseudopocket

a. Periodontal pocket
b. Gingival pocket
c. Hyperplastic pocket

d. Suprabony pocket

A

b. Gingival pocket

70
Q

Which of the following refers to the specific plaque hypothesis?

a. Only certain plaque is pathogenic, and its pathogenicity depends on the increase of specific microorganisms.

b. Periodontal disease is due primarily to elaboration of noxious products from the entire plaque flora.
c. Controlling plaque formation, will prevent periodontal diseases.
d. All of the above

A

a. Only certain plaque is pathogenic, and its pathogenicity depends on the increase of specific microorganisms.

71
Q

True pockets are commonly seen in which of the following diseases?

a. Advance periodontitis
b. Gingivitis

c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Desquamative gingivitis

A

Correct answer
a. Advance periodontitis

72
Q

The first type of dentin formed during tooth development is the

a. Mantle dentin

b. Circumpulpal dentin
c. Sclerotic dentin
d. Reparative dentin

A

a. Mantle dentin

73
Q

There is a horizontal root fracture in the middle third of the root of tooth #21 in an 11-yearold patient. The tooth is mobile and vital. How should this be treated?

a. Extract
b. Pulpectomy immediately and splint
c. Splint and observe

d. Do nothing and follow-up in 10 to 14 days

A

c. Splint and observe

74
Q

The dentogingival unit refers to which of the following?

a. Gingiva and the bone tissue
b. Oral epithelium and sulcular epithelium
c. Tooth surface and the junctional epithelium

d. Junctional epithelium and gingival fibers

A

Correct answer
d. Junctional epithelium and gingival fibers

75
Q

Gingivectomy is indicated in the following, except:

a. Leukemic gingival enlargement

b. Nifedipine-induced gingival hypertrophy
c. Idiopathic fibromatosis
d. Dilantin-induced gingival hyperplasia

A

a. Leukemic gingival enlargement

76
Q

Gutta percha can be softened or dissolved within the root canal using this material

a. Alcohol
b. Chloroform

c. Eugenol
d. Ethyl chloride

A

b. Chloroform

77
Q

All of the following are indications for surgical endodontics, except one

a. Non-negotiable canal with periapical pathology
b. Periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown
c. Sinus tract that persists after repeated endodontic treatment

d. A completely sealed root canal

A

d. A completely sealed root canal

78
Q

Intrabony pockets are pockets located below the alveolar crest. They are associated with horizontal bone less.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true; the second is false

d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

c. The first statement is true; the second is false

79
Q

It is possible to sterilize the root canal cavity and periapices during root canal treatment. If there are bacterial left after obturation, it is the duty of the natural defenses of the body to eliminate these microorganisms.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true; the second is false
d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

d. The first statement is false; the second is true

80
Q

Secondary incision of modified Widman flap

a. Internal bevel incision
b. Crevicular incision
c. Interdental incision

A

b. Crevicular incision

81
Q

When doing retrograde filling after an apicoectomy procedure, depth of preparation should be around how many millimeters ?

a. 3mm

b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 6mm

A

a. 3mm

82
Q

The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as which of the following?

a. Cementicles

b. Bone
c. Denticles
d. Enamel pearls
e. Mineralized interstitial tissue

A

a. Cementicles

83
Q

The agent used for walking bleach technique is __________

a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. Sodium perborate

d. Sodium hydroxide

A

c. Sodium perborate

84
Q

These are common microorganisms found in a primary root canal infection

a. Porphyromonas, bacteroides and actinomyces

b. Eikenella, actinobacillus and capnocytophaga
c. Treponema, tannerella, porphyromonas
d. Fusobacterium, prevotella, campylobacter

A

a. Porphyromonas, bacteroides and actinomyces

85
Q

Which of the following best describes a #40 04 K-file?

a. The diameter of the tip is 0.04mm and the diameter nearest to the shank is 0.4mm
b. The diameter at the tip is 0.4mm and it tapers at 0.04mm per mm length of the file

c. The color of the file is black and has a tip of 0.04mm
d. The color of the file is green and has a tip of 0.04mm

A

b. The diameter at the tip is 0.4mm and it tapers at 0.04mm per mm length of the file

86
Q

This is the best way to eliminate microorganisms in the root canal cavity

a. Antibiotic therapy
b. Biomechanical preparation and copious irrigation
c. Placing Calcium Hydroxide medicament
d. Action of the immune system of the patient

A

b. Biomechanical preparation and copious irrigation

87
Q

Normal probing depth is

a. <1-3mm

b. 2-4mm
c. 3-5mm
d. >5mm

A

a. <1-3mm

88
Q

A patient came in your clinic complaining of pain in tooth #35. When thermal test is done, it causes lingering pain which lasts for about 2 minutes. It is positive to percussion. Diagnosis is?

a. Irreversible pulpitis
b. Necrotic pulp with acute apical periodontitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis with acute apical periodontitis

d. Necrotic pulp with chronic apical periodontitis

A

c. Irreversible pulpitis with acute apical periodontitis

89
Q

The two most common locations for supragingival calculus are buccal surface of maxillary molars and lingual surface of mandibular molars. This is because salivary gland ducts exit in these two regions of the oral cavity.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false

c. The first statement is true; the second is false
d. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

b. Both statements are false

90
Q

In a healthy gingival tissue, which bacteria is predominant?

a. A. actinomycetemcomitans and B. forsythus
b. Streptococcus species and actinomyces species

c. Treponema and Capnocytophaga
d. P. intermedia and P. gingivalis

A

b. Streptococcus species and actinomyces species

91
Q

Overhanging restorations may be associated with chronic periodontal disease because

a. It is a plaque retaining area

b. It is a mechanical irritant
c. It is over contoured
d. It is a non-deflecting material

A

a. It is a plaque retaining area

92
Q

This is the modified H-file

a. K-files
b. Reamers

c. S-files
d. C+ files

A

c. S-files

93
Q

When a tooth is candidate for a root canal treatment, definitive diagnosis is done _________

a. Before the start of endodontic therapy
b. After vitality testing and percussion

c. After access preparation
d. Any of the above

A

Correct answer
c. After access preparation

94
Q

Smoking is a well-known risk factor for chronic periodontitis. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the risk for chronic periodontitis for patients who quit smoking?

a. The risk for future periodontal disease immediately following smoking cessation is comparable to never smokers.
b. The risk lowers continuously, and 11 years after smoking cessation the risk is comparable to a never-smoker.

c. The risk for periodontal disease does not change after smoking cessation
d. All of the statements are wrong

A

b. The risk lowers continuously, and 11 years after smoking cessation the risk is comparable to a never-smoker.

95
Q

Erosion of the epithelium involving the underlying connective tissue

a. Ulcer
b. Erosion

c. Necrosis
d. Gingivitis
Correct answer
a. Ulcer

A

a. Ulcer

96
Q

The following are the divisions of the Oral mucosa except one. Which is the exception?

a. Masticatory mucosa
b. Specialized mucosa
c. Lining mucosa
d. Lingual mucosa

A

d. Lingual mucosa

97
Q

Which is not used as an irrigating solution during root canal treatment?

a. Urea peroxide

b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Sodium Hypochlorite
d. Hydrogen Peroxide

A

b. Calcium hydroxide

98
Q

Which of the following is the most difficult to diagnose

a. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
b. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis

c. Acute apical abscess
d. Phoenix abscess

A

b. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis

99
Q

What is the primary use of gates-glidden drills?

a. Used to create a glide path towards the apical foramen
b. Enlarge canal orifices

c. To localize orifices before access preparation
d. to enlarge the coronal 2/3 of the root canal

A

b. Enlarge canal orifices

100
Q

Replacement resorption associated with dentoalveolar ankyloses shows

a. Thickening of lamina dura

b. Infraoccluded
c. Metallic sound upon percussion
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

,.MBD (9 decks)

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