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S6 Flashcards

1
Q

How can epinephrine antagonize the lethal effects of anaphylaxis?

a. Competitively blocks histamine at the receptor
b. Produces physiologic effects opposite to histamine
c. It acts on the CNS
d. It prevents the release of histamine

A

b. Produces physiologic effects opposite to histamine

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2
Q

In a 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine in a 1.8ml, which of the following is true?

a. It contains 20mg of lidocaine
b. It contains 36 mg of epinephrine
c. It contains 18mg of epinephrine
d. It contains 36 mg of lidocaine

A

d. It contains 36 mg of lidocaine

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3
Q

Morphine triad except

a. Miosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Respiratory depression
d. Coma

A

b. Mydriasis

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4
Q

The antibiotic that is known to have anti-collagenoytic effect

a. Tetracycline
b. Macrolides
c. Lincosamides
d. Penicillin

A

a. Tetracycline

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5
Q

A drug that induces gingival hyperplasia

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Diphenylhydantoin
c. Penicillins
d. NSAIDs

A

b. Diphenylhydantoin

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6
Q

Adrenergic neuron blocking drugs (guanethidine or reserpine) are commonly used in which of the following situations?

a. Tachycardia
b. Primary hypertension
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Cholinergic crisis

A

b. Primary hypertension

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7
Q

It is considered as the safest type of local anesthesia

a. Lidocaine
b. Articaine
c. Procaine
d. Mepivacaine

A

a. Lidocaine

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8
Q

It is the generation of cephalosporin that primarily affects gram-positive bacteria

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

A

a. 1st

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9
Q

Sedative-hypnotics are drugs used to

a. Stimulate nervous system activity
b. Reduce nervous system activity
c. Treat patients with depression
d. Reduce function

A

b. Reduce nervous system activity

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10
Q

Therapeutic index is computed by

a. Dividing the medial lethal dose of the drug (in animals) to the median effective dose of the drug (in animals).
b. Dividing the median effective dose of the drug (in animals) to the median lethal dose of the drug (in animals).
c. Dividing the medial lethal dose of the drug (in humans) to the median effective dose of the drug (in humans).
d. Dividing the median effective dose of the drug (in humans) to the median lethal dose of the drug (in humans).

A

a. Dividing the medial lethal dose of the drug (in animals) to the median effective dose of the drug (in animals).

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11
Q

All of the following are the primary reasons why vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetic agents except one. Which is the exception?

a. Reduces bleeding
b. Makes anesthesia less toxic
c. Increases the duration of action
d. Increases rate of absorption

A

d. Increases rate of absorption

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12
Q

It is the most serious blood disorder (blood dyscrasia) associated with drug toxicity.

a. Aplastic anemia
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Megaloblastic anemia
d. Thrombocytopenina

A

a. Aplastic anemia

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13
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillin

a. Piperacillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Methicillin
d. Penicillin G

A

c. Methicillin

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14
Q

Contraindicated for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

a. Nitrous oxide
b. Epinephrine
c. Diazepam
d. Terbutaline

A

a. Nitrous oxide

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15
Q

Ultra-short acting barbiturates are commonly used for induction of general anesthesia because it rapidly skips _________ of Guedel’s stages of General anesthesia.

a. 3rd stage
b. 2nd stage
c. 2nd and 3rd stages
d. 4th stage

A

b. 2nd stage

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16
Q

Instruction to the pharmacist

a. Subscription
b. Inscription
c. Superscription
d. Signa

A

a. Subscription

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17
Q

Strychnine is a highly poisonous drug in humans. Which of the following is not true regarding strychnine?

a. It is a neurotoxin and a stimulant drug causing stimulation of the motor neurons possibly leading to opisthotonos
b. It is a common drug used as a pesticide
c. Most animals are susceptible and dogs are the most frequently poisoned
d. It produces chronic type of toxicity to animals and humans

A

d. It produces chronic type of toxicity to animals and humans

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18
Q

Treatment for myasthenia gravis includes

a. Anticholinesterase
b. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
c. Cholinergic
d. Diazepam

A

a. Anticholinesterase

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19
Q

The most common emergency seen after giving local anesthesia is _______

a. Anesthetic toxicity
b. Trismus
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Syncope

A

d. Syncope

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20
Q

Nominal outer diameter (in inches) of gauge 25 needle

a. 0.02225
b. 0.02025
c. 0.01825
d. 0.01625

A

b. 0.02025

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21
Q

Which of the following is a component of Bactrim

a. Sulfonylurea
b. Quinolone
c. Sulfonamide
d. Methotrexate

A

c. Sulfonamide

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22
Q

Mandibular blocking technique that is used for patients with limited mouth opening

a. True mandibular blocking
b. Closed mouth mandibular blocking
c. Classic mandibular block
d. Gow-gates

A

b. Closed mouth mandibular blocking

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23
Q

Most common type of syringe for administration of intraoral local anesthetics

a. Plastic cartridge-type aspirating syringe
b. Metallic cartridge-type Self-aspirating syringe
c. Metallic cartridge-type aspirating syringe
d. Disposable aspirating syringe

A

c. Metallic cartridge-type aspirating syringe

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24
Q

Patients having allergic reactions to amide-type local anesthetics are most likely due to which of the following ________

a. Lidocaine
b. Epinephrine
c. Methylparaben
d. Needle

A

c. Methylparaben

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25
Q

Administering a local anesthesia when it is warm (42 C) can reduce the pain during administration. Painful administration may also be reduced by cold compress before insertion of the needle.

a. The first statement is true, the second is false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

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26
Q

Drugs that are commonly observed to produce gingival hyperplasia are the following except ______

a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Phenytoin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Tobramycin

A

d. Tobramycin

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27
Q

Which of the following side effects is seen most frequently with administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen?

a. Nausea
b. Hand tremors
c. Tachycardia
d. Respiratory depression

A

a. Nausea

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28
Q

A drug that may be used to dry secretions in the oral cavity

a. Diazepam
b. Propantheline
c. Promethazine
d. Physostigmine

A

b. Propantheline

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29
Q

All are byproducts of the cyclooxygenase pathway except one. Which is it?

a. Prostaglandins
b. Prostacycline
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Leukotrienes

A

d. Leukotrienes

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30
Q

Refers to a condition in which a patient has decrease response to a drug that he/she is chronically taking

a. Tolerance
b. Dependence
c. Cross-dependence
d. Tachyphylaxis

A

a. Tolerance

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31
Q

The most common cause of bacterial resistance

a. Taking antibiotics when not needed
b. Excessive dose of antibiotics
c. Inadequate dose of antibiotics
d. Taking antibiotics frequently

A

a. Taking antibiotics when not needed

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32
Q

A pediatric dosage formula that uses weight in lbs

a. Clarks
b. Bakers
c. Youngs
d. Ivan

A

a. Clarks

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33
Q

Cefuroxime and Cefaclor are classified as _______ generation of cephalosporins

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

A

b. 2nd

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34
Q

Indication of minoxidil?

a. It dilates the vessels, which is commonly used for hypertensive patients
b. Indicated for patients with alopecia
c. it is commonly used for patients with COPD
d. Used as a sedative drug

A

b. Indicated for patients with alopecia

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35
Q

Crude touch, pain and temperature is processed in what part of the brain?

a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Cerebral Cortex
d. Medulla

A

c. Cerebral Cortex

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36
Q

Recommended maximum amount of epinephrine for patients with cardiovascular problems

a. 4 μg
b. 40 mg
c. 0.4 mg
d. 40 μg

A

d. 40 μg

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37
Q

Which of the following is the primary use of Phenothiazine

a. Muscle relaxant
b. For psychosis
c. Analgesic
d. Hypnotic agent

A

b. For psychosis

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38
Q

Buffering the local anesthesia with _____ can minimize the typical burning sensation during administration of the local anesthesia

a. NaCl
b. H202
c. H20
d. NaHCO3

A

d. NaHCO3

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39
Q

All of the following are under the family of aminoglycosides except ______

a. Streptomycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Neomycin
d. Erythromycin

A

d. Erythromycin

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40
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of nitrous oxide toxicity?

a. Myeloneuropathy
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Pneumococcal infection

A

a. Myeloneuropathy

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41
Q

In removing maxillary torus palatinus, which of the following nerve block should be done?

a. Incisive nerve block
b. Incisive and PSAN block
c. Incisive and Greater palatine nerve block
d. Greater palatine and PSAN block

A

c. Incisive and Greater palatine nerve block

42
Q

Cefuroxime, which is a cephalosporin, is included in what generation?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

A

b. Second

43
Q

It is the oldest NSAID and is one of the most commonly used

a. Ibuprofen
b. Acetaminophen
c. Aspirin
d. Mefenamic acid

A

c. Aspirin

44
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to treat varicella zoster infection?

a. Paracetamol
b. Penicillins
c. Prednisone
d. Acyclovir

A

d. Acyclovir

45
Q

Which local anesthetic has an intrinsic vasoconstrictive property?

a. Procaine
b. Xylocaine
c. Cocaine
d. Bupivacaine

A

c. Cocaine

46
Q

This is the mechanism of action of H1 blockers

a. Inhibition of MAO enzyme
b. Antagonistic action to the receptor
c. Inhibits release of histamine from Mast cells
d. Binds to histamine molecule

A

b. Antagonistic action to the receptor

47
Q

It is the time required for a quantity to reduce to half of its initial value.

a. Halftime
b. Halflife
c. Therapeutic index
d. Clearance rate

A

b. Halflife

48
Q

Which of the following is a drug used for amoebiasis?

a. Penicillin G
b. Erythromycin
c. Cefaclor
d. Metronidazole

A

d. Metronidazole

49
Q

Cimetidine is used for which of the following?

a. Insomnia
b. Asthma
c. Hyperacidity
d. Common cold

A

c. Hyperacidity

50
Q

Diacetylmorphine is also known as?

a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Acetaminorphine
d. Heroin

A

d. Heroin

51
Q

Most accepted way of treating patients with trismus and elevated body temperature from acute pericoronitis of an impacted 3rd molar

a. Irrigation
b. Antibiotics
c. Palliative tx
d. Extraction

A

b. Antibiotics

52
Q
A
53
Q

Which drug may decrease the effectiveness of clindamycin?

a. Metronidazole
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Co-trimoxazole
d. Macrolides

A

d. Macrolides

54
Q

Simvastatin is classified as what kind of drug

a. Antifungal drug
b. Antimigraine drug
c. Antilipid drug
d. Calcium-Channel blocker

A

c. Antilipid drug

55
Q

It is an antifibrinolytic agent used for patients with coagulopathies.

a. Aminocaproic acid
b. Valproic acid
c. Acetylsalicylic acid
d. Streptokinetic acid

A

a. Aminocaproic acid

56
Q

Oral hypoglycemic drugs are used for patients with DM II. Examples of these are sulfonylureas, metformin, rosiglitazone and replaglinide.

a. The first statement is true, the second is false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

57
Q

Prior to cementing orthodontic molar bands. One may use this drug to reduce salivation. Which is it?

a. Chloral hydrate
b. Pilocarpine
c. Atropine
d. Pyridostigmine

A

c. Atropine

58
Q

A drug that exhibits affinity but do not have intrinsic activity at the receptor.

a. Agonist
b. Partial agonist
c. Antagonist
d. None of the above

A

c. Antagonist

59
Q

Generics Act of 1988

a. RA 5667
b. RA 6675
c. RA 6557
d. RA 6765

A

b. RA 6675

60
Q

All of the following are branches of the posterior division of V3 except one. Which one is the exception?

a. IAN
b. Mylohyoid
c. Lingual
d. Long buccal

A

d. Long buccal

61
Q

Metformin is used for patients with what medical condition?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hypertension
c. End-stage renal disease
d. Malignant tumors

A

a. Diabetes mellitus

62
Q

Drugs that are known to possess cross-allergenicity to penicillins

a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. Cephalosporins
d. Clindamycin

A

c. Cephalosporins

63
Q

It is not an effect of cholinergic drugs

a. Slows down heart rate
b. Dilation of blood vessels
c. Decreases body secretion
d. Contraction of smooth muscle cells

A

c. Decreases body secretion

64
Q

After administration of 4 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine in a 1.8ml. The patient receives how many mg of epinephrine?

a. 0.036mg
b. 0.072mg
c. 144mg
d. None of the above

A

b. 0.072mg

65
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of prilocaine

a. Porphyrism
b. GI irritation
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. Renal toxicity

A

c. Methemoglobinemia

66
Q

Amphetamines is classified as what kind of drug?

a. Depressants
b. NSAIDs
c. Narcotics
d. Analeptics

A

d. Analeptics

67
Q

A special kind of penicillin that is used to treat penicillin-resistant staphylococcus

a. Piperacillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Methicillin
d. Penicillin G

A

c. Methicillin

68
Q

1st sensation lost after administration of local anesthesia

a. Cold sensation
b. Pressure
c. Pain
d. Skeletal muscle tone

A

c. Pain

69
Q

Cardiac glycosides (digitalis, digoxin) are drugs that increases the force of contraction and rate of contraction of the cardiac myocytes (myocardium). This happens because the drug reduces the intracellular calcium of the cells.

a. The first statement is true, the second is false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

a. The first statement is true, the second is false

70
Q

A long-acting amide LA that is commonly used for patients with Tic Douloureux

a. Lidocaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Xylocaine
d. Prilocaine

A

b. Bupivacaine

71
Q

How many milligrams of epinephrine are in a 1.8cc of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?

a. 3.6 mg
b. 0.18mg
c. 0.018mg
d. 0.36mg

A

c. 0.018mg

72
Q

Among the following side effects, which is the least commonly observed with narcotic agents?

a. Vomiting
b. Diarrhea
c. Nausea
d. Bronchospasm

A

b. Diarrhea

73
Q

If a patient takes a drug that increases the activity of the sympathetic nervous system, which of the following will happen?

a. Decrease GI motility
b. Bradycardia
c. Increase salivary secretion
d. Pupillary constriction

A

a. Decrease GI motility

74
Q

Treatment for motion sickness

a. Paracetamol
b. Narcotics
c. Bonamine
d. Diazepam

A

c. Bonamine

75
Q

Branched of pharmacology concerned with the movement of the drugs in the body

a. Pharmacology
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmocokinetics
d. Pharmaconatics

A

c. Pharmocokinetics

76
Q

Which is not a manifestation of cholinergic overdose?

a. Miosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Urination
d. Sweating

A

b. Mydriasis

77
Q

Ketoconazole can be used as treatment for oropharyngeal ___________?

a. Candidiasis
b. Abscess
c. Carcinoma
d. None of the above

A

a. Candidiasis

78
Q

A local anesthesia that is 4x more potent than lidocaine and mepivacaine, and also has a longer duration of action.

a. Procaine
b. Prilocaine
c. Articaine
d. Bupivacaine

A

d. Bupivacaine

79
Q

It is the only local anesthetic that increases the pressor activity of both norepinephrine and epinephrine

a. Lidocaine
b. Procaine
c. Dibucaine
d. Cocaine

A

d. Cocaine

80
Q

Which of the following is an anxiolytic or sedative drug?

a. Celestamine
b. Flanax
c. Seconal
d. Ethamizid

A

c. Seconal

81
Q

The following are members of the Xanthine family, except:

a. Theophylline
b. Theobromine
c. Amphetamine
d. Coffee

A

c. Amphetamine

82
Q

Which of the following is used to treat dyspepsia?

a. Omeprazole
b. Loperamide
c. Corticosteroids
d. Atropine

A

a. Omeprazole

83
Q

This drug is banned due to methemoglobinemia side effect.

a. Heroin
b. Phenacetin
c. Cocaine
d. Molly

A

b. Phenacetin

84
Q

It is a type of pain present due to dysfunction of the peripheral or the central nervous system, even there is absence of nociceptor stimulus.

a. Neurogenic
b. Psychogenic
c. Vascular
d. Referred

A

a. Neurogenic

85
Q

This is the most accurate site to measure the temperature of a patient

a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Forehead
d. Axillary

A

b. Rectal

86
Q

Penicillin G and Penicillin VK are both classified as natural penicillin. The advantage of penicillin VK over penicillin G is that it is easily absorbed in the oral route.

a. The first statement is true, the second is false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

87
Q

Clinical uses of adrenergic drugs are the following. Except ____

a. Anti-emetic
b. Nasal decongestant
c. Anti-hypertensive
d. Anti-hypotensive

A

a. Anti-emetic

88
Q

All are true regarding clotrimazole except one. Which is the exception?

a. Clotrimazole is an antifungal drug.
b. It inhibits ergosterol resulting to alteration of the permeability of the cell membranes of fungi.
c. It has various forms like topical, ointment, powder, oral and vaginal suppository.
d. Before applying the ointment, it is important not to wash the contaminated area.

A

d. Before applying the ointment, it is important not to wash the contaminated area.

89
Q

Patients known to have cardiovascular diseases should be given limited numbers of epinephrine-containing local anesthesia. Which of the following is the maximum dose of local anesthesia for this type of patient?

a. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
b. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 epinephrine
c. 2 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 of epinephrine
d. 2 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:200,000 of epinephrine

A

b. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 epinephrine

90
Q

Bacteriostatic mechanism of sulfonamides is due to ________

a. Antagonistic action with PABA
b. Cell membrane disintegration
c. Cell wall synthesis inhibition
d. Protein coagulation

A

a. Antagonistic action with PABA

91
Q

The following are common uses of acetylsalicylic acid, except:

a. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory
b. Antipyretic
c. antiplatelet
d. Given shortly after a heart attack

A

d. Given shortly after a heart attack

92
Q

Nominal outer diameter (in mm) of gauge 25 needle

a. 0.565
b. 0.514
c. 0.464
d. 0.413

A

b. 0.514

93
Q

Lidocaine with a pKa of 7.8 will exist in _________ if it is placed in a pH of 7.8

a. More ionized form
b. More non-ionized form
c. Equal mixtures of ionized and unionized form
d. Cannot be determined

A

c. Equal mixtures of ionized and unionized form

94
Q

Which of the following drugs suppresses the antiplatelet activity of aspirin?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Acetaminophen
c. Additional aspirin dose
d. Amoxicillin

A

a. Ibuprofen

95
Q

It is the type of blocking technique where the anesthetic solution is injected around the border of the surgical field.

a. Field block
b. Regional anesthesia
c. Local infiltration
d. General anesthesia

A

a. Field block

96
Q

Maximum number of cartridge (2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine) that can be given for patients with cardiovascular disease

a. Do not attempt to give
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

c. 2

97
Q

Which of the following conditions is treated by Methylphenidate (Ritalin)?

a. Tourettes syndrome
b. ADHD
c. Hypertension
d. Insomnia

A

b. ADHD

98
Q

Maximum number of dose (mg/kg) for 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 of epinephrine

a. 3mg/kg
b. 5mg/kg
c. 7mg/kg
d. 9mg/kg

A

c. 7mg/kg

99
Q

The most commonly used vasoconstrictor is

a. Norepinephrine
b. Adrenalin
c. Levonordefrin
d. Phenylephrine

A

b. Adrenalin

100
Q

The mechanism of action of local anesthesia

a. Increase potassium influx
b. Increase permeability to sodium
c. Increase membrane excitability
d. Decrease permeability to sodium

A

d. Decrease permeability to sodium

101
Q

The initial sign of acute fluoride toxicity is

a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Osteosclerosis
c. Respiratory paralysis
d. Cardiac failure

A

a. Nausea and vomiting

,.MBD (9 decks)

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