Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

,.MBD > S2 > Flashcards

S2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is unpaired during development?
a. Lateral lingual swellings
b. Tuberculum impar
c. Arytenoid swellings
d. Palatine tonsils

A

b. Tuberculum impar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Normal value of hemoglobin A1c (hba1c)
a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 7%
d. 8%

A

a. 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A condition associated with pinkish patches of skin that is insensitive to temperature and pain, due to irreversible nerve damage
a. Guillain-barre syndrome
b. Hansen’s disease
c. Leptospirosis
d. Neurofibromatosis I

A

b. Hansen’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit again and again into the skin. 2 or 3 weeks later, necrotizing reaction occurs at the site of the second injection. This is known as
a. Prausnitz-Kustner reaction
b. Serum sickness
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Arthus phenomenon

A

d. Arthus phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Miniature benign odontogenic tumor
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Compound odontoma
c. Cherubism
d. Hypodontoma

A

b. Compound odontoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Atelectasis means
a. Dilation of alveoli
b. Collapsed alveoli
c. Dilation of bronchi
d. Collapsed bronchi

A

b. Collapsed alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lymphangioma is most closely related to
a. Hemangioma
b. Angiosarcoma
c. Cystic hygroma
d. Hemangiopericytoma

A

c. Cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This is the main class of serum antibodies found in birds, amphibians and reptiles
a. IgG
b. IgY
c. IgA
d. IgM

A

b. IgY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It is the most common malignant tumor of childhood and infancy
a. Neuroblastomas
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Osteoid Osteoma

A

a. Neuroblastomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A type of infection due to a fungus
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Epidemic typhus
c. Plasmodium
d. Mycobacterium

A

a. Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The 2003 SARS or severe acute respiratory syndrome which became an epidemic is due to what virus?
a. MERs-CoV
b. Coronavirus
c. Ebola virus
d. H1N1

A

b. Coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aflatoxins are naturally occurring fungal toxins that are commonly found in all of the following, except:
a. Penicillins
b. Aspergillus
c. Dairy products
d. Nuts

A

a. Penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Organisms reproducing mainly by spore formation, which elaborate no endotoxin and grow on Sabouraud’s media, are
a. Fungi
b. Rickettsia
c. Bacteria
d. Spirochetes
e. Mycoplasma

A

a. Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An immune system disorder characterized by erythematous rashes on the malar process and the bridge of the nose
a. Discoid lupus
b. Systemic lupus
c. Erythema multiforme
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

b. Systemic lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is a benign tumor of the minor salivary gland that is almost exclusively seen in the oral cavity. Histologically, it presents a bilayered appearing strands and cords of epithelial cells.
a. Canalicular adenoma
b. Oncocytoma
c. Basal cell adenoma
d. Myoepithelioma

A

a. Canalicular adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In sickle cell anemia, the globin portion of the molecule is abnormal due to the amino acid valine being substituted for which of the following amino acids?
a. Glutamine
b. Glutamic acid
c. Aspartic acid
d. Glycine

A

b. Glutamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It is a small molecule that can react with antibodies but are not immunogenic
a. Antigens
b. Antiserum
c. Hapten
d. Epitope

A

c. Hapten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A cellular accessory not commonly found in prokaryotes

a. Pili
b. Fimbriae
c. Microvilli
d. Flagella

A

c. Microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diagnostic test for syphilis
a. PCR test
b. FTA-ABS test
c. Sequencing test
d. All of the above

A

b. FTA-ABS test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:
a. An exotoxin
b. An endotoxin
c. Ribonuclease
d. A capsular antigen
e. A flagellar antigen

A

b. An endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The _____ differentiates into ameloblasts.
a. Stellate reticulum
b. Inner enamel epithelium in the cap stage
c. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage
d. Outer enamel epithelium in the cap stage
e. Outer enamel epithelium in the bell stage

A

c. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The neural tube starts to form around how many days after fertilization?
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 35 days
d. 55 days

A

b. 20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

All are characteristics of fungus except one. Which is it?
a. Dimorphic
b. Prokaryotic
c. Septated
d. Sporulate

A

b. Prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Inadequate immobilization of fractured bone will lead to
a. Pseudoarthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Non-union
d. Ankylosis

A

c. Non-union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

On microscopic examination of an aspirated fluid of an abscess reveals that it is composed of necrotic debris and numerous dead neutrophils. It is indicative of
a. Suppurative inflammation
b. Ulcer
c. Fibrinoid inflammation
d. Serous inflammation

A

a. Suppurative inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Parkinson’s diseases

A

a. Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following prevents cracking of enamel during mastication?
a. Hunter-Schreger
b. Enamel spindle
c. Enamel rods
d. Mamelons

A

a. Hunter-Schreger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

All of the following are characteristics of chronic inflammation, except:
a. Presence of granuloma
b. The tissue attempts to heal itself
c. There is tissue destruction
d. PMN cells are predominant

A

d. PMN cells are predominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HAART means?

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When a thrombotic embolus originates in a femoral vein, it usually becomes arrested in the
a. Right part of the heart
b. Renal circulation
c. Portal circulation
d. Hepatic circulation
e. Pulmonary circulation

A

e. Pulmonary circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bacteria uses this enzyme to convert plasminogen to plasmin
a. Coagulase
b. Streptokinase
c. Protein A
d. M Protein

A

b. Streptokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The following are mesenchymal in origin, except:
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Chondroma
c. Polyps
d. Liposarcoma

A

c. Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Paralysis of the tongue is called
a. Glossoplegia
b. Dysgrassia
c. Glossoptosis
d. Pyroglossia

A

a. Glossoplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(+) Heterophil Antibody Test
a. Epstein barr virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Herpes Simplex Virus
d. Varicella Zoster Virus

A

a. Epstein barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

This is the remnant of the umbilical vein
a. Ligamentum venosum
b. Ligamentum umbilicum
c. Ligamentum arteriosus
d. Ligamentum teres

A

d. Ligamentum teres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A patient with scarlet fever (commonly due to s.pyogenes) must be treated with antibiotics in order to prevent what complication?
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Pharyngeal edema
c. Raspberry tongue
d. Congestive heart failure

A

a. Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Oral mucosal ulcerations caused by cancer therapeutic drugs is usually due to:
a. Leukocytosis
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Neutropenia

A

d. Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Esophageal bleeding is commonly associated in which of the following diseases?
a. Waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome
b. Mallory-weiss syndrome
c. Kimmelstiel-wilson syndrome
d. Sturge-weber syndrome

A

b. Mallory-weiss syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A type of bacterial infection that is associated with lysogenic virus that may be responsible for toxin production
a. Syphilis
b. Diphtheria
c. Gonorrhea
d. Candidiasis

A

b. Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Koplik’s spots on the buccal mucosa are pathognomonic for ______
a. Rubeola
b. Rubella
c. Roseola infantum
d. Varicella

A

a. Rubeola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

It is the most common type of leukemia present in children.
a. Chronic myelogenous
b. Chronic lymphocytic
c. Acute myelogenous
d. Acute lymphocytic

A

d. Acute lymphocytic

42
Q

During bud stage, the main process involved is proliferation. During bell stage the main processes involved are histodifferentiation and morphodifferentiation.

a. The first statement is true. The second statement is false
b. The first statement is false. The second statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

43
Q

Which of the following is not associated with latent infections?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Varicella zoster
c. Herpes simplex virus type 1
d. Poliovirus

A

d. Poliovirus

44
Q

Anorexia affects what organ?
a. Kidney
b. Brain
c. Heart
d. Liver

A

b. Brain

45
Q

Night blindness is an early sign of
a. Retinol deficiency
b. Glaucoma
c. Astigmatism
d. Amblyopia

A

a. Retinol deficiency

46
Q

All of the following are types of hepatitis. Which of the following is usually obtained from food and water?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

A

a. Hepatitis A

47
Q

This is the virus that causes hand-foot-mouth disease
a. Herpesviridae
b. Coxsackie virus
c. Chicken pox virus
d. Rubeola

A

b. Coxsackie virus

48
Q

Which of the following is true about the enamel prisms or enamel rods?
a. Tomes’ fibers dictate the shape of the enamel rod
b. Enamel rods are not bound by interprismatic substance.
c. They are oriented perpendicular to the external surface
d. Each enamel rod is formed by multiple ameloblasts.

A

c. They are oriented perpendicular to the external surface

49
Q

Megaloblastic anemia
a. Normochromic and macrocytic
b. Hypochromic and microcytic
c. Hyperchromic and macrocytic
d. Normocytic and normochromic

A

a. Normochromic and macrocytic

50
Q

The chemical constituents of bacteria and viruses which are most sensitive to ultraviolet radiation are _____
a. Nucleic acids
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Carbohydrates

A

a. Nucleic acids

51
Q

A neoplasm composed of either blood vessels or lymph vessels is known as _____
a. Hematoma
b. Lymphosarcoma
c. Angioma
d. Blue nevus

A

c. Angioma

52
Q

A patient who has had an embolus to the middle cerebral artery will most commonly result to which of the following types of necrosis?
a. Gangrenous
b. Liquefaction
c. Coagulation
d. Caseous

A

b. Liquefaction

53
Q

An embryonic structure which serves as a precursor of the mouth and the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
a. Oropharyngeal membrane
b. Stomatodeum
c. Frontal prominence
d. Ectoneural pouch

A

b. Stomatodeum

54
Q

Among cancers of the following organs, which has the highest chance to metastasize to bone?
a. Brain cancers
b. Adrenal gland cancers
c. Tongue and palate cancers
d. Prostate and breast cancers

A

d. Prostate and breast cancers

55
Q

A disease with a low incidence of infection which is constantly present in a given community is
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Epizootic

A

a. Endemic

56
Q

Oat cell carcinoma is most commonly seen in what organ?
a. Brain
b. Bone
c. Lungs
d. Skin

A

c. Lungs

57
Q

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following?
a. Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
b. Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
c. Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
d. Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
e. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

A

e. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

58
Q

Hyphae are filaments made up of fungi cells. The 3 types of Hyphae are Septate, Aseptate and Pseudohyphae
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

A

c. Both statements are true

59
Q

Sublingual gland is a gland that is anatomically located between the
a. Genioglossus muscle and medial surface of the mandible
b. Hyoglossus muscle and palatoglossus muscle
c. Hyoglossus muscle and geniohyoid muscle
d. Geniohyoid muscle and genioglossus muscle

A

a. Genioglossus muscle and medial surface of the mandible

60
Q

Sutton’s disease is associated with which of the following?
a. Herpes labialis
b. Recurrent apthous stomatitis
c. Chancre sores
d. Chicken pox

A

b. Recurrent apthous stomatitis

61
Q

A type of malignancy common in the female genital tract where the cells present a distinct cell membrane, clear cytoplasm and round uniform nuclei.

a. Oat cell carcinoma
b. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
c. Clear cell carcinoma
d. Cervical cancer

A

c. Clear cell carcinoma

62
Q

The most common cause of secondary hypertension is
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Kidney disease
d. Hyperparathyroidism

A

c. Kidney disease

63
Q

Foreign body or masses produced due in the heart valves of patients with bacterial endocarditis are known as ______
a. Vegetation
b. Tumor
c. Embolus

A

a. Vegetation

64
Q

Acetone breath or fruity scent is commonly associated with
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Insulin overdose

A

b. Hyperglycemia

65
Q

Lethal dose of fluoride for a 70 kg adult
a. 60 to 80 mg/kg body weight
b. 32 to 64 mg/kg body weight
c. 50 to 60 mg/kg body weight
d. 30 to 70 mg/kg body weight

A

b. 32 to 64 mg/kg body weight

66
Q

Yellowish to whitish spots that are due to enlargement of sebaceous glands in the skin are known as
a. Epstein pearls
b. Seborrheic dermatitis
c. Fordyces granules
d. Morsicatio buccarum

A

c. Fordyces granules

67
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of zygotic cell cleavage?
a. zygote, morula, blastula, blastomere
b. morula, zygote,blastula,blastomere
c. blastula, blastomere, morula, zygote
d. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula
e. blastula, morula, blastomere, zygote

A

d. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula

68
Q

GvHD or Graft-versus-host-disease
a. Presence of gram (-) bacteria in graft
b. Presence of gram (-) bacteria on graft and recipient
c. Donor and recipient synergism
d. Presence of lymphoid cells in the graft

A

d. Presence of lymphoid cells in the graft

69
Q

Which of the following viruses become dormant in the salivary glands?
a. Herpes simplex
b. Varicella zoster
c. Rabies
d. Cytomegalovirus

A

d. Cytomegalovirus

70
Q

Dark, fan-shaped structures seen in enamel representing poorly calcified areas that extends from the DEJ.
a. Enamel tufts
b. Enamel spindles
c. Enamel lamellae
d. Perikymata

A

a. Enamel tufts

71
Q

It is a process in which the cell uses lysosomes to dispose excess or nonfunctioning organelles or membranes.
a. Autophagy
b. Apoptosis
c. Pyroptosis
d. Autolysis

A

a. Autophagy

72
Q

Lesion that diminishes during stretch test
a. Lichen planus
b. Leukoedema
c. Leukoplakia
d. Candidiasis

A

b. Leukoedema

73
Q

Which is not a neurological disorder related to sturge-weber syndrome?

a. Hemiparesis
b. Mental retardation
c. Petit mal
d. Nevus flammeus

A

d. Nevus flammeus

74
Q

Bence Jones proteinuria and hyperglobulinemia is characteristic of?
a. Monocytic leukemia
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Paget’s disease

A

c. Multiple myeloma

75
Q

Prolonged antibiotic therapy may predispose an individual to develop an infection due to which microorganism?
a. Fusobacterium
b. Candida
c. Treponema
d. Actinomyces

A

b. Candida

76
Q

A type of hypersensitivity characterized by small molecules binding to cell-surfaces producing modified structures that is perceived by the immune system as antigens, resulting to destruction of that cell after an immune response.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

b. Type II

77
Q

A rare autoimmune disorder of peripheral nerves in which antibodies form against nicotinic receptors at the myoneural junction.
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Grave’s disease

A

a. Myasthenia gravis

78
Q

The most common causative agent of tonsillitis
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Mycobacterium

A

b. Streptococcus

79
Q

Which of the following is the nerve of the third branchial arch?
a. Facial Nerve
b. Trigeminal Nerve
c. Vagus
d. Glossopharyngeal

A

d. Glossopharyngeal

80
Q

The dominant intrahepatic cause of portal hypertension is?
a. Obstructive thrombosis
b. Severe Right-sided CHF
c. Cirrhosis
d. Pericarditis

A

c. Cirrhosis

81
Q

At what week does the tongue begins to develop?
a. 4th week
b. 5th week
c. 6th week
d. 7th week
e. 3rd week

A

a. 4th week

82
Q

Which of the following is true about nephrotic and nephritic syndrome?
a. Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of a lot of protein, whereas nephritic syndrome involves the loss of a lot of blood.
b. Nephrotic syndrome is more commonly associated with edema than nephritic syndrome.
c. Hematuria is eminent in nephritic syndrome
d. All of the above are true
e. None of the above is true

A

d. All of the above are true

82
Q

What is the most probably diagnosis of a lesion that presents as a translucent, bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulged that protrudes from one side of the floor of the mouth?
a. Adenoid carcinoma
b. SCC
c. Lymphangioma
d. Ranula

A

d. Ranula

83
Q

Which of the following is not a component Freund’s adjuvant solution?
a. Mineral oil
b. Formalin
c. Dried mycobacterium

A

b. Formalin

84
Q

Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in
a. Bell’s palsy
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Orolingual paresthesia
d. Frey syndrome
e. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

A

d. Frey syndrome

85
Q

Red (hemorrhagic infarcts) are most commonly found in which organ?
a. Lung
b. Brain
c. Spleen
d. Kidney

A

a. Lung

86
Q

Treatment for xerostomia
a. Antibiotic
b. Carboxy Methyl cellulose
c. Corticosteroids
d. Fluoride

A

b. Carboxy Methyl cellulose

87
Q

This is a type of cellular adaptation where the indigenous cells are replaced by cells that are better suited to tolerate a specific abnormal environment
a. Dysplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Hypoplasia

A

c. Metaplasia

88
Q

Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of which type of infection?
a. Viral
b. Staphylococcal
c. Streptococcal
d. Rickettsial

A

b. Staphylococcal

89
Q

Which of the following diseases presents café-au-lait spots?
a. Jaffe-Lischtenstein
b. Multiple Myeloma
c. Paget’ disease of the bone
d. Von recklinghausen’s disease of the skin

A

d. Von recklinghausen’s disease of the skin

90
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma commonly appears as _________ overgrowth of tissue.

a. Purple
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Green

A

a. Purple

91
Q

Which of the following is true about intertubular dentin
a. It is more mineralized than peritubular dentin
b. It is less mineralized than peritubular dentin
c. Intertubular and peritubular dentin has the same amounts of minerals

A

b. It is less mineralized than peritubular dentin

92
Q

Poliovirus belongs to what family of viruses?
a. Reovirus
b. Retrovirus
c. Paramyxoviruses
d. Picornavirus

A

d. Picornavirus

93
Q

Disease transmitted by large droplets secreted from respiratory tract, except
a. Myxoviruses
b. Influenza virus
c. Bordatella pertussis
d. Herpes simplex

A

d. Herpes simplex

94
Q

A developmental defect characterized by an overgrowth of tissues normal to the organ in which it arises

a. Tumor
b. Neoplasm
c. Teratoma
d. Hamartoma

A

d. Hamartoma

95
Q

A cigarette-smoking patient notice a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Bronchopneumonia
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Pulmonary emphysema
d. Carcinoma of the lung
e. Left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema

A

c. Pulmonary emphysema

96
Q

Yellow granules found on the buccal mucosa or on the lips are probably:
a. Impetigo
b. Bohn’s nodules
c. Fordyce spots
d. Petechiae

A

c. Fordyce spots

97
Q

The class of antibodies first detected in serum after primary immunization
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgM

A

d. IgM

98
Q

Precipitates of salivary glycoproteins that covers the tooth surface
a. Plaque
b. Enamel Cuticle
c. Materia alba
d. Pellicle

A

d. Pellicle

99
Q

Which of the following is not true?
a. Preameloblast came from inner enamel epithelium of the enamel organ
b. Tooth germ layers are derived from ectoderm
c. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath came from cervical loop of the enamel organ
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

d. None of the above

,.MBD (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions