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S7 Flashcards

1
Q

A 16-year-old patient came to your clinic for oral prophylaxis. You did an oral examination and seen that the MB groove of #46 and #36 are located distal to the MB cusp of 16 and 26. Maxillary central incisors are proclined. What is the malocclusion of the patient?

a. Class III type 2
b. ClassI II division 2
c. Class II division 1
d. Class III type 1

A

c. Class II division 1

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2
Q

Treatment for eruption cyst that doesn’t interrupt the eruption of a tooth

a. Enucleation
b. Marsupialization
c. No treatment

A

c. No treatment

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3
Q

The growth of the mandible primarily takes place at the

a. Symphysis and alveolar bone
b. Ramus and condyle
c. Angle
d. Teeth

A

b. Ramus and condyle

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4
Q

Most common type of hemophilia in children

a. Hemophilia A
b. Hemophilia B
c. Hemophilia C

A

a. Hemophilia A

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5
Q

During orthodontic treatment, the primary difference between an adult patient and a patient in adolescent stage is that
a. Adult patients need less periodontal therapy
b. Adult patients are more compliant
c. Adults are less concerned with esthetics
d. Adult patients are prone to teeth stains

A

b. Adult patients are more compliant

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6
Q

ANB of -2.5 degrees

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

c. Class III

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7
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly missing teeth?

a. Mandibular 3rd molars
b. Mandibular 2nd premolars
c. lateral incisors
d. maxillary 2nd premolars

A

a. Mandibular 3rd molars

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8
Q

It is the definition of controlled crown tipping

a. Movement of the crown with movement of the apex towards the opposite side
b. Movement of the apex without the movement of crown
c. Crown movement with the center of rotation at the apex
d. None of the above

A

c. Crown movement with the center of rotation at the apex

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9
Q

In classifying the occlusion (Class I, II and III) in a patient with premature molar loss, an additional observation to reinforce the initial evaluation should be

a. Midline relation
b. Incisor relation
c. Canine relation
d. Molar relation
e. Profile

A

c. Canine relation

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10
Q

Which is not associated with delayed tooth eruption?

a. Vitamin D deficiency
b. Decrease growth hormone
c. Decrease T3 and T4 count
d. All are associated with delayed tooth eruption

A

d. All are associated with delayed tooth eruption

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11
Q

Pulp capping procedures and pulpotomy are more commonly successful for newly erupted teeth with open apex because ______________

a. Tooth that is newly erupted teeth has more fibers
b. Tooth that is newly erupted teeth has lesser cells
c. Tooth with open apex contains huge amounts of nerve tissue
d. Tooth with open apex has a greater vascular supply

A

d. Tooth with open apex has a greater vascular supply

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12
Q

While doing a pulpotomy procedure of tooth 85, the pulp continuously bleeds and cannot be arrested. What should be the next step?

a. Proceed with obturation of the pulp chamber
b. Extract the tooth
c. Pulpectomy
d. Place calcium hydroxide over the pulp

A

c. Pulpectomy

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13
Q

According to bioelectric theory, if the developing bone adds new bone tissue in its superoposterior portion, what ions are present in this deposition site?

a. Cations
b. Anions
c. None of the above

A

b. Anions

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14
Q

During serial extraction the primary canines are extracted first. It is generally removed at the age of

a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10

A

b. 8

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15
Q

A 5-year-old patient that is mentally challenged, presents numerous carious lesions. She complains of pain in her tooth. What is the best way to identify the offending tooth?

a. Percussion
b. Radiograph
c. Ask the patient
d. Refer

A

c. Ask the patient

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16
Q

Which of the following is not true?

a. The primate space in maxillary is found distal to the primary lateral incisors
b. Mandible grows more compared to the maxilla
c. Open bite is normal during the mixed dentition period
d. Extrusion is the simplest orthodontic tooth movement

A

d. Extrusion is the simplest orthodontic tooth movement

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17
Q

A 9-year-old patient came to your clinic with a pinpoint pulpal exposure of tooth #11 due to trauma 24 hours ago. The radiograph shows that tooth #11 has an open apex. What is the best treatment for this case?

a. Direct pulp capping
b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpectomy
d. Root Canal Therapy

A

b. Pulpotomy

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18
Q

What is the disadvantage of using cervical headgear during treatment procedures?

a. Deformity of the neck
b. Extrusion of maxillary molar
c. Extrusion of maxillary incisors
d. Deformity of clavicles

A

b. Extrusion of maxillary molar

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19
Q

Most common tooth involved with nursing bottle caries

a. Maxillary anteriors
b. Maxillary posteriors
c. Mandibular posteriors
d. Mandibular anteriors

A

a. Maxillary anteriors

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20
Q

An indication of extracting primary teeth

a. Discolored tooth
b. Diastema between the teeth
c. Bifurcation lesion
d. Nursing bottle caries

A

c. Bifurcation lesion

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21
Q

If a child’s teeth do not form, this would PRIMARILY affect the growth of the

a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Whole face
d. Alveolar bone

A

d. Alveolar bone

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22
Q

Which of the following is true about the use of edgewise appliance?

a. It is only used on the incisal edges of the anterior teeth.
b. Uses brackets for the insertion of rectangular wires
c. Brackets are used for insertion of 2 arch wires at the incisal and gingival edges of the brackets.
d. Edgewise appliance is used primarily to correct developmental malocclusion such as skeletal class II and class III malocclusions

A

b. Uses brackets for the insertion of rectangular wires

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23
Q

A patient went to your clinic carrying his tooth which was avulsed due to a motorcycle accident. You did a replantation procedure which is successful. After 2 years, patient came back and you took a radiograph to examine the tooth. The root portion presents moth-eaten radiolucency. Treatment is?

a. Extract then construct a prosthesis
b. Extract the tooth, RCT then apicoectomy then re-implant
c. Place calcium hydroxide
d. RCT, then apicoectomy and retrograde filling

A

d. RCT, then apicoectomy and retrograde filling

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24
Q

Patients age 8 came into your clinic presenting a midline diastema of around 3.5mm. Which is the best treatment of choice?

a. Observe
b. Diastema closure
c. Wait until all permanent teeth erupts
d. Take a radiograph

A

d. Take a radiograph

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25
Q

In order to achieve the best results when using acidulated phosphate fluoride, it is best applied for about

a. 2 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 15 minutes

A

b. 5 minutes

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26
Q

When doing an uncontrolled tipping of the crown of a maxillary central incisor labially, which of the following is true?

a. There is resorption in the labial cervical bone
b. There is resorption in the labial apical bone
c. There is bony deposition in the lingual apical bone
d. None of the above is true
e. All of the above is true

A

a. There is resorption in the labial cervical bone

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27
Q

Initial sign that the sedative drug has took effect already on a child patient

a. Verrill’s sign
b. Levine’s sign
c. Turner’s sign
d. Grey’s sign

A

a. Verrill’s sign

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28
Q

According to simon’s classification of malocclusion, supraeruption of mandibular canine is an example of

a. Attraction
b. Abstraction
c. Contraction
d. Distraction

A

a. Attraction

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29
Q

Which of the following is true about pseudoclass III?

a. During retrusion there is strain
b. During protrusion there is absence of strain
c. During protrusion there is strain
d. During retrusion there is absence of strain

A

d. During retrusion there is absence of strain

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30
Q

Using Clark’s rule, compute the dose of the drug for a pediatric patient who weighs 30lbs. The adult dose of the drug is 30mg. What is the dose for the patient?

a. 1mg
b. 6mg
c. 9mg
d. 12mg

A

b. 6mg

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31
Q

Few days after direct pulp capping of tooth #74 of a 4-year-old patient, the patient complains of pain, the next treatment is to

a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. RCT
d. Extraction

A

b. Pulpectomy

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32
Q

A force towards the center of resistance of a tooth will result to

a. Tipping
b. Translation
c. Rotation
d. Extrusion

A

b. Translation

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33
Q

Chemically-induced apical closure of a young permanent tooth using calcium hydroxide

a. Apexogenesis
b. Apexification
c. Apeximination
d. Apex formation

A

b. Apexification

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34
Q

Which of the following is a tissue-borne appliance?

a. Frankel
b. Herbst
c. Edgewise
d. Bionator

A

a. Frankel

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35
Q

Late mesial shift is primarily the reason of the closure of

a. Primate space
b. Extraction space
c. Leeway space
d. Interdental space

A

c. Leeway space

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36
Q

Normal value of ANB

a. -2 to 3
b. 0 to 4
c. 3 to 8
d. 5 to 10

A

b. 0 to 4

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37
Q

A patient presents a class II molar relationship. His ANB angle is 4. Which of the following is true regarding the child’s occlusion?

a. The child has Class II dental malocclusion
b. The child has Skeletal Class II malocclusion
c. The child has Skeletal Class I malocclusion without dental malocclusion
d. The child has Dental and Skeletal class II malocclusion

A

a. The child has Class II dental malocclusion

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38
Q

Space maintainer for a 6-year-old patient with early loss of #75 and #85 whose permanent mandibular incisors are not yet erupted

a. Lingual holding arch
b. Transpalatal arch
c. Band and loop
d. Any of the above

A

c. Band and loop

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39
Q

Which of the following is the currently recommended material for pulpotomy procedures?

a. MTA
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. GIC
d. Formocresol

A

a. MTA

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40
Q

Comparing the growth of facial bones, the last dimension of the bones to be established is

a. Width
b. Depth
c. Height

A

c. Height

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41
Q

Manifestation of abrasion, except

a. Dead tracts
b. Secondary dentin
c. Pulpal inflammation

A

b. Secondary dentin

42
Q

Intrusion of permanent tooth with open apex should be best treated by

a. Reposition, splint and observe
b. Reposition, splint and pulpotomy
c. Reposition, splint and pulpectomy
d. Observe

A

a. Reposition, splint and observe

43
Q

Which of the following is indicated for serial extraction? Space deficiency of:

a. 10mm
b. 7mm
c. 5mm
d. 4mm

A

a. 10mm

44
Q

Disturbances in morphodifferentiation stage of the development of the tooth germ results in

a. An abnormal number of teeth
b. Ameloblastoma
c. Abnormal form and size of teeth
d. All of the above

A

c. Abnormal form and size of teeth

45
Q

The chief cause of failure of replantation of permanent teeth is

a. Ankylosis
b. Infection
c. Pulpal necrosis
d. External Root Resorption

A

d. External Root Resorption

46
Q

A 10-year-old patient has 4 teeth that is in posterior crossbite. Palatal expander is used to treat his condition. Which of the following is true?

a. After activation of the appliance, it must remain in the mouth for 3 months or more
b. After activation of the appliance, it can be removed right away
c. The patient activates the expander once a day
d. For every turn of the expander, it is activated by 0.5mm
e. For every turn of the expander, it is activated by 1mm.

A

a. After activation of the appliance, it must remain in the mouth for 3 months or more

47
Q

Initial sign of acute fluoride toxicity involve is

a. Nausea and diarrhea
b. Osteosclerosis
c. Respiratory paralysis
d. Cardiac failure

A

a. Nausea and diarrhea

48
Q

Primary reason why calcium hydroxide is not used in pulpotomy of deciduous

a. Causes external root resorption
b. Stimulates tertiary dentin
c. Alkaline pH causes complications
d. No effect

A

c. Alkaline pH causes complications

49
Q

Source of anchorage of the maxillary Hawley appliance

a. Acrylic base
b. Molar clasp
c. Labial bow
d. Interproximal clasp

A

a. Acrylic base

50
Q

Type of growth movement which refers to the movement of bone as whole unit due to the growth of adjacent bones

a. Shifting
b. Deposition
c. Relocation
d. Displacement

A

a. Shifting

51
Q

A common oral manifestation presented by patients with ectodermal dysplasia

a. Elongated roots
b. Enlarged mandible
c. Retained deciduous
d. Oversized crowns

A

c. Retained deciduous

52
Q

Amount of leeway space in the maxillary right quadrant

a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm

A

a. 1mm

53
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be present in a patient with a surgically treated cleft lip and palate?

a. Excessive overjet
b. Class II molar relationship
c. Unilateral or bilateral palatal crossbite
d. Increased anterior overbite

A

c. Unilateral or bilateral palatal crossbite

54
Q

The most common microorganism involved in senile caries is the

a. Actinomyces
b. Streptococcus
c. Lactobacillus
d. Staphylococcus

A

a. Actinomyces

55
Q

In pediatric dentistry treatment triangle, the apex of the triangle is the

a. Parent
b. Child
c. Dentist

A

b. Child

56
Q

Which of the following is the correction definition of the center of resistance?

a. The center of resistance is a point in which if a force is applied results to a tipping movement.

b. The center of resistance is a point in which if a force is applied results to a rotational movement.

c. The center of resistance is a point in which if a force is applied results to absence of movement.

d. The center of resistance is a point in which if a force is applied results to a bodily movement.

A

d. The center of resistance is a point in which if a force is applied results to a bodily movement.

57
Q

Young’s rule for computing child’s dose uses

a. Weight in lbs
b. Weight in kg
c. Age in months
d. Age in years

A

d. Age in years

58
Q

Patient presenting an ANB of 8.5 degrees is associated with

a. Skeletal class 1
b. Skeletal class 2
c. Skeletal class 3

A

b. Skeletal class 2

59
Q

According to simon’s classification of malocclusion, mesial drifting of first molars is an example of

a. Protraction
b. Retraction
c. Contraction
d. Distraction

A

a. Protraction

60
Q

An anomaly where there is fusion of cementum of two adjacent teeth:

a. Hypercementosis
b. Fusion
c. Germination
d. Concrescence

A

d. Concrescence

61
Q

After correction of an anterior crossbite by an appliance. The best way to retain the tooth in its proper position is by

a. Using a tongue blade
b. Creating a positive overbite
c. Adding 2 more weeks in the treatment
d. All of the above

A

b. Creating a positive overbite

62
Q

Stainless steel wires used in fixed appliances are composed of

a. 8% Chromium – 18% Nickel
b. 18% Cobalt – 8% Nickel
c. 8% Nickel – 18% Chromium
d. 55% Nickel – 45% Titanium

A

c. 8% Nickel – 18% Chromium

63
Q

It is also known as the point B in cephalometric radiograph

a. Subspinale
b. Subnasale
c. Supramentale
d. Submentale

A

c. Supramentale

64
Q

Early loss of a mandibular primary canine often leads to lingual collapse of the anterior segment. The best space maintainer for early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a

a. Nance arch
b. Lingual arch
c. Band and loop
d. Lingual arch with coil springs

A

b. Lingual arch

65
Q

For an avulsed tooth that is replanted, the tooth must be stabilized with splints for a maximum of ___________ to prevent ankylosis.

a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 1 month
d. 3 months

A

b. 2 weeks

66
Q

High-pull headgears allow the molars and maxilla to move

a. Intrusive and Mesial
b. Intrusive and Distal
c. Distal only
d. Extrusive and Mesial

A

b. Intrusive and Distal

67
Q

The least desirable method used in child management is

a. Tell-show-do technique
b. Gift before treatment
c. Voice control
d. Hand-over-mouth technique

A

b. Gift before treatment

68
Q

These are spaces found distal to the primary mandibular canines and mesial of the primary maxillary canines

a. Diastema
b. Developmental space
c. Growth space
d. Primate space

A

d. Primate space

69
Q

According to the neural growth curve, the brain is around ______ completed at the age of 5.

a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 90%
d. 100%

A

c. 90%

70
Q

Most difficult tooth movement to achieve when doing orthodontic treatment

a. Intrusion and extrusion
b. Tipping and extrusion
c. Translation and extrusion
d. Intrusion and Translation

A

d. Intrusion and Translation

71
Q

The neurocranium follows what growth curve of scammon’s?

a. Lymphoid
b. Neural
c. General
d. Genital

A

b. Neural

72
Q

To produce a bodily movement or a translating movement in a single rooted tooth, the force required is _______.

a. 10 to 20 gm
b. 35 to 60 gm
c. 70 to 120 gm
d. 150 to 300 gm

A

c. 70 to 120 gm

73
Q

Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?

a. The moment would decrease by 50%.
b. The moment would not change.
c. The moment would double.
d. The moment would increase by 4 times

A

c. The moment would double.

74
Q

This is the most common malignant tumor in neonates

a. Neurifibroma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Lymphangioma

A

b. Neuroblastoma

75
Q

The greatest fear of 2-year-old patients

a. Being apart from parents
b. Sharp objects
c. Doctors
d. Night time

A

a. Being apart from parents

76
Q

The center of resistance varies depending on all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

a. Root length
b. Number of roots
c. Alveolar bone support
d. Number of teeth

A

d. Number of teeth

77
Q

Which of the following has the greatest influence on the child’s reaction in his/her first dental visit?

a. Dentist
b. Siblings
c. Parents
d. Playmates

A

c. Parents

78
Q

Which of the following is indicative of ankylosis in primary molar?

a. monotonous sound on percussion
b. increase density of lamina dura
c. modifying color of enamel
d. incomplete eruption

A

d. incomplete eruption

79
Q

The attachment site of the external pterygoid muscle that serves as a growth site during mandibular growth

a. Angle
b. Ramus of the mandible
c. Condyle
d. Coronoid process

A

c. Condyle

80
Q

When uprighting a molar, particular care must be exercised so as not to

a. Extrude the buccal segment
b. Flare the incisors
c. Disturb the eruption of 3rd molars
d. Over-correction of molar

A

b. Flare the incisors

81
Q

What is the primary difference between a patient with pseudoclass III and a patient with true skeletal class III

a. Facial profile of the patients

b. True skeletal class III always presents an anterior crossbite while pseudoclass III does not

c. Pseudoclass III patients has a habit of placing the mandible in more retruded position

d. Absence of forward shifting of mandible upon closure in patients with true skeletal class III

A

d. Absence of forward shifting of mandible upon closure in patients with true skeletal class III

82
Q

The most important sign of success of a pulpotomy procedure in an immature permanent tooth is

a. Absence of pain
b. Apical closure
c. Formation of dentinal bridge
d. No ankylosis of tooth

A

b. Apical closure

83
Q

Most common cause of a single tooth anterior crossbite is

a. Prolonged retention of deciduous
b. oral habits
c. trauma
d. any of the above

A

a. Prolonged retention of deciduous

84
Q

Maximum remaining thickness of dentin that can be used as a guide to determine if the pulp can be saved using vital pulp therapy or it needs RCT.

a. 2 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 0.5 mm
d. 0.2 mm

A

a. 2 mm

85
Q

The ideal wire in orthodontics must have which of the following properties?

a. High strength, low stiffness, high range and high formability
b. High strength, high stiffness, high range and high formability
c. High strength, low stiffness, low range and high formability
d. High strength, high stiffness, low range and high formability

A

a. High strength, low stiffness, high range and high formability

86
Q

Concentration of sodium fluoride in fluoride varnishes

a. 0.5%
b. 1%
c. 1.23%
d. 2%

A

d. 2%

87
Q

Which is not true regarding patients with ADHD?

a. About 3% of child has ADHD
b. It is more commonly seen in males than females
c. When treating patients with ADHD, dentist generally doesn’t need any special treatment
d. Pharmacologic approach is the primary option when treating child with ADHD

A

d. Pharmacologic approach is the primary option when treating child with ADHD

88
Q

A patient with a habit of cheek biting can be treated using

a. Oral screen
b. Night guard
c. Lip bumper
d. Plumber

A

a. Oral screen

89
Q

Fluoride supplementation for patient that is 2 to 3 years old with <0.3ppm of fluoride in the community

a. 1
b. 2
c. 0.25
d. 0.5

A

c. 0.25

90
Q

The pH of acidulated phosphate fluoride is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 9

A

b. 3

91
Q

1ppm is equivalent to 1mg/_____

a. 0.01 L
b. 0.1 L
c. 1 L
d. 10 L

A

c. 1 L

92
Q

A postorthodontic circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy procedure is indicated when

a. There is a tendency for mandibular incisors to drift mesially
b. Prevention of relapse after rotational movements
c. To control thumbsucking
d. To maintain the buccal plate after impacted canine movement

A

b. Prevention of relapse after rotational movements

93
Q

Space maintainer of choice for a 4-year-old patient who had his tooth #85 extracted

a. Removable partial dentures
b. Band and loop
c. Distal shoe
d. Lingual holding arch

A

c. Distal shoe

94
Q

Your patient has an IQ of 51, it means the patient has __________

a. Profound mental retardation
b. Moderate mental retardation
c. Mild mental retardation
d. Borderline deficiency

A

c. Mild mental retardation

95
Q

In patients with class I malocclusion, how does length or circumference mesial to permanent mandibular first molars change between 5 to 18 years of age?

a. Generally increase 2 to 3mm
b. Generally decreases 3 to 4mm
c. Generally decreases 0 to 1mm
d. Changes an unpredictable amount

A

b. Generally decreases 3 to 4mm

96
Q

Caries form when salivary pH is around

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9

A

b. 5

97
Q

Anterior open bite with posterior crossbite is a characteristic of:

a. Thumbsucking
b. Mouthbreathing
c. Abnormal swallowing habits

A

a. Thumbsucking

98
Q

Fracture of the maxillary anterior teeth occurs most frequently in patients with which malocclusion?

a. Class II division I
b. Class II division II
c. Class III type 1
d. Class III type 2

A

a. Class II division I

99
Q

Fluoride lethal dose (mg/kg) for children

a. 8 mg/kg
b. 15mg/kg
c. 25mg/kg
d. 32mg/kg

A

b. 15mg/kg

100
Q

All of the following statements regarding open bite are true, except one. Which is it?

a. The resultant maxillary constriction seen in open-bite cases tends to cause bilateral crossbites.

b. If the finger-sucking habit involves the hand resting on the chin, mandibular growth can get
retarded producing a class II retrognathic profile.

c. Compensatory tongue thrust habit is often observed in patients with open bite.

d. Combined orthodontic and surgical treatment is required in patients who show an excess of anterior vertical facial height, steep mandibular plane angle, or long lower facial heights

e. Maxillary constriction usually seen in openbite cases results from increased pressure on the mylohyoid muscles from finger sucking.

A

e. Maxillary constriction usually seen in openbite cases results from increased pressure on the mylohyoid muscles from finger sucking.

,.MBD (9 decks)

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