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IP 11 Food Animal Medicine > ruminant neuro - nagy > Flashcards

ruminant neuro - nagy Flashcards

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1
Q

the classical approach to neurology strives to pin point exactly where the lesion is. how does the approach with production medicine neurology differ?

A

a more cocktail approach

goal: give well rounded Tx based on c/s and hope animal gets better

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2
Q

what 4 basic regions of the brain can lesions be localized to?

A

cortex
cerebellum
brain stem
spinal cord

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3
Q

3 basic etiologic categories of neuro cases:

A
  • acquired biologic: bacT, virus, prion, nematodes, protozoa, fungi, arthropods
  • acquired NON biologic: fracture, luxation, metabolic, Nn trauma, grass staggers
  • congenital or hereditary: hydrancephaly, hydrocephalus, arthrogyposis, spastic paresis, Weaver syndrom
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4
Q

neuro exam basics and steps:

A
  • observe at a distance
  • Cr N exam
  • postural responses
  • spinal reflexes
  • palpation
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5
Q

what to look for when examining the animal at a distance:

A
  • gait - free movement, circles, incline/decline, pulling tail
  • posture - head/neck, trunk, limbs
  • mentation
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6
Q

t/f

you should be able to pull a large Ruminant to the side by pulling its tail

A

false

if you can cause a large ruminant to fall off balance or move by pulling its tail, it has some amount of ataxia and/or weakness

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7
Q

why might you have the animal walk on an incline?

A

neuro signs that manifest in the gait will be exacerbated on an incline/decline

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8
Q

what are examples of abnormal mentation in an animal?

A 
excitement/mania
seizures
depression
aimless mevement
stupor/coma
abnormal vocalizations
blindness
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9
Q

t/f

an animal’s ability to respond normally to environmental stimuli is an important indication of cortical health

A

true

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10
Q

evaluating the visual ability in an animal evaluates fxn of what structures?

A

ocular structures
CrN 2
visual cortex

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11
Q

symmetry of eye position evaluates what structures?

A

CrN 3, 4, 6 and sympathetic Nn

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12
Q

symmetry of pupil diameter evaluates what structures?

A

CrN 2 and 3 and sympathetic nerves

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13
Q

facial symmetry can evaluate which structures?

A

CrN 5 and 7

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14
Q

what CrNn does the menace response evaluate?

A

CrN 2 and 7

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15
Q

if the menace response does not occur, what might be the case?

A

animal is non visual
neonatal
some cerebellar lesions

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16
Q

what does the PLR evaluate?

A

CrN 2 and 3

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17
Q

is the PLR typically faster or slower in ruminants?

A

typically slow in Ru

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18
Q

what does the palpebral reflex evaluate?

A

CrN 5 and 7

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19
Q

what does the corneal reflex evaluate?

A

CrN 5 and 7

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20
Q

what CrNn are required for eye movement?

A

CrN 3, 5, 6 and 8

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21
Q

response to nasal stimulation requires which CrNn?

A

CrN 5 and 7

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22
Q

response to aural stimulation requires which CrNn?

A

CrN 5 and 7

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23
Q

tongue tone is dependent on which CrN?

A

CrN 12

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24
Q

swallowing reflex uses which CrNn?

A

CrNn 9, 10 and 12

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25
Q

what to look for during an ophthalmoscopic exam?

A

papilledema
retinal hemorrhage
uveitis

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26
Q

why might uveitis be present in a neuro animal?

A

infection in the brain may enter the eye

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27
Q

why is an obstacle test important?

what variation of the test will reveal more about an animal’s visual abilities?

A

assesses vision and ability to navigate

testing in low contrast will exacerbate visual impairment, if present

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28
Q

what postural reactions are used?

which are of most value and easiest to do in large ruminants d/t their size?

A
  • wheelbarrow
  • hopping
  • hemi walking
  • hemi standing
  • placing
  • proprioception
  • proprioception easiest
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29
Q

panniculus reflex tests which spinal Nn in cattle?

which cattle have a very well developed panniculus reflex?

A

C8, T1 and T2
absent Cd to L3

Bos indicus more developed reflex than bos taurus

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30
Q

the patellar reflex tests which spinal Nn?

A

L4, L5, L6 and femoral N

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31
Q

the perineal reflex tests which spinal Nn?

when is a good time to test for this reflex? what will occur if it strong?

A

s1, s2, s3, s4, s5, pudendal. Cd rectal Nn

assess upon rectal palpation - they should squeeze against your arm

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32
Q

what Nn does the withdrawl reflex stimulate in each limb?

A

thoracic: C5, T2 and radial N
pelvic: L5, s1 and femoral N

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33
Q

palpation?

I don’t know what was on this slide….
maybe some indications to do a palpation?

A

sweating
pain
atrophy

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34
Q

signs of cortical dz:

A 
change in mentation 
head pressing
propulsive walking
convulsions
opisthotonus

NORMAL: gait, posture, spinal reflexes

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35
Q

signs of cerebellar dz:

A 
abnormal gait [ataxia, truncal sway, hypermetria]
abnormal posture
spinal reflexes may be abnormal
head tremor or bobbing
absent menace
nystagmus

NORMAL: strength and proprioception, mentation

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36
Q

what might multiple cranio facial defects in a young animal [cerebellar signs] suggest?

A

viral infection in utero

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37
Q

signs of brainstem dz:

A
  • mentation, gain, posture, spinal reflexes depend on where specifically the lesion is in the brainstem
  • blindness
  • flaccid tongue
  • head tilt
  • circling
  • facial paralysis
  • anisocoria
  • miosis
  • ptosis
  • 3rd eyelid flash during menace - can see but cannot blink
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38
Q

signs of spinal cord dz:

A 
abnormal gait and posture
maybe spinal reflexes
UMN signs
LMN signs
stiff neck [cervical lesion]

NORMAL MENTATION

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39
Q

what are UMN signs?

A

inc extensor tone

exaggerated spinal reflexes

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40
Q

what are LMN signs?

A

paresis -> paralysis

dec spinal reflexes

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41
Q

UMN or LMN dz MC in food animals?

A

LMN dz

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42
Q

peripheral N dz may originate in which places?

A

brachial plexus
suprascapular N
radial N
femoral N

obturator N
sciatic N
peroneal N
tibial N

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43
Q

what does brachial plexus dz look like?

A

C6-T2 [cattle]
T1 [small Ru]

inability to bear weight on front limbs

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44
Q

suprascapular N lesion:

A

C6-C7

abduction and circumduction during motion

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45
Q

radial N lesion:

A

C7-C8 -> extensors or carpus and digit

inability to advance the limb

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46
Q

femoral N lesion:

A

L4-L5

inability to support weight

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47
Q

obturatory N lesion:

A

L4-L6 (adductors of the limb)

wide based stance in pelvic limbs

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48
Q

sciatic N lesion:

A

L5, L6-s1, s2

weakness
knuckling at fetlock

*common in cattle

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49
Q

peroneal N lesion:

A

branch of sciatic
lateral stifle damage
knuckling of fetlock

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50
Q

tibial N lesion:

A

sciatic branch

hyperflexion of hock
knuckling of fetlock

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51
Q

important info to take away from Hx?

A

duration of signs
additions to the herd
changes in feed
water source

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52
Q

options for tests in Ruminant neuro dz?

A

CSF tap
x rays
CT scan
specific assays

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53
Q

CSF composition in viral dz?

A

protein 50-100
cells 50-100
monocytes and lymphocytes

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54
Q

CSF composition in bacT dz?

A

prot over 100
cells over 100

PMNs

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55
Q

CSF of degenerative dz?

A

protein less than 50
cells less than 10
monocytes

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56
Q

normal CSF?

A

prot: less than 50
cells: less than 10
lymphocytes

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57
Q

what are landmarks for cisterna magna CSF tap?

A
  • wings of atlas
  • on dorsal mid line
  • depth of 2-3 inches
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58
Q

lumbosacral CSF tap?

A
  • dorsal mid line
  • sacral tubers
  • Cd to L6
  • Cr to sacrum
  • depth of 3 inches
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59
Q

which type of CSF tap is done MC in ruminants?

A

lumbosacral tap

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60
Q

typical indications for x rays:

A
  • traumatic spinal cord dz
  • congenital malformations
  • vertebral osteomyelitis
  • lead ingestion
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61
Q

typical indications for CT scan:

A
  • cortical/brainstem abscess
  • cerebellar hypoplasia
  • malformations

*faster than MRI and better for bones

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62
Q

what specific assays are often run on ruminants as indicated?

A 
blood lead
serum/CSF sodium
serum/CSF Mg
blood pH
blood Ca
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63
Q

what anti convulsants are used in neuro dz?

A

diazepam

phenobarbital

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64
Q

what anti inflammatory agents often used in neuro dz?

A

steroids - dexamethasone and prednisolone Na succinate

flunixin meglumaine (banamine)

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65
Q

what anti edema agents are often used in neuro dz?

A

mannitol

furosemide

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66
Q

what abx often used for neuro dzz?

A

Penicillin
Oxytetracyline
TMS (trimethroprim/sulfadiazine)

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67
Q

what are some management practices that might be specific preventative measures to take?

A 
alter feed/water source
remove animals from pasture
remove lead source
alter vacc program
alter breeding program
monthly anthelminthic therapy
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68
Q

what is the nature of peripheral nerve disorders often?

A

infectious

traumatic

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69
Q

what infectious nerve disorders commonly affect the periphery in food animals?

A

Botulism

Tick paralysis

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70
Q

how to treat peripheral N disorders:

A
  • restrict movement
  • reduce perineural swelling
  • time
  • wrap/splint/cast if dragging limb
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71
Q

what are 2 common causese of femoral N damage?

A
  • forced traction posterior presentation
  • hyperextension of hip

*often occurs when pulling a calf during dystocia - causes damage

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72
Q

c/s of femoral nerve damage?

A
  • inability to bear weight
  • patellar laxity, lateral displacement of patella, absent patellar reflex
  • flexion of stifle, hock, fetlock and pastern
  • atrophy at 5-7 days
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73
Q

what are 2 common causes of sciatic N damage?

A
  • pressure ischemia at calving

- injection site abscess

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74
Q

c/x of sciatic N damage?

A
  • knuckling of fetlock
  • dropped hock
  • patellar reflex intact
  • maybe: tail and anal tone issues, atonic bladder
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75
Q

common cause of peroneal N damage?

A

pressure damage over lateral stifle

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76
Q

c/s of peroneal n damage?

A

over extension of hock
knuckling of fetlock - inability to extend digit and walking on dorsum of fetlock
analgesia of craniolateral limb

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77
Q

common cause of tibial N damage?

A

ventro medial Cd thigh injection abscesses

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78
Q

c/s of tibial N damage?

A
  • no drop in hock
  • knuckling of fetlock
  • atrophy of gastrocnemius
  • analgesia of caudomedial limb

*FOOT PLACEMENT NORMAL

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79
Q

common cause of obturator N damage?

A

intrapelvic trauma

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80
Q

c/s of obturator nerve damage?

A

hopping gait
**abducted pelvic limbs - wide base stance is very characteristic
traumatic falls may occur 2
hobbles

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81
Q

what nerves are often affected during calving paralysis?
what typically causes this disorder?
Tx?

A

sciatic and obturator Nn

associated w dystocia

Tx: hobbles

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82
Q

common cause of radial N dz?

A
  • prolonged recumbency

- lateral aspect humerus

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83
Q

c/s of radial N damage?

A
  • inability to advance
  • dropped elbow
  • flexion of carpus, fetlock and patern
  • can bear weight if locked in extension
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84
Q

what management issue predisposes animal to ascending meningitis?

A

short tail dock

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85
Q

c/s of ascending meningitis?

A
  • progressive rear limb weakness -> paralysis

- possibly a distended bladder or draining tract

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86
Q

Tx ascending meningitis?

A

clean wound and give Abx that will penetrate lipid layers of the dura

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87
Q

what type of pathogen often responsible for ascending meningitis?

A

anaerobic pathogen

88
Q

what is the specific etiology of tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

89
Q

what does clostridium tetani produce that is harmful?

what does it do?

A

exotoxin

binds inhibitory neuron and inhibits relaxation -> extensional rigidity

90
Q

common time to come down with tetanus?

A

from parturition to shortly post partum (metritis predisposes animal to tetanus)

erupting teeth
castration
tail docking
shearing

91
Q

c/s of tetanus?

A
  • slow onset
  • 3rd eyelid prolapse
  • bloat [strong Rumen contractions, difficulty eating, salivation]
  • “pump handle tail” - arch in base of tail b/c contraction at base of tail head
  • “saw horse stance” - inability to contract limbs
  • pyrexia d/t sustained skeletal mm contraction
92
Q

what is the cause of death often in tetanus?

A

respiratory arrest -> respiratory Mm paralyzed

93
Q

tx of tetanus?

A
  • procaine Pen G
  • local injection of antitoxin
  • debride and clean necrotic wounds
  • acepromazine
  • dark quiet stall
  • neuromuscular relaxants: diazepam, dantrolene [extra label use]
94
Q

what effects does acepromazine have when given during tetanus infection

A

dec spontaneous motor activity

dec tetanic response to stimuli

95
Q

t/f

tetanus anti toxin only works on unbound toxin to prevent further binding but does NOT have an effect on toxins that are already bound

A

true

96
Q

how to control tetanus?

A
  • elastrator band to castrate rather than make a large hole/wound
  • vaccinate sheep 2-6 wks before lambing
  • vaccinate lambs during castration and tail dock -> and booster them
97
Q

t/f

cattle are routinely vaccinated for tetanus

A

false

98
Q

vertebral body abscess often occurs 2* to what?

A

2* to bacteremia

99
Q

c/s of vertebral body abscess?

A

paresis / paralysis

may become so large it will luxate a vertebral body

100
Q

dx vertebral body abscess?

A

radiographs

CSF

101
Q

tx of vertebral body abscess?

A

often is unrewarding :(

try Abx
surgical debridement and stabilization

102
Q

spastic paresis is common in what breeds of cattle d/t inherited defect?

A

angus
shorthorn
holstein
ayrshire

103
Q

at what age does spastic paresis present commonly?

what signs?

A

3-8 mos old [NORMAL at birth]

very straight hocks with elevated tail head
tetanic extension of rear leg
exaggerated muscular tone -> hypersensitive myotatic stretch reflex

often uni lateral
Right MC affected than Left

104
Q

dx of spastic paresis?

A

c/s
tibial nerve infiltration
epidural

105
Q

tx of spastic peresis?

A

tibial N neurectomy

106
Q

what are 4 common cerebellar dzz?

A
  • grass staggers
  • cerebellar hypoplasia
  • cerebellar abiotrophy
  • storage dzz
107
Q

what breeds MC get inherited cerebellar hypoplasia?

A 
hereford
shorthorn
angus
holstein
guernsey
ayrshire
108
Q

when acquired, what is the etiology of cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

in utero BVD or border dz infection

109
Q

c/s of cerebellar hypoplasia?

A
  • intention tremor
  • spasticity
  • dysmetria
  • incoordination
  • occasional convulsions
110
Q

what are 2 common brain stem dzz?

A

listeriosis

otitis media/interna

111
Q

what is the etiology of listeriosis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

112
Q

what dz syndromes does listeria monocytogenes cause?

A
  • meningencephalitis
  • abortion
  • mastitis
  • septicemia
113
Q

t/f

listeria monocytogenes is a normal inhabitant of the ruminant GIT

A

true

114
Q

t/f

listeria monocytogenes survives well in the soil

A

true

115
Q

t/f

listeria thrives in an acidic environment

A

false

alkaline

pH over 5.5

116
Q

c/s of listeriosis:

A
  • dull, depressed - Reticular activating system (RAS) signs
  • ASYMMETRIC cranial Nn: ear, eye and lip droop, deviation of nasal filtrum, circling, head tilt, horizontal nystagmus, loss of jaw tone, dysphagia, recumbency
117
Q

which CrNn are MC affected in listeriosis?

A

CrNn 5, 7, 8

118
Q

how does listeria enter the body?

A

unknown completely:

aerosol
oral wounds

119
Q

incubation period for listeria?

A

2-5 wks

120
Q

what type of lesion does listeria form in the brain?

in what region, specifically?

A

micro abscesses

in the brainstem

121
Q

dx of listeriosis?

A
  • c/s
  • CSF tap
  • necropsy
122
Q

what kind of CSF tap for listeriosis?

A

viral tap

mononuclear pleocytosis
inc protein

123
Q

what necropsy lesions of listeriosis?

A

NO GROSS LESIONS

micro abscesses and perivascular cuffing

124
Q

tx of listeriosis:

A

Abx - oxy tet, procaine Pen G, ampicillin
anti inflammatories - NSAIDS, steriods [controversial]
correct metabolic abnormalities
environmental control

125
Q

prognosis of listeriosis?

A

good - if treated early

may have some residual damage

126
Q

what metabolic abnormalities may occur with listeriosis?

A

acidemia [d/t loss of bicarb in saliva from excessive drooling]
electrolyte abnormalities

127
Q

in what animals is otitis media / interna MC seen?

A
  • feedlot animals
  • lambs
  • camelids
128
Q

otitis can be caused 2* to what ascending infection?

what descending infection?

A

ascending: pneumonia
descending: ticks and mites

129
Q

what microbes are isolated often in cases of otitis?

A 
pasteurella multocida
manheimia haemolytica
hemophilus somnus
corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
mycoplasma bovis
130
Q

t/f

many otitis agents are respiratory agents that gain access into the ear canal

A

true

131
Q

c/s of otitis:

A

often unilateral presentation
alert, good appetite
fall to side of lesion - vestibular signs
facial paralysis [otitis media] - ptosis and drooped ear
otic discharge [media]
heat tilt [interna]

132
Q

tx otitis?

A

abx - oxy tet, procaine pen, florfenicol

treat ear mites and ticks
px 1* respiratory dz

133
Q

t/f

d/t camelids narrow ear canal, a good tx option for otitis is a deep ear flush

A

false

d/t their narrow canal, do not do a flush b/c it is not good for cleaning out easily and will likely just push stuff deeper into the ear canal

134
Q

bacT meningitis is 2* to what type of infection?

A

2* to hematogenous spread from septicemia

135
Q

bacT meningitis often occurs in young or old stock?

often d/t what condition?

A

MC young stock

often d/t FPT

136
Q

what types of trauma often lead to bacT meningitis?

A

dehorning

trephine sequellae

137
Q

what microbes often cause bacT meningitis in calves?

A

e coli
salmonella dublin
arcanobacterium pyogenes

138
Q

what microbes often cause bacT meningitis in lambs?

A

pasturella multocida
manheimia haemolytica
staphylococcus aureus
streptococcus spp

139
Q

c/s of meningitis?

A
  • hyperesthesia, hyperalgesia
  • seizures
  • stiff neck, high head
  • depression
  • pyrexia
  • teeth grinding
  • infections at other sites [polyarithritis, hypoopyon, omphalophlebitis]
140
Q

what is phyopyon?

A

pus in the anterior chamber of the eye

141
Q

what does CSF of meningitis patient reveal?

A
  • inc cells: 1* PMNs
  • inc protein
  • maybe xanthochromia [yellowing d/t RBC - lyse]
  • maybe turbidity
142
Q

t/f

tests to confirm FPT in a calf is one way to confirm meningitis as well

A

false

FPT suggests the calf is AT RISK for the development of meningitis

143
Q

necropsy lesions seen in bacT meningitis?

A
  • hyperemia and opacification of meninges
  • fibrin deposition
  • alternate site of infection => supports sepsis
144
Q

meningitis Tx?

A

Abx - ceftiofur and ampicililn/amoxicillin

anti inflammatories - dex, banamine

anti consultants if needed

supportive care - plasma transfusion, electrolytes, monitor for blood glucose, remove or Tx septic foci [joints, umbilicus]

145
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis is d/t what pathogen?

A

Histophilus somnii infection

146
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis is MC seen in what animals?

A

feedlot cattle

147
Q

how do animals present for Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis infections?

are these presentations often seen in the same animal?

A

pneumonic
arthritic
neurologic

NOT often seen in same animal -> but seen w/in same herd or group of animals

148
Q

what dz outbreak often occurs a week or 2 prior to an outbreak of thromboembolic meningoencephalitis?

A

pneumonia

149
Q

what is TEME often d/t?

c/s of TEME?

A

vasculitis and DIC inducedby immunologic response

c/s: asymmetrical neuro signs - abnormal gait, rear limb stiffness, ataxia, knuckling
high fever
retinal hemorrhage commmon
blind, head pressing, lateral recumbency
CrN deficits
150
Q

dx of TEME based on CSF?

A

inc prot
inc cells [PMNs]
xanthochromie [bleeding]

151
Q

why is serology of NO value to Dx TEME?

A

tells you exposure to pathogen and generation of Aby response - may be positive d/t respiratory issue and NOT TEME

152
Q

bacteriology analysis of TEME based on what methods?

A

CSF
TTW (trans tracheal wash)
post mortem

153
Q

what signs of TEME found during necropsy?

A

infarcts

DIC

154
Q

TEME tx?

A

earlier = better

Abx

155
Q

TEME px?

A

early recognition of Bovine Respiratory Dz Complex (BRDC)

vaccination - may not px neuro form of pathogens

156
Q

what is sinusitis often associated with?

what species?

A

dehorning

often goats

157
Q

common causes of brain abscess?

A

post dehorning

hematogenous spread

158
Q

common pathogen assoc w brain abscesses?

A

Truperella pyogens

159
Q

c/s of brain abscess?

A

depression
head pressing, propulsive walking
blindness - contra lateral - early
transient excitement

160
Q

onset of brain abscess is often gradual or abrupt?

A

gradual

161
Q

clinicopathologic findings of brain abscess:

A

NT pleocytosis

inc CSF production

162
Q

Tx of brain abscess?

A

unrewarding - b/c need drainage and you cannot drain the brain

163
Q

what production animal MC affected w rabies?

A

cattle

164
Q

incubation of rabies?

A

3 wks usually

165
Q

transmission of rabies?

A

migrates along nerves
sets up in cortical brain
shed in saliva and milk

166
Q

2 forms of rabies:

which MC in cattle?

A

paralytic form - knuckling at fetlocks, swaying, deviation or flaccid tail, drooling, bloat, yawn
furious form - hyper responsive to sound, violent attacks, loud bellowing, sudden collapse

cattle MC get paralytic form

167
Q

dx rabies?

A

histopathology

FA

168
Q

common name for Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?

A

scrapie

169
Q

etiology of scrapie?

A

prion - misfolded protein

170
Q

what species affected by scrapie?

what species MC?

A

sheep and goats

SHEEP MC

171
Q

1* transmission route of scrapie?

A

placental fluid

172
Q

what sheep breed is very strongly associated with scraple?

A

Suffolk breed

173
Q

t/f

scrapie is considered endemic in US

A

true

174
Q

what gene is associated with scrapie?

A

PRNP gene

175
Q

what locus of the gene is affected in scrapie?

which form is MC in US?

A

locus 136 - Europe

locus 171 - US

176
Q

genetic testing for scrapie is done commonly in sheep herds.

what does each of the genotypes mean in terms of susceptibility?

A 
QQ = susceptible to scrapie
QR = resistant to scrapie
RR = resistant to scrapie
177
Q

c/s of scrapie?

A 
abnormal beh, mentation
prutitis - trauma, wool loss, aural hematomas
fine tremors, Mm fasciculations
hypermetria
wt loss
progressive weakness
blindness
178
Q

what is the “scratch reflex”?

A

used to be used to Dx scrapie - if the animal became itchy and moved its lips when you scratched it

NOT DIAGNOSTIC

179
Q

CSF in scrapie?

A

normal

180
Q

Dx of scrapie via histo path of what structure?

A

3rd eyelid

181
Q

what is gold standard Dx of scrapie?

A

IHC on formalin fixed brain tissue

necropsy

182
Q

post mortem signs of scrapie in brain tissue:

A

spongiform encephalopathy

neuronal degeneration

183
Q

Tx, Px and control of scrapie?

A

NO Tx - slaughter

control: REPORTABLE DZ
eradication programs

184
Q

t/f

polioenecphaolmalacia is a pathologic lesion and is also used to describe a clinical disease in cattle

A

true

185
Q

polioenecphaolmalacia is what pathologic lesion?

A

necrosis of gray matter in the brain

186
Q

polioencephalomalacia is often d/t deficiency of what nutrient?

A

Thiamine

187
Q

what metabolic pathway is involved in thiamine metabolism?

A

pentose phosphate pathway

188
Q

what occurs in the brain d/t thiamine deficiency

A

dec cerebral glucose oxidation => cerebral edema

189
Q

polioenecphaolmalacia can be caused by excess of what nutrient?

A

sulfur

190
Q

what 2 bacT produce thiaminases and may lead to polioenecphaolmalacia?

they are grown commonly under what conditions in the body?

A

Cl. sporogenes
Bacillus spp

  • grain engorgement
191
Q

ingestion of what plant may lead to thiaminase consumption and polioenecphaolmalacia ?

A

brachen fern

192
Q

what drug has a high concentration of thiamine analogs and may lead do polioenecphaolmalacia ?

A

amprolium intoxication

coccidiostat drug

193
Q

how does sulfur induced polioenecphaolmalacia occur?

A

sulfur and sulfate are converted to sulfide gas in the rumen

H2S is eructated, absorbed across the rumen wall or eructated and absorbed by the lung

194
Q

c/s of polioenecphaolmalacia ?

common age of presentation?

WHAT IS THE ONE BIG SIGN CLASSICALLY ASSOCIATED WITH polioenecphaolmalacia ?

A

MC 3 mo - 2 yrs

symmetric 
cortical blindness [normal PLRs and pupil size]
depression
disorientation
head pressing
excitation leading to opithotuonus
papilledema

DORSO MEDIAL STRABISMUS
ventro lateral strabismus may occur late in dz

195
Q

CSF of polio?

A

normal cells and prot

inc CSF pressure

196
Q

Dx of thiamine dependent form of polio:

A

dec blood thiamine
inc blood pyruvate
dec RBC transketolase activity

***tests are available but are NOT commonly done

197
Q

Dx of sulfur induced polio:

A

rumen gas cap H2S concentration

198
Q

post mortem lesions of polio?

A

necrosis of grey matter
UV light
flattening of gyri

199
Q

polio Tx?

A

early = better success

Thiamine hydrochloride, IV

supportive Tx - electrolytes, alfalfa slurry, transfaunate, mannitol and dex for cerebral edema

200
Q

control of the thiamine-dependent form of polio:

A
  • acclimate to diet changes to concentrate
  • provide adequate roughage
  • dec exposure to thiamine analogues or ingested thiaminases
201
Q

control the sulfur associated form of polio?

A

dec sulfate or sulfur ingestion

202
Q

what feeds are often found to contain high amounts of sulfur?

A 
water
molasses
distillers grains
beet pulp
gypsum
Ca sulfate
ammonium sulfate
203
Q

what is the MC intoxicant of cattle

A

lead poisoning

204
Q

common sources of lead for cattle:

A 
paint
batteries*
used motor oil*
plumber's lead
machinery grease*
linoleum
205
Q

c/s of lead poisoning - acute neurological form:

A 
excitation
twitching
head pressing
tetany, convulsions
cortical blindness
CrN depression
rumen atony
206
Q

c/s of lead poisoning - abdominal / sub acute neurologic form:

A

depression, anorexia
colic, severe abdominal pain
blind, hyperesthesia
grind teeth

207
Q

dx of lead poisoning?

A
  • blood lead levels
  • tissue lead: kidney and liver
  • inc blood, urine and fecal porphyrins
  • inc urine gamma ALA activity
208
Q

CSF of lead poisoning?

A

normal

209
Q

Tx lead poisoning?

A

chealtor***
best chelator: Ca-disodium EDTA

thiamin
cathartics - to move lead out -typically do NOT work
rumenotomy

210
Q

what causes salt poisoning?

A

water deprivation AND

hypernatremia (high Na)

211
Q

predisposing causes to salt poisoning?

A
  • ruminants put to pasture w no water
  • frozen water during winter
  • lack of water in heat
  • high salt (Na) diets
  • stray voltage in waterers
  • improper formulation of electrolytes
212
Q

what is the pathogenesis of salt poisoning?

A
  • creation of hyperosmolar state: water exits brain cells and goes into CSF to re establish equilibrium
  • rapid water intake or rehydration: now the brain cells are hypersomolar relative to the plasma/CSF
  • water flows down the new gradient created and flows into the brain cells
  • cerebral edeam is result
213
Q

what cortical signs are seen with cerebral edema of salt poisoning?

A
  • lethargy, depression
  • ataxia, knuckling at fetlocks, terminal recumbency
  • excitable, agression
214
Q

Dx salt poisoning?

A

serum / CSF Na and osmolality

215
Q

t/f

if CSF and serum Na and osmolality numbers are normal, the animal is not in danger from cerebral edeam / salt poisoning?

A

false

numbers are relative - absolute number does not matter but the gradient is what is important

216
Q

post mortem, what is seen in salt poisoning?

A

cerebral edema
encephalomalacia
eosionphilic perivascular cuffing in SWINE
mononuclear perivascular cuffing in RUMINANTS

217
Q

Tx of salt poisoning?

A
  • slowly add water
  • do NOT add hypotonic fluid- add fluids which match the serum osmolality
  • permit slow excretion of Na load
  • steroids
  • anti convulsants

IP 11 Food Animal Medicine (5 decks)

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