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Radiologic Technology > RT 103 Ch. 3, CA > Flashcards

RT 103 Ch. 3, CA Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 3 groups that the nine regions of the body are divided into, in the REGION method.

A
  1. Superior
  2. Middle
  3. Inferior
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2
Q

What 3 regions of the body are part of the superior group?

A
  1. Right hypochondrium
  2. Epigastrium
  3. Left hypochondrium
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3
Q

What 3 regions of the body are part of the Middle group?

A

Right lateral
Umbilical
Left lateral

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4
Q

If a patient is diagnosed as having epigastric pain what method of division would this be an example of?

A

Region method ( Nine region method)

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5
Q

If a patient is diagnosed as having RLQ pain, what method of division would this be an example of?

A

Quadrant method

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6
Q

Surface Landmarks- C1

A

Mastoid tip

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7
Q

Surface Landmarks- Cervical Area, C2, C3

A

Gonion, (Angle of mandible)

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8
Q

Surface Landmarks- Cervical Area, C3, C4

A

Hyoid Bone

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9
Q

Surface Landmarks- Cervical Area, C5

A

Thyroid cartilage

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10
Q

Surface Landmarks- Cervical Area- C7, T1

A

Vertebra prominens

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11
Q

Surface Landmarks- Thoracic area- T1

A

Approx. 2” (5cm) above level of the jugular notch

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12
Q

Surface Landmarks- Thoracic area- T2, T3

A

Level of Jugular notch

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13
Q

What 3 regions of the body are part of the Inferior group?

A

Right inguinal
hypogastrium
left inguinal

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14
Q

Surface landmarks - Thoracic Area - T4, T5

A

Level of sternal angle

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15
Q

Surface landmarks - Thoracic Area - T7

A

Level of inferior angles of scapulae

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16
Q

Surface landmarks - Thoracic Area - T9, T10

A

Level of xiphoid process

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17
Q

Surface landmarks - Lumbar Area - L2, L3

A

Inferior costal margin

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18
Q

Surface landmarks - Lumbar Area - L4, L5

A

Level of superiormost aspect of iliac crests

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19
Q

Surface landmarks - Sacrum and Pelvic Area - S1, S2

A

Level of anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

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20
Q

Surface landmarks - Sacrum and Pelvic Area - Coccyx

A

Level of pubic symphysis and greater trochanters.

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21
Q

Body Habitus

A

Common variations in the shape of the human body.

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22
Q

Why is the specific type of body habitus important in radiography?

A

Because it determines the size, shape, and position of the organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

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23
Q

What does the body habitus directly affect the locations of which organs?

A 
Heart
Lungs
Diaphragm
Stomach
Colon
Gallbladder
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24
Q

What are the four body types of body habitus?

A

Sthenic (50% of population)
Asthenic (10% of population)
Hyposthenic (35% of population)
Hypersthenic (5% of population)

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25
Q

What percentage of the population has either Sthenic or Hyposthenic body habitus?

A

85%

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26
Q

What is the dominant type of body habitus?

A

Sthenic

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27
Q

Patients with Sthenic or Hyposthenic body habitus are referred to as what?

A

Ordinary or average

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28
Q

Sthenic (50% of population) organ placement

A

Heart: Moderately transverse
Lungs: Moderate length
Diaphragm: Moderately High
Stomach: High, upper left
Colon: Spread evenly, slight dip in transverse colon
Gallbladder: Centered on right upper abdomen

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29
Q

Sthenic (50% of population) characteristics

A

Build: Moderately heavy
Abdomen: Moderately long
Thorax: Moderately short, broad, and deep
Pelvis; Relatively small

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30
Q

Hyposthenic (35% of population)

A

Organs and characteristics for this habitus are intermediate between Sthenic and Asthenic body habitus types: this habitus is the most difficult to classify.

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31
Q

Asthenic (10% of population) organ placement

A

Heart: Nearly vertical and at midline
Lungs: Long, apices above clavicles, may be broader above base
Diaphragm: Low
Stomach: Low and medial, in the pelvis when standing
Colon: low, spreads in itself
Gallbladder: lower and nearer to the midline

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32
Q

Hypersthenic (5% of population) characteristics

A

Build: Massiver; described as having a barrell chest
Abdomen: Long
Thorax: Short, broad, deep
Pelvis; Narrow

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33
Q

Asthenic (10% of population) characteristics

A

Build: Frail
Abdomen: Short
Thorax: long, shallow
Pelvis; Wide

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34
Q

Hypersthenic (5% of population) organ placement

A

Heart: axis nearly transverse
Lungs: short, apices at or near clavicles
Diaphragm: High
Stomach: High and transverse, and i the middle
Colon: Around periphery of abdomen
Gallbladder: High, outside, lies more parallel.

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35
Q

How many bones does the adult human skeleton have?

A

206

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36
Q

What unites bones to the skeleton?

A

Ligaments

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37
Q

What do bones provide?

A
  1. Attachment for muscles
  2. Mechanical basis for movement
  3. Protection of internal organs.
  4. a frame to support the body
  5. Storage for calcium, phosphorus and other salts
  6. Production of red and white blood cells
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38
Q

What are the 2 main groups bones are divided in?

A

Axial skeleton and Appendicular skeleton

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39
Q

Axial Skeleton group of bone

A

supports and protects the head and trunk with 80 bones.

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40
Q

Appendicular skeleton group of bone

A

allows the body to move in various positions and from place to place with 126 bones

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41
Q

Axial skeleton - Skull 28 bones

A

Cranial - 8

Facial - 14

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42
Q

Axial skeleton - Neck 1 bone

A

Hydroid

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43
Q

Axial skeleton - Thorax 25 bones

A

Sternum - 1

Ribs - 24

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44
Q

Axial skeleton - Vertebral Column 26 bones

A 
Cervical -7
Thoracic - 12
Lumbar - 5
sacrum - 1
Coccyx - 1
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45
Q

Appendicular skeleton - Shoulder Girdle 4 bones

A

Clavicles -2

Scapulae -2

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46
Q

Appendicular skeleton - upper limbs 60 bones

A 
Humeri - 2
Ulnae - 2
Radii -2
Carpals - 16
metacarpals - 10
Phalanges -28
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47
Q

Appendicular skeleton - lower limbs 60 bones

A 
Femora - 2
Tibias - 2
Fibuae -2
Patellae - 2
Tarsals -14
Metatarsals - 10
Phalanges -28
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48
Q

Appendicular skeleton - pelvic girdle 2 bones

A

Hip bones - 2

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49
Q

Bone Features

A spiculated network of interconnecting spaces; filled with red and yellow marrow

A

Trabeculae

(Don’t forget that this answer is part of the spongy bone feature, there is also a compact bone outer layer which is also a feature.)

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50
Q

Bones that have a central cavity;which contains trabeculae filled with yellow marrow. Name this type of bone?

A

Long Bones

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51
Q

The name of the cavity containing yellow marrow in long bones?

A

Medullary

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52
Q

This tough fibrous connective tissue covers all bony surfaces except the articular surfaces, which are covered by the articular cartilage.

A

Periosteum

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53
Q

The tissue lining the medullary cavity of bones is called?

A

Endosteum

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54
Q

The term given to the development and formation of bones?

A

Ossification

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55
Q

When do bones begin to develop?

A

In the 2nd month of embryonic life

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56
Q

Ossification
Bones that develop from fibrous membranes in the embryo produce the flat bones? Name the stage in ossification and bones.

A

Intermembranous; Bones of the skull, clavicles, mandible, and sternum

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57
Q

Ossification
Bones that develop from HYALINE CARTILAGE in the bone and produce the short, irregular and long bones. Name the Ossification.

A

Endochondral

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58
Q

Ossification
Begins BEFORE BIRTH and forms the entire bulk of the short and irregular bones, and forms the long central shaft in long bones.

A

Primary

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59
Q

What the long shaft of long bones is called

A

Diaphysis

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60
Q

Ossification

Occurs after birth when a separate bone begins to develop at both ends of each long bone.

A

Secondary

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61
Q

Name the end of each end of the long bone

A

Epiphysis

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62
Q

Name the type of bones found only in the limbs, and examples of these bones?

A

Long bones ; Femur, humerus, phalanges of fingers, and toes

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63
Q

Name the type of bone consisting of cancellous bone containing red marrow and have a thin outer layer of compact bone. Give examples.

A

short bones; carpal bones of the wrist and tarsal bones of the ankles

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64
Q

Name the type of bones which are named for their peculiar shape? Give examples.

A

Irregular bones; vertebrae and bones in the pelvis

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65
Q

Name the type of bones which are small and oval, and develop inside and beside tendons. Give examples

A

Sesamoid bones; Patella

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66
Q

The study of the joints, or articulations between bones.

A

Arthrology

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67
Q

Functional Classification:

Immovable joints

A

Synarthroses

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68
Q

Functional Classification

Slightly movable joints

A

Amphiarthroses

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69
Q

Functional Classification

Freely movable

A

Diarthroses

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70
Q

Name the three groups of joints?

A

Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial

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71
Q

Name the three types of Fibrous joints?

A

Syndesmosis, Suture, Gomphosis

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72
Q

Structural Classification
Name this fibrous immovable or slightly movable joint united by sheets of fibrous tissue.
Also name the functional class.

A

Syndesmosis

Functional: Synarthroses or Amphiarthroses

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73
Q

Give an example of a Syndesmosis joint.

A

The inferior tibiofibular joint

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74
Q

Structural Classification
Name this fibrous immovable joint occuring only in the skull.
Also name the functional class.

A

Suture

Functional: Synarthroses

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75
Q

Structural Classification
Name this fibrous immovable joint occuring only in the roots of the teeth
Also name the functional class.

A

Gomphosis

Functional: Synarthroses

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76
Q

Name the two types of Cartilaginous joints:

A

Symphysis, Synchondrosis

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77
Q

Structural Classification
Name this cartilaginous slightly movable joint separated by a pad of fibrocartilage and designed for strength and shock absorbency.
Also name the functional class.

A

Symphysis

Functional: Ampiarthroses

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78
Q

Give an example of a symphysis joint:

A

The joint between the two pubic bones (pubic symphysis)

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79
Q

Structural Classification
Name this cartilaginous immovable joint that contains a rigid cartilage that units two bones.
Also name the functional class.

A

Synchondrosis

Funtional: Synarthrosis

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80
Q

Give an example of a synchondrosis joint:

A

The epiphyseal plate found between the epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing long bone.

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81
Q

Name the six types of Synovial joints:

A
  1. Gliding (or Plane)
  2. Hinge (or Ginglymus)
  3. Pivot (or Trochoid)
  4. Ellipsoid (or Condyloid)
  5. Saddle (or Sellar)
  6. Ball and Socket (Spheroid)
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82
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with uniaxial movement, that permits slight movement, and contain flattened or slightly curved surfaces.
Also name the functional class.

A

Gliding (or Plane)

Funtional: Diarthroses

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83
Q

Give an example of a Gliding (or Plane) joint?

A

The intertarasal and intercarpal joints of the ankles and wrists.

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84
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with uniaxial movement, that permits only flexion and extension:
Also name the functional class.

A

Hinge (or Ginglymus)

Functional: Diarthroses

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85
Q

Give an example of the Hinge (or Ginglymus) joint:

A

The elbow knee, and ankle

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86
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with uniaxial movement, that permits rotation around a single axis.
Also name the functional class

A

Pivot (or trochoid)

Functional: Diarthroses

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87
Q

Give an example of the Pivot (or trochoid) joint:

A

The articulation of the atlas and axis of the cervical spine

88
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with biaxial movement, that permits movement in two directions at right angles to each other.
Also name the functional class.

A

Ellipsoid (condyloid)

Functional: Diarthroses

89
Q

Give an example of the Ellipsoid (or condyloid) joint:

A

The radiocarpal joint of the wrist

90
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with biaxial movement, that permits movement in two axes, similar to the ellipsoid joint.
Also name the functional class.

A

The Saddle joint (or spheroid)

Functional: Diarthroses

91
Q

Structural Classification
Name this synovial joint with multiaxial movement, and permits movement in many axes, including flexion, and extension, abdution, and aduction.
Also name the functional class.

A

Ball and socket ( or spheroid)

Funtional: Diarthroses

92
Q

What are all bones composed of?

A

outer layer called compact bone which protects the bone and supports the body and an inner layer called spongy bone that contain trabeculae

93
Q

What does red marrow produce?

A

red and white blood cells.

94
Q

What does yellow marrow do?

A

stores adipose (fat) cells.

95
Q

What are the knoblike projections of the bone called and what is the function?

A

tubercles and tuberosities which are covered by the Periosteum, the projections serve as contact point for muscles, ligaments and tendons to attach to.

96
Q

Where do blood vessels and nerves enter and exit through?

A

foramina (part of the Periosteum)

97
Q

Processes and projections

A

extend beyond or project out from the main body of a bone.

98
Q

Processes and projections:

condyle

A

rounded process at an articular extremity

99
Q

Processes and projections:

coracoid or coronoid

A

beakike or crownlike process

100
Q

Processes and projections

crest

A

ridgelike process

101
Q

Processes and projections

epiccondyle

A

projection above a condyle

102
Q

Processes and projections

facet

A

small, smooth - surfaced process for articulation with another structure.

103
Q

Processes and projections

hamulus

A

hook-shaped process

104
Q

Processes and projections

head

A

expanded end of a long bone

105
Q

Processes and projections

horn

A

hornlike process on a bone

106
Q

Processes and projections

line

A

less prominent ridge than a crest; a linear elevation.

107
Q

Processes and projections

malleolus

A

club-shaped process

108
Q

Processes and projections

protuberance

A

projecting part or prominence

109
Q

Processes and projections

spine

A

sharp process

110
Q

Processes and projections

styloid

A

long, pointed process

111
Q

Processes and projections

trochanter

A

either of two large, rounded, and elevated processes (greater or major and lessor or minor) located at junction of neck and shaft of femur

112
Q

Processes and projections

tubercle

A

small, rounded, and elevated process

113
Q

Processes and projections

tuberosity

A

large, rounded and elevated process

114
Q

What is a depression?

A

hollow or depressed areas

115
Q

Depression

fissure

A

cleft or deep groove

116
Q

Depression

foremen

A

hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves.

117
Q

Depression

fossa

A

pit, fovea, or hollow space

118
Q

Depression

groove

A

shallow linear channel

119
Q

Depression

meatus

A

tubelike passageway running within a bone.

120
Q

Depression

notch

A

indentation into border of a bone.

121
Q

Depression

sinus

A

recess, groove, cavity, or hollow space, such as (1) recess or groove in bone, as used to designate a channel for venous blood on inner surface of cranium; (2) air cavity in bone or hollow space in other tissue (used to designate a hollow space within a bone, as in paranasal sinuses; (3) fustula or supporting channel in soft tissue.

122
Q

Depression

sulcus

A

furrow, trench, or fissurelike depression

123
Q

What is a fracture

A

a break in the bone.

124
Q

How are fracture classified?

A

According to the nature of the break

125
Q

Fracture

closed

A

fracture that does not break through the skin

126
Q

Fracture

displaced

A

serious fracture in which bones are not in anatomic allignment

127
Q

Fracture

nondisplaced

A

fracture in which bone retains its normal alignment

128
Q

Fracture

open/compound

A

serious fracture in which broken bone or bones project through the skin

129
Q

what are the common classifications of fractures?

A 
compression
open or compound
simple
greenstick
transverse
spiral or oblique
comminuted
impacted
130
Q

What does anterior (ventral) mean?

A

refers to forward or front part of the body or forward part of an organ

131
Q

What does posterior (dorsal) mean?

A

refers to forward or back part of the body organ

(note, however that the superior surface of the foot is referred to as the dorsal surface.

132
Q

What does caudad mean?

A

refers to parts away from the head of the body

133
Q

What does cephalad mean?

A

refers to parts towards the head of the body

134
Q

What does inferior mean?

A

refers to nearer the feet or situated below

135
Q

What does superior mean?

A

refers to nearer the head or situated above

136
Q

What does central mean?

A

refers to middle area or main part of organ

137
Q

What does peripheral mean?

A

refers to parts at or near the surface, edge, or outside if another body part

138
Q

What does ipsilateral mean?

A

refers to part or parts on the same side of the body

139
Q

What does contralateral mean?

A

refers to part or parts on the opposite side of the body

140
Q

What does lateral mean?

A

refers to parts away from the medium plane of the body or away from the middle of another body part to the right or left

141
Q

What does medial mean?

A

refers to parts toward the medium plane of the body or toward the middle of another part of the body

142
Q

What does deep mean?

A

refers to parts far from the surface

143
Q

What does superficial mean?

A

refers to parts near the skin or surface

144
Q

What does distal mean?

A

refers to parts farthest from the point of attachment, point of reference, origin, or beginning; away from center of body

145
Q

What does proximal mean?

A

refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, point of reference origin, or beginning; toward the center of the body

146
Q

What does external mean?

A

refers to parts outside an organ or on the outside of the body

147
Q

What does internal mean?

A

refers to parts within or on the inside of an organ

148
Q

What does parietal mean?

A

refers to the wall or lining of a body cavity

149
Q

What does visceral mean?

A

refers to the covering of an organ

150
Q

What does dorsum mean?

A

refers to the top or anterior surface of the foot or to the back or posterior surface of the hand

151
Q

What does palmar mean?

A

refers to the palm of the hand

152
Q

What does plantar mean?

A

refers to the sole of the foot

153
Q

What are the four positioning terms most used in radiology?

A
  1. projection
  2. position
    3 view
  3. method
154
Q

Define projection

A

the path of the central ray as it exits the xray tube and goes through the patient to the IR.

Most projections are defined by the entrance and exit points in the body and are based on ANATOMIC POSITION.

155
Q

Relationship projections

A

relationship formed by the central and the body as the central ray passes through the entire body or body part.

examples include the axial and tangential projections.

156
Q

Anteroposterior projection

A

a perpendicular central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits posterior body surfaces.

157
Q

Anteroposterior projection - patient postions

A

supine or dorsal recumbent body position, upright position, seated position or lateral decubitus position

158
Q

Posteroanterior projection

A

a perpendicular central ray enters the posterior body surface and exits anterior body surfaces.

159
Q

Posteroanterior projection - patient positions

A

upright
seated
prone ( ventral recumbent)
lateral decubitus

160
Q

Axial projection

A

there is longitudinal angulation of the central ray with the long axis of the body or specific body part.

161
Q

Axial projection - patient positions

A

based on the anatomic position and is most often produced by angling the central ray cephalad or caudad. (can be obtained with the patient in virtually any body position.

162
Q

Axial

A

refers to all projections in which the longitudinal angulation between the central ray and the long axis of the body part is 10 degrees or more.

163
Q

Tangential position

A

occasionally the central ray is directed toward the outer margin of the curved body surface to profile a body part just under the surface and project free of superimposition.

Relationship is formed between the central ray and the entire body or body part

164
Q

Lateral projection

A

perpendicular central ray enters one side of the body or body part, passes transversely along the coronal plane, and exits opposite side.

165
Q

Left or right lateral postion

A

specifies the side of the body closest to the IR

166
Q

Oblique projection

A

central ray enters the body or body part from a single angle following an oblique plane. May enter from either side of body and from anterior and posterior surfaces.

167
Q

AP oblique projection

A

enters anterior surface and exits the opposite posterior surface

168
Q

PA oblique projection

A

enters posterior surface and exits anteriorly.

169
Q

What type of positioning would RPO be?

A

Right Posterior Oblique - places the right posterior surface closest to the IR and corresponds with an AP projection exiting through the same side.

170
Q

True projections

A

Body part must be placed EXACTLY in the anatomic position.

171
Q

In Profile

A

is an outlined or silhouette view of an anatomic structure that has a distinctive shape.

172
Q

Postion

A

Used in 2 ways in radiology
1. identifies the overall posture of the patient or the general body position.
2 specific placement of the body part in relation to the radiographic table or IR during imaging.

173
Q

General Body Position used in radiography practice

upright

A

erect or marked by a vertical postion

174
Q

General Body Position used in radiography practice

seated

A

upright position in which the patient is sitting on a chair or stool

175
Q

General Body Position used in radiography practice

recumbent

A

general term referring to lying down in any position such as dorsal recumbent, ventral recumbent, or lateral recumbent

176
Q

General Body Position used in radiography practice

supine

A

lying on the back

177
Q

General Body Position used in radiography practice

prone

A

lying face down

178
Q

Lateral position

A

lateral radiographic positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is placed closest to the IR.

179
Q

Oblique position

A

achieved when the entire body or body part is rotated so that the coronal is not parallel with the radiographic table or IR.

Named according to the side of the patient that is placed closest to the IR.

180
Q

decubitus position

A

indicates that the patient is lying down and that the central ray is horizontal and parallel with the floor.

181
Q

Name the 3 primary decubitus positions

A 
lateral decubitus (left or right)
dorsal decubitus
ventral decubitus
182
Q

Which primary decubitus position is used most often?

183
Q

Lordotic position

A

achieved by having the patient lean backward while in the upright body position so that only the shoulders are in contact with the IR.

184
Q

Body Movement Terminology

abduct or abduction

A

movement from a part away from the central axis of the body or body part.

185
Q

Body Movement Terminology

adduct or adduction

A

movement from a part toward the central axis of the body or body part.

186
Q

Body Movement Terminology

extension

A

straightening of a joint when both elements of the joint are in the atomic position; normal position of joint.

187
Q

Body Movement Terminology

flexion

A

act of bending a joint, opposite of extension

188
Q

Body Movement Terminology

hyperextension

A

forced or excessive extension of a limb or joints.

189
Q

Body Movement Terminology

hyperflexion

A

forced overflexion of a limb or joints

190
Q

Body Movement Terminology

evert/eversion

A

outward turning of the foot at the ankle

191
Q

Body Movement Terminology

invert/inversion

A

inward turning of the foot at the ankle

192
Q

Body Movement Terminology

pronate/pronation

A

rotation of the forearm so that the palm is down.

193
Q

Body Movement Terminology

supinate/supination

A

rotation of the forearm so that the palm is up.

194
Q

Body Movement Terminology

rotate/rotation

A

turning or rotating of a body or a body part around its axis rotation of a limb is either medial (toward the midline of the body from the anatomic position or lateral (away from the midline of the body from the anatomic position.

195
Q

Body Movement Terminology

circumduction

A

circular movement of a limb

196
Q

Body Movement Terminology

tilt

A

tipping or slanting a body part slightly; tilt is in relation to the long axis of the body.

197
Q

Body Movement Terminology

deviation

A

turning away from the regular standard or course

198
Q

Body Movement Terminology

dorsiflexion

A

flexion or bending the foot toward the leg

199
Q

Body Movement Terminology

plantar flexion

A

flexion or bending the foot downward toward the sole.

200
Q

What are the four fundamental body planes referred regularly in radiography?

A
  1. Sagittal
  2. Coronal
  3. Horizontal
  4. Oblique
201
Q

The body plane that divides the entire body or a body part into right and left segments . It passes VERTICALLY through the body from from to back.

202
Q

The body plane that passes through the midline of the body and divides it into equal right and left halves.

A

Mid-Sagittal

203
Q

The body plane that divides the entire body or a body part into anterior and posterior segments. It passes through the body vertically from one side to the other.

204
Q

A specific body plane that passes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal anterior and posterior halves.

A

Mid-Coronal

205
Q

The mid-coronal plane is also known as?

A

mid-axillary plane

206
Q

The body plane that passes crosswise through the body or body part at right angles to the longitudinal axis.

A

Horizontal

207
Q

The Horizontal plane is also referred to as?

A

Transverse , axial, cross-sectional plane

208
Q

The body angle that can pass through a body part at any angle among any of the other planes.

209
Q

What are the two great cavities of the torso?

A

Thoracic and Abdominal

210
Q

The body cavity that is sub-divided into a pericardial segment and two pleural portions.

A

Thoracic cavity

211
Q

The body cavity that has no intervening partition, the lower portion is called the pelvic cavity

A

Abdominal cavity

212
Q 
The body cavity containing:
Pleural membranes
Lungs
Esophagus
Pericardium
Heart and great vessels
A

Thoracic cavity

213
Q 
The body cavity containing:
Peritoneum
Liver 
Gallbladder
Pancreas
Spleen
Stomach
Intestines
Kidneys
Ureters
A

Abdominal cavity

214
Q

Name the methods the abdomen can be divided.

A

Four quadrants or Nine regions

215
Q

Name the four clinical divisions in the quadrant method.

A

Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)

Radiologic Technology (15 decks)

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