RNA, Transcription, And Translation Flashcards

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1
Q

In eukaryotes, which RNA polymerase makes rRNA?

Possible Answers:
RNA polymerase II

RNA polymerase I

RNA polymerase IV

RNA polymerase III

A

RNA polymerase I

Explanation:
The RNA polymerases are numbered in the order that their products are used in protein synthesis.

RNA polymerase I makes ribosomal rRNA in eukaryotes.

RNA polymerase II makes messenger mRNA in eukaryotes.

RNA polymerase III makes transfer tRNA in eukaryotes.

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2
Q

Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is solely required for initiation of transcription?

Possible Answers:
σ (sigma)

β (beta)

ω (omega)

α (alpha)

A

σ (sigma)

Explanation:
The sigma factor is solely required for the initiation of transcription. In fact, the sigma subunit will often fall off of the enzyme during the elongation phase of transcription. Binding of the sigma factor is an important signal for transcription to begin.

The other subunits are crucial to the elongation and termination phases.

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3
Q

Which of the following codons is the mRNA start codon that initiates translation?

Possible Answers:
UAG

UGA

AUG

UAA

A

AUG

Explanation:
The codon AUG initiates translation in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Interaction with this codon by a tRNA molecule allows a methionine residue to enter the ribosome and serve as the starting point for amino acid elongation.

UGA, UAA, and UAG are mRNA stop codons and stop protein synthesis by causing the ribosomal subunits to dissociate and release the polypeptide.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the key function of helicases during transcription?

Possible Answers:
Catalyzing the interaction between transcription factors and the DNA strand.

Relief of tension in the DNA strands to prevent breakage.

Separation of two strands of DNA; “unwinding” gives polymerases access to the strand.

Re-annealing of two DNA strands once transcription and translation processes are complete.

Cleaving methyl groups from an unwound DNA strand.

A

Separation of two strands of DNA; “unwinding” gives polymerases access to the strand.

Explanation:
Helicases are required for separating two DNA strands so that the rest of transcription can take place. Polymerases work on single strands of DNA, thus the bonds holding the double strands together must be removed.

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5
Q

Transcription factors that are the first to bind DNA in heterochromatin regions, often promote euchromatin formation, and recruit other transcriptional machinery to promote transcription are best known as which of the following?

Possible Answers:
DNA Polymerases

RNA holoenzyme

Pioneer factors

Histone demethyltransferases

Co-factors

A

Pioneer factors

Explanation:
The correct answer is pioneer factors. Pioneer factors are able to bind DNA in condensed regions and promote euchromatin formation by recruitment of histone demethyltransferases and acteyltransfereses to modify proximal histones. Additionally, these pioneer factors recruit other transcription factors and co-factors to promote transcription. DNA polymerases are involved with DNA replication, not transcription. The RNA holoenzyme is a protein complex consisting of RNA polymerase, transcription factors, and regulator proteins that binds promoters and catalyzes transcription.

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6
Q

Before RNA polymerase can initiate transcription, this protein must bind to it, creating the RNA polymerase holoenzyme and allowing for the initiation of transcription.

Possible Answers:
Activator protein

Helicase

Topoisomerase

Beta factor

Sigma factor

A

Sigma factor

Explanation:
RNA polymerase cannot initiate transcription by itself. It binds to the promoter but must wait for a sigma factor to bind to it. Now the RNA polymerase holoenzyme can proceed with transcription.

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7
Q

Which of the following is not dependent on the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II?

Possible Answers:
Polyadenylation

Transcription termination

mRNA splicing

None of the other answers

5’ capping

A

None of the other answers

Explanation:
The correct answer is none of the other answers. Only mRNA transcribed by polymerase II undergo 5’ capping, polyadenylation, and splicing. The C-terminal domain of this polymerase serves as a binding site and docking platform for many of the enzymes that initiate these processes. Moreover, experiments in which the CTD is truncated show that mRNA transcripts are not capped, polyadenylated, and spliced.

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8
Q

Which polymerase is involved in transcribing ribosomal RNA (except 5S rRNA)?

Possible Answers:
RNA polymerase I

DNA polymerase V

DNA polymerase IV

RNA polymerase II

RNA polymerase III

A

RNA polymerase I

Explanation:
The correct answer is RNA polymerase I. The sole purpose of RNA polymerase I in eukaryotes is to transcribe ribosomal RNA, with the exception of 5S rRNA, which is transcribed by RNA polymerase III. RNA polymerase III also transcribes tRNAs and other small RNAs. Transcripts of RNA polymerase II are 5’ capped, polyadenylated, and spliced to ultimately be translated into functional protein. DNA polymerase IV/V are polymerases involved in DNA replication and repair.

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9
Q

What is the role of the promoter region in the regulation of gene expression?

Possible Answers:
Allow for alternative splicing and recombination of genetic components

Bind negative regulators to inhibit gene expression

Alter gene expression by binding transcription factors

Recruit RNA polymerase and transcription factors to DNA

A

Recruit RNA polymerase and transcription factors to DNA

Explanation:
The promoter region is the site of a gene where RNA polymerase and other transcription factors bind to DNA, upstream from the gene locus. A mutation in this region commonly results in a decrease in the amount of gene transcribed.

An enhancer region is a stretch of DNA that alters gene expression by binding transcription factors, while a silencer region is a site on the gene where repressor proteins bind. Introns are intervening non-coding segments of DNA that are not expressed in the final protein. Alternative splicing patterns of introns and exons allows for multiple proteins to be generated from a single gene.

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10
Q

Which of the following are methods for termination of transcription in prokaryotes?

I. Release factor binding

II. Rho-mediated termination

III. Hairpin loop (stem loop) formation

Possible Answers:
III only

II and III

I, II, and III

I only

A

II and III

Explanation:
The binding of release factors is a common way to terminate translation, not transcription.

Rho-mediated termination and hairpin loop formation are both common ways to terminate prokaryotic transcription. The formation of the hairpin loop disrupts the transcription machinery and the DNA-RNA interactions, which allows termination of transcription. Rho is a protein that is capable of binding single-stranded RNA and terminating transcription.

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11
Q

What event is indicative of transcription initiation?

Possible Answers:
RNA polymerase is removed from the DNA

Telomerase lengthens the telomeres of the DNA

The RNA strand begins to be synthesized

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

A

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

Explanation:
During the initiation of transcription, RNA polymerase and a group of transcription factors bind to the promoter for a given gene. This DNA segment signals the RNA polymerase where to begin creating the RNA strand.

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes distant regulatory sequences that influence gene expression?

Possible Answers:
Transcriptional start sites

Promoters

Enhancers

Exons

Introns

A

Enhancers

Explanation:
The correct answer is enhancer. Transcription factors and mediators bind enhancer regions of DNA and influence the transcription of distant genes by chromatin looping to the proximal promoter. Promoters are regulatory sequences, however, they are typically 2 kilobase pairs upstream of the gene for which they influence transcription. Introns and exons make up a gene and are the non-coding and coding regions of the gene, respectively. The transcriptional start site consists of the first few nucleotides that are transcribed into an mRNA sequence from a gene, usually containing the 5’ untranslated region (UTR).

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13
Q

When does alternative splicing occur?

Possible Answers:
Following mRNA loading into ribosome

Following mRNA translocation to the cytosol

Following mRNA polyadenylation

Following pre-mRNA transcription in the nucleus

Following translation

A

Following pre-mRNA transcription in the nucleus

Explanation:
The correct answer is following pre-mRNA transcription in the nucleus. Pre-mRNA contains introns and exons. Following transcription, splicing and alternative splicing occurs to remove introns and select exons, respectively, by the spliceosome. Following splicing, 3’ poly adenylation and 5’ capping occur to generate a mature mRNA transcript that will translocate to the cytosol and be translated by ribosomes.

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14
Q

What element(s) do all eukaryotic promoter regions share?

Possible Answers:
A basal promoter (TATA box)

Enhancers that accept binding agents

None of these

Transcription factors

All of these

A

All of these

Explanation:
Eukaryotic promoters share basic, highly conserved structure. This area does not evolve quickly because it is extremely important in DNA transcription. These promoters (in most cases) include a basic basal promoter like a TATA box, and enhancers that bind to transcription factors.

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15
Q

During transcription of a eukaryotic cell, what determines the template strand?

Possible Answers:
The base sequence of the operator

The location of the AUG start codon

The base sequence of the promoter

The base sequence of the enhancer

The location of the MET start codon

A

The base sequence of the promoter

Explanation:
The TATA box is found in the promoter region of the template strand. This TATA box serves as a signal for the initiation of translation of DNA into mRNA. The location of the promoter region and it’s unique base sequence signals the start of the translation process.

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16
Q

Which of the following processes is not a type of RNA processing carried out by eukaryotes?

Possible Answers:
Splicing and removal of introns

Nucleotide excision repair

Capping of the 5’ end

Polyadenylation of the 3’ end

A

Nucleotide excision repair

Explanation:
Processing of pre-mRNA occurs in the nucleus. After transcription, three crucial modification take place. A 7-methylguanosine molecule is added to the 5’ end to form a cap. Polyadenylation is added to the 3’ end to create a poly-A tail. Introns are spliced out by spliceosomes, removing the non-coding regions of the RNA. The final product after modifications is considered a mature mRNA; prior to this, the transcript is known as heteronuclear RNA (htRNA).

Nucleotide excision repair is a method of proofreading after DNA replication to reduce the frequency of mutation.

17
Q

What are exons?

Possible Answers:
Site where repressor proteins bind

Set of genes that are adjacent to one another in the genome and are coordinately controlled

Intervening non-coding segments of DNA

Genetic information coding for an amino acid sequence that will form a functional protein

A

Genetic information coding for an amino acid sequence that will form a functional protein

Explanation:
Exons contain the actual genetic information coding for protein. In contrast, introns are intervening non-coding segments of DNA. During the splicing process of pre-mRNA modification, introns are removed from the sequence. Alternative splicing patterns allow multiple exon sequences to be created from a single gene, resulting in multiple proteins.

An operon is a set of genes that are adjacent to one another in the genome and are coordinately controlled. The silencer region is a site of a gene where repressor proteins bind to regulate gene expression.

18
Q

What are snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleic particles)?

Possible Answers:
RNA molecules that serve as the link between the nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins

RNA component of the ribosome, essential for protein synthesis

RNA molecules that convey genetic information from DNA to the ribosome

RNA protein complexes that combine with pre-mRNA and other proteins to form a spliceosome

A

RNA protein complexes that combine with pre-mRNA and other proteins to form a spliceosome

Explanation:
snRNPs are RNA protein complexes that combine with pre-mRNA and other proteins to form a spliceosome. Spliceosomes remove introns from pre-mRNA. After final modifications, the spliced pre-mRNA is considered mature mRNA and can be exported to the cytoplasm for translation.

mRNA is an RNA molecule that conveys genetic material from DNA to the ribosome. tRNA is an RNA molecule that serves as the link between the nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins. rRNA is the RNA component of the ribosome that is essential for protein synthesis in all living organisms.

19
Q

Which of the following is not a type of RNA?

Possible Answers:
rRNA

cRNA

tRNA

mRNA

A

cRNA

Explanation:
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are the most commonly recognized types of RNA, though there are several more divisions. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is the product of gene transcription and is used to carry genetic information to ribosomes for translation. Transfer RNA (tRNA) is used to transport amino acid residues to active ribosomes during translation and contains anticodon sequences to bind to mRNA. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) forms part of the ribosomes structure.

Though cRNA is not a class of RNA molecule, complementary DNA (cDNA) is used to store and analyze genomes. cDNA is the non-coding complement to the template strand used for transcription, and can be used to analyze genetic sequences

20
Q

All of the follwing are types of alternative RNA splicing except __________.

Possible Answers:
skipped exon

dual splice site

alternative 3’ splicing

exon reversal

A

exon reversal

Explanation:
Skipped exon, dual splice site, and alternative 3’ splicing are all types of alternative RNA splicing. Exon reversal is a nonsense term, and does not represent an actual biochemical process.