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MRSO 2 > Rite ad 5 > Flashcards

Rite ad 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is possible if a cryogen is released into the MR room?
Start snowing in the room
Start raining in the room
Have poor visibility
All of the choices

A

Start snowing in the room
Start raining in the room
Have poor visibility

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2
Q

A cryogen released in the scan room will do what to the room pressure?
Increase it
Not change it
Decrease it
Vary it

A

Increase it

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3
Q

Helium is very reactive?
True
False

A

False

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4
Q

What is hypothermia?
When the blood pressure decreases dramatically
When the blood pressure increases dramatically
When the body temperature gets dangerously warm
When the body temperatures get dangerously cold

A

When the body temperatures get dangerously cold

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5
Q

The gas ratio of helium is what?
1:2
200:1
1:1
700:1

A

700:1

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6
Q

If a cryogen touches a patient skin, what would happen?
Nothing
2nd-degree burn
Frostbite/tissue necrosis
Infection

A

Frostbite/tissue necrosis

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7
Q

How cold is helium in its liquid state?
500 Kelvin
-100 degrees Celsius
0 Kelvin
~4 Kelvin

A

~4 Kelvin

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8
Q

The change in pressure in the MRI scan room can do what to the patient during a malfunctioned quench?
Form a magnetic field around the scan table
Throw the patient around the room
Cause the room to shake
A patient may experience ear pain from increased pressure

A

A patient may experience ear pain from increased pressure

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9
Q

What occurs if a quench vent pathway fails?
Pressure within the MR scan room would increase
The static magnetic field will increase in strength
The gradient coils will be activated
The RF transmitter will emit a resonant frequency

A

Pressure within the MR scan room would increase

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10
Q

If a cryogen is released into the MR room, what could occur in the patient?
Asphyxia
Bronchitis
Neuropathy
Proximity Burn

A

Asphyxia

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11
Q

The degree that a tissue demonstrates T1 and T2 relaxation post contrast media injection refer to what?
Relaxivity
Osmolarity
Chelation
Viscosity

A

Relaxivity

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12
Q

Which of the following are contraindication(s) to the administration of a GBCA?
None of the above
Sickle-cell
Beta-blockers
Asthma

A

None of the above

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13
Q

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis is caused by what?
When the gadolinium ion is excreted from the body quickly
When the gadolinium ion is excreted by the liver
When the patient is allergic to gadolinium contrast media
When a gadolinium ion breaks free from the ligand and remains in the body

A

When a gadolinium ion breaks free from the ligand and remains in the body

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14
Q

A patient receives many doses of gadolinium contrast over their lifetime. They come in for an MR brain and T1 shortening is seen pre-contrast in the dentate nuclei and basal ganglia. What is this called?
Retained gadolinium
Magnetohydrodynamic effect
NSF
Anthropogenic

A

Retained gadolinium

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15
Q

Normal kidneys should excrete all gadolinium contrast from a patient how quickly?
32 hr
6 hr
12 hr
24 hr

A

24 hr

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16
Q

A contrast media with a high relaxivity will do what when compared to a contrast media with a lower relaxivity?
It will produce more signal
It will produce less signal
It will produce more image noise
It will improve the resolution

A

It will produce more signal

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17
Q

A disease that may be connected with delivering gadolinium contrast to patients with compromised renal function is called?
Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis
Musculoskeletal fibrosis
Fibromyalgia
Gadolinuim deposition

A

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis

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18
Q

Which of the following gadolinium contrast agents will demonstrate the highest risk of NSF in patients who are in renal failure?
Linear non-ionic contrast
Linear ionic contrast
Macrocyclic ionic contrast
Macrocyclic non-ionic contrast

A

Linear non-ionic contrast

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19
Q

The detection of gadolinium in the drinking water is called?
Gadolinium retention
NSF
Anthropogenic
Teratogenesis

A

Anthropogenic

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20
Q

The frequency of acute adverse reactions to GBCA is about______times higher in patients with previous reaction to GBCM.
3
0.06
5
8

A

8

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21
Q

What is the national standard formula for pediatrics and eGFR?
MSDS
CKD-EPI
SER-EGFR
Bedside Schwartz

A

Bedside Schwartz

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22
Q

Anthropogenic gadolinium can be described as what?
The influence of gadolinium on patients with renal insufficiency
When the accumulation of gadolinium occurs in the body
When gadolinium is found in the water supply
When the retention of gadolinium in specific tissues is present

A

When gadolinium is found in the water supply

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23
Q

A disease that causes fibrosis of the skin and organs of a patient who receives unstable gadolinium-based contrast media is called?
Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis
Musculoskeletal fibrosis
Fibromyalgia
Gadolinuim deposition

A

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis

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24
Q

Which of the following is true if we increase the image matrix from 256×256 to 512×512?
We reduce peripheral nerve stimulation
Our phase encoding gradient would active a stronger magnetic gradient field
Our phase encoding gradients would activate a weaker magnetic gradient field
We reduce patient heating

A

Our phase encoding gradient would active a stronger magnetic gradient field

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25
Q

What is true of peripheral nerve stimulation?
An exam must be stopped if this occurs
It can cause discomfort to the patient
It is always life-threatening
All of the choices

A

It can cause discomfort to the patient

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26
Q

What is the FDA limit for the effects of peripheral nerve stimulation?
What the patient can tolerate
300mT/m
300W/kg
1 degree Celsius

A

What the patient can tolerate

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27
Q

Which of the following will produce the greatest possibility of peripheral nerve stimulation when we change the following, but not the slew rate?
Moving from a large image matrix (384×384) to a small image matrix (160×160)
Changing your slice thickness from 2mm to 7mm
Moving from a small FOV (120mm) to a large FOV (350mm)
Moving from a small image matrix (320×320) to a large image matrix (512×512)

A

Moving from a small image matrix (320×320) to a large image matrix (512×512)

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28
Q

Where will peripheral nerve stimulation be felt with the most intensity?
At isocenter
Further away from isocenter in the gantry
At the level of the table when it is advanced
Outside the gantry near the 5 gauss line

A

Further away from isocenter in the gantry

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29
Q

Which of the following is true if we increase the field of view from 200mm to 400mm?
We use a weak time-varying gradient magnetic field
We reduce patient heating
We increase the patient heating
We use a stronger time-varying gradient magnetic field

A

We use a weak time-varying gradient magnetic field

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30
Q

Which of the following concerns can be caused by the time-varying gradient magnetic field with a lead in the heart?
Muscle fatigue
Anaphylaxis
Arrhythmia
All of the choices

A

Arrhythmia

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31
Q

Which of the following is measured in milliseconds?
Spatial gradient
The rise time
The slew rate
Maximum gradient peak

A

The rise time

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32
Q

Which of the following pulse sequences will produce the greatest chance for peripheral nerve stimulation?
Conventional spin echo
Fast spin echo
Gradient echo
EPI

A

EPI

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33
Q

Which of the following will produce a minimal chance of peripheral nerve stimulation when using the same slew rate?
Going from a small image matrix (256×256) to a large image matrix (512×512)
Going from a large FOV (300 mm) to a small FOV (200 mm)
Going from a thick slice (5 mm) to a thin slice (1 mm)
Going from a large image matrix (512 x 512) to a small image matrix (320×320)

A

Going from a large image matrix (512 x 512) to a small image matrix (320×320)

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34
Q

Do not expose implant to more than 80% the maximum threshold of the gradient coils, means:
That we must stay in normal operation mode.
That we must stay in first-level mode
That we must stay in second-level mode

A

That we must stay in normal operation mode.

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35
Q

The slew rate influences which of the following?
The amount of induced stimulation in our patient
The amount of heating in our patient
The rotational forces
The translational forces

A

The amount of induced stimulation in our patient

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36
Q

Which of the following bioeffects are associated with the time-varying gradient magnetic field? Select all that apply.

Significant heating
Magnetophosphenes
Magnetohydrodynamic effect
Peripheral nerve stimulation

A

Magnetophosphenes

Peripheral nerve stimulation

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37
Q

Which of the following is measured in mT/m?
The rise time
Maximum gradient peak
The slew rate
Spatial gradient

A

Maximum gradient peak

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38
Q

Which of the following is measured in T/m/s?
The slew rate
Maximum gradient peak
The rise time
Spatial gradient

A

The slew rate

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39
Q

1.5T and 3T MR units typically have a maximum gradient peak of what?
10-20 mT/m
0-20 mT/m
20-35 mT/m
30-45 mT/m

A

30-45 mT/m

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40
Q

The speed that the gradient coils can activate and deactivate is called the?
The rise time
Maximum gradient peak
Spatial gradient
The slew rate

A

The slew rate

41
Q

Which of the following mechanisms of patient burning is associated with the antenna effect?
Ferrous induction
Induced loop burning
Resonant burning
Proximity burning

A

Resonant burning

42
Q

When can heating occur in a wire that is exposed to RF?
When the transmitted wavelength is half of the resonant frequency or is a multiple of the length of that
When objects get smaller
Only in ferrous objects
In small round metal objects

A

When the transmitted wavelength is half of the resonant frequency or is a multiple of the length of that

43
Q

When discussing the distance from an RF transmitter and the biological effects witnessed, which of the following describe the area where the most energy is absorbed in implants and/or our patient?
Far field
Near field
Circular polarization
Danger zone

A

Near field

44
Q

_________ diameter loop formed by tissues or devices with a _________ contact point will increase the chance for induced loop burns?
Large; small
Narrow; large
Large; large
Narrow; small

A

Large; small

45
Q

A burn that correlates with tissue in contact with the side of the bore at the level of the RF transmitter is referred to as what?
Missile effect
Reflective burning
Resonant burning
Proximity burning

A

Proximity burning

46
Q

What is the SAR limit for the whole body in first-level controlled operating mode?
8 W/kg for 6 min.
7 W/kg for 6 min.
3 W/kg for 6 min.
4 W/kg for 6min.

A

4 W/kg for 6min.

47
Q

Which of the following is a “heat sink” in MRI?
Ice pack
Insulated wire
Ferrous object
All of the choices

A

Ice pack

48
Q

Loops created with tissue or devices can cause which of the following harmful effects when experiencing an RF exposure?
Burning
Missile effect
Lenz’s force
Peripheral nerve stimulation

A

Burning

49
Q

The IEC 60601-2-33 whole body normal operating mode is ___________ the energy requirements limited in the first level controlled operating mode.
Half
Double
Not comparable to
Triple

A

Half

50
Q

Wires and leads can produce heat because they are what?
Magnetic
Reactive
Electrically conductive
Diamagnetic

A

Electrically conductive

51
Q

Heating or focused hotspots are common in which of the following? Select all that apply.
In devices with sharp points or edges
In areas outside the RF field
Objects less than 2 cm in size
In round small objects

A

In devices with sharp points or edges

52
Q

An energy deposition mode set to normal operation mode will allow whole-body heating in a patient to what?
2 degrees Celsius
1 degree Celsius
0.5 degrees Celsius
3 degrees Celsius

A

0.5 degrees Celsius

53
Q

An ice pack used to reduce the heating of a tattoo or superficial conductive object is termed what?
Non-ferrous material
Anti-conductor
Insulation
Heat sink

A

Heat sink

54
Q

Which of the following will reduce the SAR? Select all that apply.

Decreasing TR
Move from normal operating mode to first-level controlled operation mode
Decrease flip angle
Increasing flip angle
Increase the receiving bandwidth

A

Decrease flip angle

55
Q

What is another name for a parallel RF exposure?
Circular polarized
Quadrature
Linear
None of the choices

A

Linear

56
Q

Which of the following are mechanisms of patient burning in MRI due to the RF transmitter? Select all that apply.

The plastic coating on RF receiver coils
Near field effects
Electrical conductivity
Resonant circuitry

A

Near field effects
Electrical conductivity
Resonant circuitry

57
Q

When discussing the distance from an RF transmitter and the biological effects witnessed, which of the following describe the area where burns can occur in proximity closest to the transmitter?
MR table
Danger zone
Patients abdomen
Near field

A

Near field

58
Q

Patient whole body heating is limited to what in first level controlled operating mode?
1 degree Celsius
2 degree Celsius
0.5 degree Celsius
3 degree Celsius

A

1 degree Celsius

59
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to increase the echo spacing? Select all that apply.

Increase flip angle
Decrease receiving bandwidth
Increase field of view
Increase receiving bandwidth
Decrease the TR

A

Decrease receiving bandwidth

60
Q

Which of the following are NOT true of the static magnetic field? Select all that apply.
It contains magnetic flux lines that can travel through standard walls.
Rotational force will cause the torquing of ferrous objects as they interact with magnetic flux lines.
It has been known to cause pregnancy-related issues.
It is the cause of magnetohydrodynamic effects only when the table is moving.

A

It has been known to cause pregnancy-related issues.

It is the cause of magnetohydrodynamic effects only when the table is moving.

61
Q

Magnetophosphenes can be described as what?
Visually seeing flashing lights while moving around the MRI unit
Iron in a patient’s blood that becomes magnetized
When the room lights dim due to the changing magnetic fields
Visualizing an elevated T wave on the cardiac cycle

A

Visually seeing flashing lights while moving around the MRI unit

62
Q

An object that retains a magnetic field as it is removed from a strong magnetic field is called what?
Ferromagnetic
Diamagnetic
Paramagnetic
Superparamagnetic

A

Ferromagnetic

63
Q

Blood flow in high static magnetic fields induces elevated voltages that contaminate the ECG signal which is recorded simultaneously during MRI scans for synchronization purposes. This is known as the ________________, it increases the amplitude of the T wave, thus hindering correct R peak detection.
counterfeit effect
teratogenesis
magnetohydrodynamic (MHD) effect
magentophosphene effect

A

magnetohydrodynamic (MHD) effect

64
Q

Which of the following will demonstrate some level of translational force? Select all that apply.

A titanium hip replacement
Gadolinium contrast
A steel aneurysm clip
A silver heart stent

A

A steel aneurysm clip

65
Q

It is important to describe the effects of translational and rotational force on magnets with different vectors. A ________ vector will produce a longer gradient of spatial magnetic fields along the longitudinal vector. A ________ vector, however, will produce a shorter gradient of the spatial magnetic field.
horizontal, vertical
diagonal, vertical
diagonal, vertical
vertical, horizontal

A

horizontal, vertical

66
Q

Which of the following are true of the static magnetic field? Select all that apply.
Titanium can demonstrate the Missile Effect in its presence.
Implants that have ferrous components can cause harm to patients in their presence.
It can easily be turned on and off with superconductive MRI units
Translational force and rotational force can occur with ferrous objects in their presence.

A

Translational force and rotational force can occur with ferrous objects in their presence.
Implants that have ferrous components can cause harm to patients in their presence.

67
Q

During acquisition, it is noticed that the T wave of the cardiac cycle is elevated. What is this artifact is called?
Excitation
Magnetophosphenes
Teratogenesis
Magnetohydrodynamic effect

A

Magnetohydrodynamic effect

68
Q

An object that produces a weak repulsive force in the presence of a strong magnetic field is called what?
Diamagnetic
Superparamagnetic
Paramagnetic
Ferromagnetic

A

Diamagnetic

69
Q

A ferrous object is not drawn to the pull of a magnet,
it is the amount of electrons flowing through the object which pulls the ferrous object into the magnet
it is the changing magnetic fields that pull the ferrous object into the magnet.
it is the electrical induction due to Faraday’s Law which pulls the ferrous object into the magnet
it is the increase in core temperature which pulls the ferrous object into the magnet

A

it is the changing magnetic fields that pull the ferrous object into the magnet.

70
Q

As blood flows through a vessel when blood is pumped from the heart, currents can be induced. The degree of this is caused by?
Fringe field
Translational forces
Magnetophosphenes
Flow potential

A

Flow potential

71
Q

An object that produces a weak attractive force in the presence of a strong magnetic field is called what?
Superparamagnetic
Paramagnetic
Diamagnetic
Ferromagnetic

A

Paramagnetic

72
Q

Which of the following are true of the static magnetic field? Select all that apply.

Will magnetize the patient at isocenter.
Will demonstrate some attractive force on all metals.
MR Conditional implants will not be impacted by the magnetic field strength
Will demonstrate a growing magnetic field on the approach to the MR unit.

A

Will magnetize the patient at isocenter.

Will demonstrate a growing magnetic field on the approach to the MR unit.

73
Q

What are the risks associated with translational force?
Peripheral nerve stimulation
Antenna effect
Missile effect
Proximity heating

A

Missile effect

74
Q

What is teratogenesis?
The development of cancers in tissues
The development of congenital abnormalities in an embryo or fetus
The ability and speed that a wound heals
The process of hormones in a patient changing due to external forces

A

The development of congenital abnormalities in an embryo or fetus

75
Q

The invisible fields that flow from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet are called?
Magnetic flux lines
Radiant fields
Electrical current
Voltages

A

Magnetic flux lines

76
Q

Which of the following are considered biological effects of the static magnetic field?
Translational forces
All of the choices
Rotational forces
Magnetohydrodynamic effect

A

Magnetohydrodynamic effect

77
Q

What are the risks associated with rotational force?
Peripheral nerve stimulation
Missile effect
Antenna effect
Torque on an implant

A

Torque on an implant

78
Q

Which of the following are true of Lenz’s force? Select all that apply.

Occurs because of the interaction between a ferrous object and the static magnetic field.
Influences objects that are electrically conductive.
Increases with the rate of motion through the static magnetic field.
Influence on an object depends on the field strength.

A

Influences objects that are electrically conductive.
Increases with the rate of motion through the static magnetic field.
Influence on an object depends on the field strength.

79
Q

What is nystagmus?
Vision loss
Experience different scents that are not really there
Involuntary movement of the eyes from side to side
Involuntary coughing and sneezing

A

Involuntary movement of the eyes from side to side

80
Q

Which of the following are categories of a crime?
Misdemeanor
Infraction
All of the choices
Felony

A

Misdemeanor
Infraction

Felony

81
Q

Which of the following are true of Zone III according to the ACR Manual on MRI Safety? Select all that apply.
A key lock system is recommended
Accessible by level 1 and 2 personnel
Might cause harm to patient implants
An area for patients to wait

A

Accessible by level 1 and 2 personnel

A key lock system is recommended

82
Q

What does this image represent?

A

MR Safe

83
Q

A criminal case usually results in one of the following if the defendant is found guilty.
Paying for damages
Serving a sentence and/or paying a fine
Serving a sentence
Paying a fine

A

Serving a sentence and/or paying a fine

84
Q

Which of the following considerations for pregnancy are found in MRI?

I. Pregnant patients can be scanned in their first, second, and third trimester according to FDA, but it is recommended only in the second and third according to IEC 60601-2-33 document

II. A pregnant MR technologist may enter zone IV, but not be present during acquisition

III. Contrast media is safe to be delivered

IV. Exposures to pregnant patients should be limited

A

I., II., IV.

85
Q

What does this image represent?

A

MR Conditional

86
Q

Which of the following is true of a tort in a legal case?
It involves breaking a law.
It involves damages to themselves.
It involves damages to a person or a person’s property.
It involves an unintentional event that involves emotional stress on another person.

A

It involves damages to a person or a person’s property.

87
Q

The victim in a criminal case is referred to as?
The victim
The plaintiff
The defendent
The accused

A

The plaintiff

88
Q

What does discovery mean in a court case?
A way to get records on someone named in a case
A new turn of events in a court case
A process of sentencing a defendant
All of the choices

A

A way to get records on someone named in a case

89
Q

Which of the following is true of a crime in legal cases?
It involves damages to themselves.
It involves an unintentional event that involves emotional stress on another person.
It involves breaking a law.
It involves damages to a person or a person’s property.

A

It involves breaking a law.

90
Q

A tort case results in which of the following if the defendant is found guilty?
Serving a sentence
None of the choices
Paying a fine to the government
Paying for damages

A

Paying for damages

91
Q

Which of the following is a true statement according to the ACR Manual on MRI Safety?
A level 1 personnel may scan a patient to relieve a level 2 personnel to go home.
A level 1 or a level 2 personnel should be available within zone II to help an MRI technologist in case help is needed
A pregnant patient may not undergo an MR exam.
All level 2 personnel are MR technologists.

A

A level 1 or a level 2 personnel should be available within zone II to help an MRI technologist in case help is needed

92
Q

What organization has produced the terms used in MR labeling (MR Safe, MR Conditional, etc.)?
EPA
OSHA
ACR
ASTM International

A

ASTM International

93
Q

What does this image represent?

A

MR Unsafe

94
Q

A patient has a questionable implant and both the MRSO and MRMD are unsure if it is safe. The MRSE is contacted and communicates that the risk is low. Who is responsible for the safety of the patient in this situation?
MRMD
MRSO
MRSE

A

MRMD

95
Q

A tester magnet should be how strong according to the ACR Manual on MRI Safety?
Equal or greater than 500 gauss
Equal or greater than 1000 gauss
1.5 Tesla
Greater than 3000 gauss

A

Equal or greater than 1000 gauss

96
Q

Sound level is limited by the International standard IEC 60601-2-33 to what dBA during acquisition?
120dBA
99dBA
60dBA
200dBA

A

99dBA

97
Q

The accused in a criminal case is referred to as?
The criminal
The victim
The defendant
The plaintiff

A

The defendant

98
Q

Which of the following is true of Zone IV according to the ACR Manual on MRI Safety? Select all that apply.

This area should be monitored by a level 2 MR personnel
Should be noted with signage
Contain metal detectors for implant identification
The MRI environment should be contained in this location

A

This area should be monitored by a level 2 MR personnel
Should be noted with signage

The MRI environment should be contained in this location

99
Q

Which of the following are recommendations of the ACR Manual on MRI Safety? Select all that apply.

All incidents or near incidents should be reported to the medical director within 1 business day.
All MR sites need MRI policies and should be reviewed on an annual basis.
Every site should have an MR medical director.
The MR technologist has the right to administer an MR exam without an order.

A

All incidents or near incidents should be reported to the medical director within 1 business day.
All MR sites need MRI policies and should be reviewed on an annual basis.
Every site should have an MR medical director.

MRSO 2 (17 decks)

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