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FINALS > Rheumatology > Flashcards

Rheumatology Flashcards

cervical spondylosis

1
Q

What are the clinical findings of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion and reduced forward flexion (Schober’s test)

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2
Q

Sulfasalazine can cause what?

A

Reduced sperm count -> usually returns to normal upon stopping the medication

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3
Q

What would joint aspiration of rheumatoid arthritis show?

A
  • High WBC
  • Polymorph neutrophils
  • Cloudy/Yellow appearance
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4
Q

What is previous chemo a big risk factor for?

A

Avascular necrosis

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5
Q

Methotrexate plus trimethoprim can cause what?

A

Bone marrow suppression and panycytopenia

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6
Q

DIP swelling and dactylitis with arthritis suggests what?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

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7
Q

Which antibody is specific for anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Anticardiolipin antibody

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8
Q

What are the smoking cessation drugs?

A
  1. Nicotine replacement (causes N+V, headaches, flu symptoms)
  2. Varenicline (causes nausea and C/I in pregnancy/BF)
  3. Bupropion (reduces seizure threshold)
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9
Q

What type of shock does tension pneumothorax cause?

A

Obstructive

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10
Q

Which lung cancer is gynaecomastia associated with?

A

Adenocarcinoma of the lung

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11
Q

What does an isolated rise in ALP suggest?

A

Pagets disease of the bones

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12
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Increased but uncontrolled bone turnover- XS osteoclast resorption and increased osteoblastic activity

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13
Q

What is most commonly affected in Paget’s

A

Skull, spine/pelvis, long bones of lower extremities

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14
Q

Paget’s predisposing factors?

A

Age, male, northern latitude, FHx

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15
Q

Paget’s CP

A
  • 5% symptomatic
  • older male with bone pain and raised ALP
  • bone pain: pelvis, lumbar, femur
  • bowing of tibia, bossing of skull
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16
Q

Paget’s Ix

A
  • bloods
  • other markers of bone turnover
  • x-ray= osteolysis in early disease; mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later. Skull= thickened vault, osteoporosis circumscripta
  • Bone scintigraphy (increased uptake at sites of active bone lesions)
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17
Q

Bloods in Paget’s?

A
  • Raised ALP
  • Ca and phosphate normal (sometimes hypercalcaemia with prolonged immobilisation)
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18
Q

Other markers of bone turnover in Paget’s?

A
  • procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP)
  • serum C-telopeptide (CTx)
  • urinary N-telopeptide (NTx)
  • urinary hydroxyproline
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19
Q

Paget’s Mx?

A
  • Bisphosphonate (oral risedronate or IV zoledronate)
  • calcitonin less common
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20
Q

Paget’s indications for Mx

A

Bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, periarticular Paget’s

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21
Q

Paget’s Cx

A

Deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, high-output cardiac failure

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22
Q

subchondral erosions, sclerosis
and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

A

Anklyosing spondylitis

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23
Q

What is the most common site of metatarsal stress fractures?

A

2nd metatarsal

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24
Q

hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases indicates what?

A

Addisons

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25
Q

How should proximal scaphoid pole fracture be managed?

A

Refer to orthopaedics for surgical fixation

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26
Q

Features of a acetabular labral tear?

A
  • Following trauma
  • Hip/groin pain
  • Snapping sensation
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27
Q

Features of a femoroacetabular impingement?

A
  • More chronic history
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28
Q

Long term steroid use/chemo therapy + someone with hip pain suggests?

A

Avascular necrosis of the hip

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29
Q

Pain following tibial surgery?

A

Compartment syndrome

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30
Q

What is the management of AVN?

A

If displaced: total hip replacement for anyone who is mobile, no co-morbidities etc otherwise hemiarthroplasty
If not displaced: internal fixation

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31
Q

Rheumatic vs psoriatic arthritis?

A

Psoriatic will be asymmetrical

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32
Q

When should uric acid levels be measured again with gout?

A

2 weeks after the flare has settled

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33
Q

X-ray findings for rheumatoid arthritis

A

L – loss of joint space
E – erosions
S – soft tissue swelling
S – soft bones (periarticular osteopenia)

+ juxta-articular osteoporosis
subluxation

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34
Q

Extra-articular manifestations of RA?

A

Nodules, scleritis, episcleritis, pleural effusion, Felty, anaemia, Raynaud’s, carpal tunnel

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35
Q

RA, Splenomegaly and neutropenia?

A

Felty

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36
Q

Antibody of choice for RA

A

Anti-ccp

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37
Q

Hand signs for RA

A
  • Ulnar deviation
  • Swan neck deformity
  • Z neck thumb
  • Muscle wasting
  • Wrist subluxation
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38
Q

What organism can cause septic arthritis with metal joint?

A

Early stages after surgery - staph aureus
Later onset - staph epidermidis

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39
Q

What are risk factors for septic arthritis?

A

RA, DM, Immunosuppression, Penetrating injury, infection elsewhere

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40
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

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41
Q

What muscles are responsible for shoulder abduction?

A

0-15 degrees: supraspinatus
15 - 90 degrees: deltoid
90 degrees+: Trapezius and serratus anterior

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42
Q

Which muscles does the accessory nerve innervate?

A

Deltoid and teres minor

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43
Q

Investigations to assess for supraspinatus impingement?

A

US and MRI

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44
Q

Proximal muscle weakness + raised CK + no rash

A

Polymyositis

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45
Q

Dermatomyositis vs polymyositis

A

Dermatomyositis would have a rash

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46
Q

What would be seen on X-ray to support a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Sacro-ilitis

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47
Q

What should be given to women >75 with a fragility fracture?

A

Bisphosphonates

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48
Q

When should a referral for sciatica be considered?

A

4-6 weeks after analgesia + physio treatment

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49
Q

What are the features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis
and cauda equina syndrome

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50
Q

Pain worse on walking on tip toes?

A

Plantar fasciitis

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51
Q

Fever + back pain + IVDU

A

Iliopsoas abscess

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52
Q

What is the treatment for psoas abscess?

A

Abx + percutaneous drainage

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53
Q

muscle wasting of the hands, numbness and tingling and possibly autonomic symptoms

A

Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome

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54
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Softening of the bones secondary to vit D deficiency

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55
Q

How does osteomalacia present?

A
  • Bone pain/tenderness
  • Fractures e.g NOF
  • Proximal myopathy: waddling gait
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56
Q

How would osteomalavcia present on investigations?

A
  • Low Vit D
  • Low calcium and phosphate
  • Raised ALP
  • Translucent bands over the X-ray
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57
Q

Management of NOF fractures

A

Non-displaced + intracapsular: cannulated screw fixation
Stable + extra capsular: dynamic hip screw
Displaced + Intacapsular if not very mobile older patient: Hemiarthroplaty
Displaced + intracapsular if young/mobile older patient: Total hip arthroplasty

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58
Q

flexion deformities of his 4th and 5th digit which cannot be passively corrected

A

Duputrynes contracture

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59
Q

What is often the earliest sign of Dupuytrens?

A

Firm, thickened palmar nodule over the metacarpal head

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60
Q

What are risk factors for Dupuytrens?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Alcohol
  • FH
  • AIDS
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61
Q

Limited vs diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

Diffuse will have widespread skin and organ involvement (lungs and kidneys)

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62
Q

What is fat embolism?

A

A syndrome secondary to trauma/fractures/orthopaedic surgery

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63
Q

How does fat embolism present?

A

Pulmonary: PE like symptoms
Neuro: altered mental status, seizures, coma
Derm: petechial rash on upper body
Managed with supportive treatment/prophylaxis

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64
Q

What are common precipitants of gout?

A
  • Surgery
  • Dehydration
  • Alcohol
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Foods rich in purines
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65
Q

What are x-ray findings of gout?

A
  • Normal joint space
  • Soft tissue swelling
  • Periarticular erosions
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66
Q

What can be some examination findings of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Antalgic gait
  • Joint swelling
  • Joint tenderness
  • Pain on movement
  • Crepitus
  • Reduced ROM
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67
Q

purple discolouration of eyelids in dermatomyositis?

A

Heliotrope

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68
Q

What are Gottron’s papules?

A

Rough, red papules over the knuckles -> dermatomyositis

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69
Q

What antibodies are associated with dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-Jo, Anti-MI, RF, ANA

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70
Q

What is Raynauds phenomenon?

A

Peripheral digital ischaemic caused by vasospasm which is precipitated by cold/emotion

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71
Q

What are some causes of Raynauds phenomenon?

A
  • SLE
  • Raynaud’s disease
  • RA
  • Ehler-Danlos
  • Beta blockers
  • Atherosclerosis
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72
Q

What are the features of CREST?

A

Calcinosis
Raynaud’s
Oesophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

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73
Q

What respiratory condition is associated with AS?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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74
Q

What is mononeuritis multiplex?

A

Damage to 2+ peripheral nerves

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75
Q

What are causes of mononeuritis multiplex?

A
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Diabetes
  • RA
  • Sarcoidosis
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76
Q

What is the definitive investigation for Sjogrens?

A

Salivary gland biopsy

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Lumbar disc herniation at L4/L5/ or L5/S1

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78
Q

Pseudogout is strongly associated with what?

A

Haemochromatosis

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79
Q

What are the most specific markers for SLE?

A

anti-dsDNA and anti-SM
ANA - most sensitive

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80
Q

Erb’s palsy has injury to which myotomes?

A

C5 and C6 (11 erbs and spices)

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81
Q

How does Erb’s palsy present?

A

Imparied wrist extension and elbow flexion - waiters tip

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82
Q

Carbamazepine increases risk of what?

A

Osteoporosis

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83
Q

Back pain red flags?

A
  • Thoracic or cervical spine pain
  • Progressive pain not relieved by rest
  • Fevers, chills, weight loss
  • Early morning stiffness > 30 mins
  • Bowel/bladder/neuro dysfunction
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84
Q

What should be given for cord compression secondary to bone metastases?

A

Dexamethasone

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85
Q

Osteoporosis risk factors?

A

Steroids
Hyperthyroidism/Hyperparathyroidism
Alcohol/Smoking
Thin
Testosterone deficiency
Early menopause
Renal failure
Erosive bone disease
Diabetes

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86
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

Fracture of the distal radium with dorsal angulation of the distal fracture fragments

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87
Q

Septic Arthritis in a prosthetic joint?

A

Admit patient and arrange ortho review

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88
Q

pain and swelling at the base of the thumb and along the radial aspect of the wrist, often worsened by thumb movement or grasping in a YOUNG person

A

De Quervain;s tenosynovitis

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89
Q

What should take place before starting anyone on biologics?

A

Quantiferon test - assess for TB as biologics can reactivate latent TB

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90
Q

Abx regiment for septic arthritis?

A

2 weeks of IV plus 4 weeks of orals

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91
Q

Which antibodies are specific for anti phospholipid

A

Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I antibody

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92
Q

What is a common early finding in professional players who have had trauma?

A

Osteoarthritis

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93
Q

What cover should be given to those receiving allopurinol?

A

NSAIDs cover for 3 months as allopurinol can acutely raise urate levels

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94
Q

‘rain-drop skull’

A

Myeloma

95
Q

‘pepper pot skull’

A

Hyperparathyroidism

96
Q

What are the most common side effects of colchicine?

A

Diarrhoea, nausea + vomiting

97
Q

What scoring system can be for RA and what does it indicate?

A

Disease-activity score
<2.6 - remission
>5.1 - high disease activity

98
Q

What is the dose for steroids in GCA?

A

60mg of prednisolone

99
Q

How would lumbar spondylosis present?

A
  • Arthritis like pain which gets worse throughout the day in older patients
100
Q

What is recommended in patients with GCA with CVD risk factors/IHD?

A

Aspirin 75mg as prophylaxis

101
Q

What is the inheritance of Marfans?

A

Autosomal dominant

102
Q

How should methotrexate be monitored?

A

FBC, Renal function and LFTs weekly until established then every 2-3 months

103
Q

What can patients with limited systemic sclerosis develop as a late manifestation?

A

Interstitial lung disease

104
Q

What investigation should be done for women with polymyalgia due to steroid use?

A

DEXA

105
Q

What are the 4 features of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Clots - VTE/PE
Livedo reticularis
Obstetric loss
Thrombocytopenia

106
Q

c-ANCA positive?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

107
Q

What are features of granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A
  • Resp involvement
  • Kidney involvement: glomerulonephritis
  • Systemic symptoms
  • Ocular manifestations e.g. scleritis
108
Q

How is granulomatosis with polyangiitis managed?

A
  • Cyclophosphamide/rituximab in acute
  • Azathioprine/Methotrexate during remission
109
Q

asthma, nasal polyps and a mononeuritis multiplex

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

110
Q

Recurrent oral and genital ulcers with uveitis and erythema nodosum?

A

Behcet’s disease- HLA B51

111
Q

Common sites where osteoporotic fragility fractures occur?

A
  • Pubic ramus
  • Hip
  • Distal radium
  • Proximal humerus
112
Q

What are side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Dyspepsia
  • Nausea
  • Abdominal distension
  • Oesophageal ulceration
113
Q

What is the first line imaging in myeloma?

A

MRI

114
Q

Acute back pain in a patient with osteoporosis?

A

Think osteoporotic verterbral fracture -> X-ray needed

115
Q

What is the Z score adjusted for in patients with DEXA scans?

A

Age, gender and ethnic factors

116
Q

What antibodies are found in CREST syndrome?

A

Anti-centromere

117
Q

What is Behcet’s syndrome?

A
  • Common in young Turkish men
  • Oral ulcers, genital ulcers and anterior uveitis
  • Erythema nodosum also present
118
Q

Which DMARD is associated with retinopathy?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

119
Q

What is Caplan syndrome?

A

Massive fibrosis in patients with RA and pneumoconiosis

120
Q

What is polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Medium vessel vasculitis common in middle aged men with Hep B
Can cause testicular pain, weight loss, HTN, renal failure
PANCA positive

121
Q

Ejection systolic murmur with SLE?

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

122
Q

What are some skin changes with dermatomyositis?

A
  • Heliotrope rash of eyelids
  • Periorbital oedema
  • Dilated capillary loops under the fingernails
123
Q

What are some symptoms of dermatomyositis?

A
  • Muscle swelling
  • Muscle tenderness
  • Arthralgia
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
124
Q

What are some symptoms of fibromyalgia?

A
  • Pain
  • Sleep disturbance
  • Paraesthesia
  • Memory disturbance
  • Headaches
  • Dizziness
125
Q

What are some skin changes with Reiters?

A
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Keratoderma blennorrhagica (yellow/brown papules on soles of feet)
126
Q

What are some cardiac complications of Reiters?

A
  • Pericarditis
  • Aortic regurg
  • Aortitis
127
Q

What is there not in someone with polymyalgia?

A

True weakness of muscles -> normal power

128
Q

Management of a prolapsed disc?

A

Analgesia + Physio

129
Q

Painful click on McMurrays test?

A

Think twisted knee injury - meniscal tear

130
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

Dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint with an associated fracture of the radius

131
Q

tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox dorsally

A

Scaphoid fracture

132
Q

What should be corrected before giving bisphosphonates?

A

Calcium level / Vit D deficiency

133
Q

Pain on the radial side of the wrist/tenderness over the radial styloid process in a young women?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

134
Q

What does co-trimoxazole contain?

A

Trimethoprim -> think about methotrexate

135
Q

Most likely places for bone mets?

A

Women - breast
Men - prostate

136
Q

What are major risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Steroid use
  • RA
  • Alcohol excess
  • Low BMI
  • Smoking
137
Q

What will the blood test values be with osteoporosis?

A

Everything normal

138
Q

Imaging of choice for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

139
Q

lead pipe appearance of the colon

A

Ulcerative colitis

140
Q

popping sensation, immediate swelling and immediate unable to weight-bear

A

ACL injury - Lachmans test

141
Q

Knee locking and giving-way

A

Meniscal lesions

142
Q

What is the management of newly diagnosed RA?

A

Methotrexate and oral steroids

143
Q

Z score is helpful for what?

A

Diagnosing secondary osteoporosis

144
Q

Compartment syndrome produces what?

A

Pain on passive stretch

145
Q

What is the management of flares of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Steroids oral or IM

146
Q

When can reactive arthritis present and how long do symptoms last?

A
  • Can develop upto 4 weeks after initial infection
  • Symptoms last around 4-6 months
147
Q

dull shoulder pain, that often disturbs sleep, followed by
stiffness and loss of shoulder mobility

A

Frozen shoulder - Adhesive capsulitis

148
Q

Management of undisplaced scaphoid fractures?

A

Cast for 6-8 weeks

149
Q

What are some hand signs of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • Dactylitis
  • Nail pitting
  • Onchylosis
  • Nail discolouration
150
Q

What are some X-ray findings of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • Soft tissue swelling
  • Bony erosions
  • Pencil in cup deformity
  • Loss of joint space
151
Q

What is the most severe form of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Arthritis mutilans

152
Q

What is the treatment of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • NSAIDs if mild
  • Methotrexate
  • anti-TNF biologics
153
Q

Chalky nodules in someone with gout?

A

Gouty tophi

154
Q

What HLA type is rheumatoid?

A

HLA-DR4 / HLA-DR1

155
Q

Risk factors for pseudogout?

A
  • Steroid use
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Haemochromatosis
  • Wilson’s
  • Acromegaly
156
Q

What is the prognosis of pseudogout?

A

Resolves within 10 days

157
Q

What are some complications of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A
  • HF
  • Myocarditis
  • HTN
  • Stroke
  • Bowel ischaemia
  • Pancreatitis
158
Q

Prophylactic bisphosphonates should be offered to who?

A

Those with T score <1.5 if they are on steroids for more than 3 months

159
Q

What should alendronate be changed to if patients are experiencing bad GI side effects?

A

Risedronate

160
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors can increase the risk of what?

A

Ulcers or infection -> increased risk of amputation

161
Q

Which organism causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell?

A

Salmonella

162
Q

anti-histone antibodies can be a sign of what?

A

Drug induced lupus - common causes include isoniazid, phenytoin

163
Q

Lace like rash on shins is a sign of what?

A

Livedo reticularis -> associated with anti-phospholipid syndrome

164
Q

raised CRP in a patient with known SLE

A

Can suggest underlying infection

165
Q

What is an early x ray finding of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Juxta-articular osteopenia

166
Q

What is a fragility fracture?

A

A fracture from a fall from standing height or less

167
Q

What are examples of fragility fracture?

A
  • Vertebral compression fractures
  • Hip
  • Distal radium
  • Proximal humerus fracture
168
Q

Nerve and which fracture they are associated with?

A

Radial - fracture of shaft of humerus (wrist drop)
Ulnar - supracondylar fracture of humerus
Axillary - fracture of proximal humerus

169
Q

Bilateral carpal tunnel?

A

Rheumatoid

170
Q

Lateral knee pain in a runner?

A

Iliotibial band syndrome -> treat with stretches

171
Q

Lateral epicondylitis causes what?

A
  • Pain worse on supination of the wrist
  • Pain worse on wrist extension against resistance
172
Q

What is the main structure which is damaged in scaphoid fractures?

A

dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery

173
Q

dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulnar fracture

A

Monteggia fracture

174
Q

Most common sites of osteomyelitis in children and adults?

A

Children - Metaphysis
Adults - Epiphysis

175
Q

What are different management options for carpal tunnel?

A
  • Night splints
  • Intraarticular steroid injections
  • Carpal tunnel decompression
176
Q

Bruised, swollen, deformed and painful elbow?

A

Think supracondylar fracture

177
Q

What would Perthes disease x-ray show?

A
  • Widening of joint space
  • Decreased femoral head size
  • Flattening
178
Q

What are surgical management options for osteoarthritis?

A
  • Osteotomies
  • Arthroplasty
179
Q

What is duputryens?

A

Thickening of the palmar fascia which eventually causes a fixed flexion deformity

180
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior dislocation

181
Q

What is the weight bearing status after NOF surgeries?

A

Cannulated screws - less than full initially
Everything else - full weight bearing

182
Q

Radiculopathy vs myelopathy

A

Radiculopathy - compression of a single nerve root which has exited the spinal cord
Myelopathy - pain due to compression of the spinal cord

183
Q

Which nerve roots correspond to reflexes?

A

Ankle - S1/2
Knee - L3/L4
Bicep - C5/C6
Tricep - C7/C8

184
Q

Simmonds test - calf squeeze

A

Achilles tendon rupture

185
Q

Which knee compartment is most commonly affected in osteoarthritis?

A

Medial

186
Q

Open tibial fractures should be covered with what?

A

Sterile saline gauze

187
Q

Which muscle is responsible for the weakness in thumb abduction in carpal tunnel?

A

Abductor pollicis brevis

188
Q

Haematogenous vs direct contamination?

A

Haematogenous - infection reaches bone through bloodstream
Direct contamination - infection spreads directly from adjacent tissues/structures to the bone

189
Q

Bakers cysts occur secondary to what?

A

Degeneration

190
Q

Imaging for achilles tendon rupture?

A

US

191
Q

What is the test of choice for Duputryen’s?

A

Table top test

192
Q

Which arteries are at risk in NOF?

A

Circumflex arteries

193
Q

Soft, non-tender swelling near joints or tendons, containing clear,
viscous fluid

A

Ganglionic cyst

194
Q

Sciatic nerve originates from?

A

L4-S3

195
Q

What is RICE mnemonic for soft tissue injuries?

A

Rest, ice, compression, elevation

196
Q

Synovial fluid aspiration in someone with reactive arthritis?

A

No organisms will be recovered + cloudy/yellow colour

197
Q

What is the most common mechanism of ankle sprains?

A

Inversion

198
Q

Any MSK pain/Osteoarthritis first line treatment?

A

Topical NSAIDs/Oral NSAIDs

199
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

One vertebra slips out of line with one above it, usually in the lumbar spine

200
Q

Pain on painful arc with normal X ray?

A

Painful arc syndrome / subacromial bursitis / impingement syndrome

201
Q

Trigger finger management?

A
  1. Rest and splint
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Steroid injections
202
Q

What are examination findings of NOF?

A

Affected side shortened
Externally rotated
Abducted

203
Q

S/E of bisphosphonates

A
  • Oesophageal erosions
  • Osteonecrosis of jaw
  • Atypical fractures
204
Q

CREST antibodies?

A
  • Anti-centromere
  • Anti-Scl70
205
Q

What are pulmonary complications of CREST?

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Pulmonary HTN
206
Q

What are causes of sciatica?

A
  • Spinal stenosis
  • Disc herniation
  • Pelvic tumours
207
Q

Greenstick fractures are unique to who?

A

Children - usually under 10s

208
Q

3rd line management for acute gout in renal disease?

A

Steroids

209
Q

What is the investigation of choice for Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

CT angio

210
Q

What is Caplan syndrome?

A

RA plus pulmonary nodules

211
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Behcet’s disease?

A

Pathergy test

212
Q

Diabetics are susceptible to what infections?

A

Staphylococcal

213
Q

diffuse thickening of the pancreatic body and tail

A

Sausage pancreas sign -> autoimmune pancreatitis

214
Q

Antiphospholipid causes prolonged what?

A

APTT

215
Q

What drug makes Raynaud’s worse?

A

Propranolol

216
Q

RA spares which joint?

A

DIP

217
Q

Progressive shoulder pain with reduced ROM in middle aged?

A

Frozen shoulder

218
Q

Management of achilles tendonitis?

A

Rest, NSAIDs and physio if symptoms persistent beyond 7 days

219
Q

What is Simmonds triad?

A
  • palpation
  • examining the angle of declination at rest
  • squeeze test
220
Q

Investigation for suspected hip fracture if X-ray is normal?

A

MRI

221
Q

What can be done for NOF fractures?

A

Iliofascial nerve block

222
Q

What is the most common reason for revising a total hip replacement?

A

Asceptic loosening of the implant

223
Q

Joint aspirate with high WBC count, mainly neutrophils with well patient?

A

Rheumatoid

224
Q

Gold standard diagnostic investigation for Ankylosing spondyliitis?

A

MRI of sacroiliac joints

225
Q

Methotrexate can cause what when not given folate alongside?

A

Macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency

226
Q

What is the treatment for reactive arthritis?

A

NSAIDs

227
Q

Management of patients who do not respond to steroids in poly myalgia?

A

Refer to specialist

228
Q

Compartment syndrome can cause what?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

229
Q

Management of undisplaced patella fracture with intact extensors?

A

Conservative with knee immobilisation

230
Q

Management of renal hypertensive crises in systemic sclerosis?

A

ACE inhibitors

231
Q

What are S/E of leflunomide?

A

Raised BP and peripheral neuropathy

232
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice in antiphospholipid?

A

Warfarin

233
Q

Kids born to mums with SLE/Sjogrens can get what?

A

Congenital heart block -> neonatal lupus syndrome

FINALS (36 decks)

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