Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

What do urate crystals look like under polarised light?

A

They are yellow needle like structures when held parallel to the lights source. When held perpendicular to the light, they turn blue. This is said to be negative birefrigence.

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2
Q

What do calcium pyrophosphate crystals look like under polarised light?

A

They are blunt rods. When parallel to the light source, they appear blue. When perpendicular, they appear yellow. They therefore demonstrate positive birefringence.

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3
Q

What is Lofgren sydnrome?

A

Triad of acute sarcoid arthritis, hilar adenopathy and erythema nodosum. Only 10% of patients with sarcoidosis devlop with the triad of Lofgren syndrome. Classically, the polyarthropathy involves the ankles >90% of the time, often bilaterally, followed by other larger joints in the lower extremities.

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4
Q

What treatment is recommended as secondary prophylaxis in patients with APLS and SLE?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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5
Q

What is the anticoagulation of choice for patients with a history of venous thrombosis and anti-phospholipid syndreome?

A

Warfarin. There is some controversy over what should be done in the case of arterial thrombosis. Some advocate for aspirin and warfarin.

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6
Q

How should catastrophic aPLS be managed?

A

Combinations of anticoagulation, high dose steroids, plasma exchange and IVIG have all been employed in case series.

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7
Q

What does alternating buttock pain suggest?

A

SIJ inflammaotry disease

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8
Q

What percentage of patietns with SLE have a positive ANA?

A

95%. The titre is however not useful for anything (disease monitoring, sepctrum of involvement and so on)

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9
Q

What diseases are associated with an increased risk of calcium pyrophophosphate disease?

A

Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, haemochromatosis, hypomagnesaemia and hyphosphataemia, and familial hypocalciuruic hypercalcaemia.

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10
Q

What are the clinical features of dermatomyositis? Not including inclusion body myositis or anti-synthetase syndrome which have their own specific findings.

A

Photosensitive rashes: violaceous eruptsion on the knuckles (Gottron’s rash), blue/purple rash round the eyes, face, back and shoulders (shawl sign).
Muscles: subacute proximal, symmetrical muscle weakness. Distal muscles are only present later in disease in 10-20% of patients.
Other: dilated capillary loops at the nailfolds.

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11
Q

What autoantibodies are typically associated with dermatomyositis? (excluding the anti-synthetase abs)

A

Most are directed agains cytoplasmic RNA-protein complexes. The most commonly associated anitbody is anti-transcription intermediary factor 1 gamma (TIF1 gamma). It is, however, also strongly associated with cancer and so careful malignancy investigation should follow. Anti-Mi-2 (helicase) abs are detected in about 10% of patients, and then antiU1 riboneucleoprotiein (RNP) and anti-Ku are found in overlap syndreomes that present similarly to anti-Mi-2 positive DM. Anti-SAE antibody is found in 5-10% of patients and is associated with a high prevalence of dysphagia, and skin manifestations precede muscle symptoms. Anti-nxp-2 abs are also possible, but are often associated with malignancy or are seen in juvenile disease.

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12
Q

Which antibody is highly specific for immune-mediated necrotising myositis?

A

Anti-signal recognition particle (SRP).

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13
Q

Are CRP and ESR elevated in dermatomyositis?

A

They are often normal or only slightly elevated.

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14
Q

Is a positive myositis ab required to make a diagnosis of dermatomyostitis?

A

No. They are positive in 45-85% of cases, but are used to prognosticate rather than diagnose.

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15
Q

What are the antibodies associated with anti-synthetase syndrome?

A

Mostly associated with tRNA. Anti-Jo-1, anti-ARS abs including: anti-PL-7, anti-PL-12, anti-EJ, anti-OJ, anti-Zo, anti-Ha and anti-KS.

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16
Q

Which antibody is associated specifically with amyotrophic dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-MDA5 (aka anti-CADM-140). It is stronly associated with progressive intersitial lung disease with a poor prognosis. Diffuse alopecia is also seen with this s well as arthritis.

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17
Q

How does antisynthetase syndrome usually present?

A

Prominent arthritis, interstitial lung disease, fever, mechanic’s hands, proximal myopathy, rey

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18
Q

What three disease should be excluded before settling on a diagnosis of polymyositis in a patient who presens with inflammatory, symmetrical muscle disease?

A

Must exlcuded other myopathies without rash. Therefore, must exclude hypothyroidism, immune-mediated necrotizing myopathy and inclusion body myositis.

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19
Q

Which systemic inflmmatory diseases may incolude myositis as a manifestation?

A

SLE, mixed connective tissue disease, scleroderma and less often: Sjogrens’ syndreom and RA.

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20
Q

What is the classic clinic presentation of inclusion-body myositis?

A

Proximal lower limb and distal upper limb weakness. Specifically, weakness in the deep flexors of the forearm. It classically effects men. It is also sometimes associated with dysphagia.

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21
Q

What clinical feature are the anti-nxp-2 myositis antibodies uniquely associated with?

A

Skin calcifications

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22
Q

What liver enzymes can be released from skeletal muscle in the setting of active immune myositis?

A

AST and ALT (AST > ALT)

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23
Q

What autoantibodies are seen 50% of inclusion body myositis patients?

A

Anti-cytosolic 5’-nucletidase 1a (anti-cN1A)

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24
Q

Which dermatomyositis ab is most often associated with dysphagia?

A

Anti-SAE

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25
Q

What are the classic findings on muscle biopsy for patients with inclusion body myositis?

A

CD8+ve infiltrates, rimmed vacuoles (note though, these are absent in 20-30% of patients with inclusion body myositis), amyloid deposits with congo red staining (sometimes seen), p62/TDP-43 protein aggregates (much more common than amyloid). Under EM, inclusions are shown to contain 15-18nm tubolfilaments not present in any other inflammatory myopathy. Some sources talk about ‘ragged-red/blue fibres’ being important (I think this ithe p62/TDP-43 protein aggregates).

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26
Q

Which inflammatory myopathies are most commonly assocaited with interstiail lung disease?

A

Antisynthetase syndrome, amyopathic dermatomyositis (including anti-MDA5 disease- rapidly progressive ILD), and overlap syndromes with connective tissue disease.

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27
Q

What is antibody the defines mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein (anti-U1RNP)

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28
Q

What are the typical features of mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Swollen hands, synovitis, myositis, Raynaud phenomenon and acrosclerosis.

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29
Q

What people are typically diagnosed with mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Women, adolescence and early 20s, HLA-DRB10401.

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30
Q

What complication, similar to scleroderma Scl-70, is the major cause of mortality in patients with mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Interstitial lung disease and pulmonary hypertension

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31
Q

Second to lung disease, what is the most impactful contribution to mortality in patients with mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Cardiac and pericardaial involvement. Responsible for about 20% of mortality in MCTD patients.

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32
Q

What two organ systems does mixed connective tissue spare that diffuse scleroderma and SLE typically damage?

A

Kidneys and central nervous system (except for sensuroneural hearing loss)

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33
Q

Which two dermatomyositis antibodies are most commonly associated with cancer?

A

Anti-NXP-2 (when it occurs in adults) and anti-TIF1gamma.

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34
Q

What is febuxostat?

A

A nonpurine inhibitor of xanthine oxireducatse (allopurinol is a purine inhibtior of XO). It is reserved as a second line agent in the treatment of gout for patients who can’t tolerate allopurinol. It still increases the concentration of azathioprine metabolites. It worsens cardiovascular and all cause mortality in patients when compared with gout.

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35
Q

What is the major downside of febuxostat compared with allopurinol?

A

Worsens cardiovascular and all cause mortality.

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36
Q

What is Felty disease?

A

An extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis associated with splenomegaly (with associated thrombocytopoenia), anaemia, and neutropoenia.

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37
Q

How is Felty syndrome managed?

A

Treatment of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis is the mainstay of treatment. That said, you may need to reduce the dose of cytotoxic traetments to allow recovery of the neutrophil count, especially if infection is an issue. Manage anaemia with transfusions.

38
Q

What is cyclobenazaprine?

A

5-HT2A recepotor blocker found to have evidence in fibromyalgia.

39
Q

What other drugs have evidence in firbomyalgia?

A

Amitryptyline, pregabalin and duloxetine.

40
Q

What treatments have evidence in the management of inclusion body myositis?

A

Physiotherpay and OT, creatine. The only role for glucocorticoids is if there is felt to be contributing other autoinflammatory disease (e.g. Sjogren’s disease). The only other immunomodulatory agent with evidence is IVIG, but only for severe oropharyngeal dysphagia.

41
Q

Does inclusion body myositis limit lifespan?

A

No. Just causes progressive physical disability.

42
Q

In the treatment of PMR, what dose of prednisolone do you start with, and for how long do you taper?

A

15-20mg of prednisolone daily for 1-2 months followed by a taper of about 20% per month until the dose is <10mg/day. At this point, taper by 1mg per month.

43
Q

What percentage of patients with PMR will develop GCA?

A

About 20%

44
Q

What percentage of patients with GCA report having previous PMR symptoms?

A

about 50%

45
Q

What is the cancer that is associated frequently with Sjogren’s disease?

A

B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (e.g. DLBCL, follicular lymphoma)

46
Q

Where is the B-cell lyphoma often found in patients who have concurrent Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

In the salivery glands or MALT tissue

47
Q

Which autoimmune diseases are associated with hairy cell leukaemia?

A

Systemic sclerosis, polymyositis, PAN

48
Q

What features in patient’s with Sjogren’s disease are associated with increased risk of lymphoma?

A

Recurrent swelling of parotid glands, splenmegaly, lymphadenopathy, purpura, RF postitive, cryogloblinaemia, low c4 level, CD+ve lyphocytopoenia, presence of ectopic germinal centres in a salivary gland biopsy, and germinal mutations in the TNFAP3 gene.

49
Q

Roughly what percentage of patients with psoriasis will go on to develop psoriatic arthritis?

A

About 30%. Incidence is higher amongst patients with severe psoriasis (>10% skin coverage).

50
Q

What, at a minimum, is required to make a diagnosis of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

At least biphasic changes in skin colour indicating pallor or cyanosis.

51
Q

Endothelial dysfunction is associated with too little what and too much what is Raynaud’s phenomnenon?

A

Too much endothelin-1 (ET-1) (vasoconstrictive) and not enough nitric oxide (NO) (vasodilative).

52
Q

What is first line treatment for Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Dihydrophyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine, nifedipine)

53
Q

What is the second line treatment for Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor (e.g. sildenafil). Alterntatively you can topically apply a nitrate.

54
Q

In patient’s with Raynaud’s that is causing digital ischaemic lesions, what treatment options are there?

A

ET-1 inhibtors (bosentant), iloprost infusions, botox injections. Failing this, amputatino.

55
Q

What is the classic reactive arthritis triad?

A

Arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis.

56
Q

What is the joint invovlement distribution with reactive arthritis?

A

Asymetrical, oligoarticular and affects the knees and ankles the most (lower extremitis), Often get MTP involvement as well. HLA-B27 positive is also associated with sacroilliac involvement in patients with reactive arthritis.

57
Q

What type of infections normally precede reactive arthritis?

A

STIs and enteritis

58
Q

What HLA type is likely to appear in patietns with reactive arthritis?

A

HLA-B27, like ank spond. Patients with HLA-B27 also tend to have sacroilliac involvement.

59
Q

What is the first line treatment for reactive arthritis?

A

NSAIDs for the acute inflammatory phase. Treat the infection if necessary. Intra-articular steroid for isolated sore joints.

60
Q

After initial inflammatory phase of reactive arthritis is treated with NSAIDs, infection treatment and intrarticular steroids, what is the most effective DMARD?

A

Sulfasalazine has the most date. Methotrexate and azathiprine have also been shown to be helpful.

61
Q

What synovial white cell count should be considered very concerning for an septic arthritis?

A

> 50 000 WCCs with >70% PMNs. Inflammatory arthritis tends to lead to 2000-50000 WCC with between 20-70% PMNs. The exception to this is gout that can cause a septic picture.

62
Q

What is etanercept?

A

Soluble TNF-alpha and TNF-beta receptor. Mops upt these pro-inflammatory markers so that they can’t do anything.

63
Q

What is abatacept?

A

Dummy CTLA-4 - binds to CD80/86 on APCs with greater affintiy than T cell CD28, therefore inhibiting T cell activation and proliferation

64
Q

What is tofacitinib?

A

JAK1/3 (and to a lesser extent JAK 2) inhibtior.

65
Q

Which JAK’s are classically involved in type 1 and type 3 (th1 and th17) mediated inflammation?

A

JAK1/3. JAK2 is all about growth signals, but also IL-3 and IL-5. For the most part, targeting inflammatory diseases is about blocking JAK1 and/or JAK3. Blockade of JAK2 (e.g. ruxolitinib) is more of the haemtological myeloproliferative diseases.

66
Q

Which HLA type is associated with worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA-DRB104/04

67
Q

Is anti-ccp +ve and high RF a good or bad prognostic sign?

A

Bad.

68
Q

Is prognosis in rhuematoid arthritis better in men or women?

A

Men

69
Q

What are thee four antibodies/ANA patterns classically associated with scleroderma?

A

Anti-centromere on ANA pattern. Anti-RNA, polymerase III. Anti-Scl-70. Nucleolar ANA pattern.

70
Q

What disease features are seen in scleroderma patients with anti-centromere ANA pattern?

A

Classically associated with the CREST limited sclerosis picture. Theses patients develop mortality from pulmonary arterial hypertension.

71
Q

Anti-RNA polymerase III antibody is associated with what sort of scleroderma?

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis, scleroderma renal crisis and hand disability

72
Q

Anti-Scl-70 is associated with what phenotype of scleroderma?

A

Dissuse SSc, digital ulcers, hand disbility and progressive lung fibrosis.

73
Q

Nucleolar ANA pattern is associated with what phenotype in scleroderma?

A

Progressive interstitial lung disease and pulmonary hypertension.

74
Q

What medication can exacerbate a renal crisis in patients with scleroderma and RNA pol III antibody positivity?

A

Cortisteroids of >15mg per day.

75
Q

How is scleroderma renal crisis managed?

A

Captopril until blood pressures stabilised at 120/70. If unable to be acheived with captopril, can introduce a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. Once stable, switch from captopril to a long acting ACEi.

76
Q

How is lupus nephritis or other moderate to severe presentations of lupus managed?

A

Mycophenolate mofetil and immunoltherapy initially. Alternatively cyclophosphamide can be used. Belimumab (anti-b lymphocyte stimulator aka anti-BLyS mab) is approved for use in refractory lupus. Rituximab is used off label.

77
Q

Which is more acute - systemic sclerosis or antisynthetase syndrome?

A

Antisynthetase syndrome typically

78
Q

What’s the other name for anti-SCL-70 abs?

A

Anti-topoisomerase I

79
Q

What’s the significance of anti-DSF70 ab?

A

When detected along with a postivie ANA, it is considered an important marker that the patient does not have an autoimmune disease.

80
Q

What do adlimumab, entanercept, goliliumumab and infliximab all have in common?

A

All act on TNF mediated inflammation

81
Q

What is the most commonly affected joint when arthritis occurs in PAN?

A

The ankle.

82
Q

What is the rash associated with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Livedo reticularis

83
Q

Does APLS occur only in the setting of SLE?

A

No, it can occur by itself and is also associated with SJogren’s syndreome and RA.

84
Q

What are the typical featuers of bechet disease?

A

Genital aphthos ulcers, ocular lesions (anterior/posterior uvieitis or reintal vasculitis), oral apthos ulcers, skin rash (pseudofoliculitis or erythema nodosum most common), vascular lesions (e.g. superficial phlebitis, DVT, arterial thrombosis, aneurysm), neruologic manifestations, pathergy (hyperactivity of the skin to trauma)

85
Q

What HLA type is associated with susceptibility to bechet’s disease?

A

HLA-B51

86
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with tofacitinib?

A

Abnormal LFTS, myelosuppresion, dyslipidaemia, TB or VZV reactivation, VTE

87
Q

What are the advere effects assocaited with hydroxychloroquine?

A

Photosensitivity, haemolytic anaemia, blue-gray skin discolouration, corneal deposits, retinal toxicity.

88
Q

What are the adverse effects of a sulfasalazine?

A

Rash, haemolytic anaemia, abnormal LFTs, nausea, headache, oligospermia

89
Q

Which convential DMARD is not used psoriatic arthritis?

A

Sulfasalazine

90
Q

Where is sulfsalazine largely converted from it pro-drug to active drug form?

A

90% is procesed to 5-ASA in the colon and relies on coliform bacteria. The 5-ASA appears to the important component in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease. However another breakdown product sulfapyridine appears to the active moeity in RA - they do not know how it works.

91
Q

How does leflunomide work to treat inflammatory diseases?

A

It inhibits pyrimidine synthesis.

92
Q

What are the adverse effects of leflunomide?

A

Alopecia, diarrhoea, GI upset, hypertension, pneumonitis, peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity