Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What cell type expresses CD20 and CD19?

A

Late pro-B-cells through to memory B-cells, but not plasma cells.

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2
Q

What cells express CD38 and CD135?

A

Plasma cells. They also express a marker called plasma cell antigen 1. Note that early stage B cells also express 38, but that they don’t get it back until they become plasma cells, and the early B-cells don’t express CD135. Daratumumab is a monoclonal ab that targets CD38 and is used to treat multiple myeloma by attacking monoclonal (and all other) plasma cells.

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3
Q

What cells express CD44?

A

Mature, and some early stage, CD4 and CD8 helper t cells.

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4
Q

What are 3 signals needed to prime a naive T-cell?

A
  1. Antigen specific TCR activation. 2. Interaction with costimulatory molecules on APCs with T-cell ligands and 3. Cytokines which guide the differentiation of the T-cell
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5
Q

What is chemokine receptor 7 (CCR7)?

A

Recall that chemokines are molecules that guide the movement of cells down a concentration gradient. CCR7 binds to CCL21, which is released from peripheral lymphoid tissue. Naive T-cells use CCR7 to find lymphoid tissue and look for their antigen. Tissue dendritic cells suddenly express CCR7 after their TLRs encounter PAMPs.

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6
Q

What does T-cell membrane bound protein LFA-1 bind to? Why is it significant?

A

LFA-1 binds to APC ICAM-1 and ICAM-2. If TCR - antigen - MHC binding occurs simultaneously, the LFA-1 protein undergoes a conformational change that causes the cells to stay bound for several days to a allow for T-cell clonal proliferation.

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7
Q

What’s important about B7 and CD28 with regard to T-cells?

A

B7 is expressed exclusively on the surface of APCs able to prime T-cells once the APC is activated (i.e. has antigen to display). B7 binds to CD28 on naive T-cells and is necessary for naive T-cell priming. When bound it stimulates the production of IL-2 and a high-affinity version of the IL-2 receptor by the T-cell. Autocrine IL-2 activity pushes the T-cell back into its cell cycle to replicate.

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8
Q

What does IL-2 do? Hint, it’s part of an autocrine system.

A

Once co-stimulatory molecules B7 on APCs and CD28 on naive T-cells occurs AND a corresponding MHC+antigen+TCR complex is formed, the T-cells upregulate the production of IL-2 and the high-affinity IL-2 receptors to self-propel clonal expansion and differentiation. Once differentiated IL-2 is also vital to keeping effector cells alive- in the absence of IL-2, effector T-cells die.

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9
Q

What happens downstream after a naive T-cell receptor binds with its antigen and an MHC complex on an APC? What drugs work here?

A

Of most relevance here is that tacrolimous and Cyclosporin A work by indirectly inhibiting calcineurin and preventing the dephosphorylation of NFAT- markedly impacting T-cell IL-2 and IL-2 receptor manufacture, and thus inhbiting T-cell proliferation and contributing to effector T-cell death.

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10
Q

What is the role CTLA-4? What drugs inhibit it?

A

In peripheral lymphoid tissue, CTLA-4 is expressed on cells to compete with the binding of naive T-cells to B7, the costimulatory molecule present on activated APCs. It binds much more readily to B7 than CD28. In this way, it down regulates proliferation T-cells. It is also expressed on T-cells after they have been primed, so as to slow the costimulation of itself and neighbouring cells in lymphoid tissue. Ipilimumab inhibits CTLA-4 to enhance the immune response when treating cancer. It is used in renal cancers and melanoma.

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11
Q

JAK/STAT - what is this really?

A

Janus (a Roman God with 2 heads) kinase/signal transducers and activators of transcription. JAKs are the intracellular domains of many cytokine receptors and are part of the tyrosine kinase group. Each JAK intracellular domain head/cytokine receptor has a corresponding JAK intracellular domain head/cytokine receptor. When a cytokine is present, the 2 parts of the cytokine receptor extracellularly, and the two JAKs intracellularly, interact through phosphorylation causing them to bind a specific STAT (also two parts) which when activated is able to enter the nucleus to directly influence transcription.

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12
Q

What is the primary role of cascades?

A

They are the effectors of apoptosis- whether activated intrinsically or extrinsically. They systematically deconstruct the cell.

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13
Q

What’s the mechanism of endogenous in the setting of infection fever?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells produce IL-6, IL-beta and TNF-alpha in response to pathogens and to a lesser extent, tissue damage. There cytokines induce the production of protstaglandin E2. Circulating PE2 causes the hypothalamus to increase sympathetic activity body-wide. This leads to systemic vasoconstriction, brown fat increases heat production and piloerection and rigoring maintain and generate heat respectively.

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14
Q

Activated macrophages and dendritic cells produce a number of important chemokines at drive the immediate response to infection. What are they?

A

IL-1beta
TNF-alpha
IL-6
CXCL8 (chemokine)
IL-12

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15
Q

What does IL-1beta do? What produces it?

A

Produced by activated macrophages and conventional dendritic cells. Locally, IL-1beta activates vascular endothelium, activates lymphocytes, causes local tissue destruction, increases access of effector cells to site of infection. Systemically, IL-1Beta causes fever and stimulates other cells to produce IL-6.

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16
Q

What does TNF-alpha do, and what produces it?

A

Produced by activated macrophages and conventional dendritic cells, TNF-alpha is the main driver of shock in sepsis as it activates vascular endothelium increasing tissue permeability with the goal of allowing better immune component access to sites of infection. Binding to TNFR-1 in some cells (e.g. lymphocytes) leads to pro-inflammatory responses, and in others leads to cell death via apoptosis. TNFR-2, expressed on T-cells, always leads to activating gene transcription.

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17
Q

What is IL-6, and what does it do?

A

IL-6 is produced by activated macrophages and conventional dendritic cells. It contributes to lymphocyte activation and increases antibody production locally, and systemically causes fever, induces the production of acute phase reactants — CRP, MBL, surfactants SP-A and SP-D, fibrinogen and serum amyloud protein.

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18
Q

What drugs target TNF-alpha? What diseases are they effective against? What risks should be consideted before commencing these medications?

A

TNF-alpha antagonists have been successful in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, ankolysing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis and juvenile idiopathic arthritis and Crohns disease. Anti-TNF-alpha abs are inflixamab, adalimumab, cetrolizumab and golilimumab. Decoy receptor for TNF-alpha is entanercept. Notable risk is tuberculosis reactivation. Notable autoinflammatory disease they don’t work in is MS.

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19
Q

What’s Fas and Fas ligand?

A

Fas is expressed on many cells. When in contact with its ligand (which can happen for many reasons), it activated apoptosis. Mutations in Fas or its downstream caspases leading to loss of function cause Autoimmune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome due to the failure of controlled death of lymphocytes.

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20
Q

What is the role of plasmacytoid dendritic cells?

A

In response to viruses they produce 1000x more type 1 interferons (alpha and beta) than other cells. Also after typing up virus particles, they express chemokine receptors that guide them to lymph nodes to allow them to influence naive lymphocytes. They also produce CD40 ligand, which binds to CD40 on conventional dendritic cells and perpetuates the production of IL-12, stimulating further the production of interferon gamma and enhancing macrophage killing potential.

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21
Q

What are the type 1 interferons, and what do they do?

A

Interferon-alpha (a subfamily of related proteins) and interferon-beta (a single protein that stimulates the production of interferon-alpha) are produced by almost all cells in response to virus. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells pros at doing this though- making 1000x more than other cells when encountering virus. Group 1 interferons via the interferon receptor—JAK/STAT pathway induce the production of Mx proteins thay interfere with viral replication, oligoadenylate synthetase which alters viral RNA to make it non-functional, and increase the expression of MHC-I in all cells. They also activate macrophages, conventional dendritic cells and NK cell, and induce chemokine production to recruit lymphocytes to sites of infection.

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22
Q

What are the type 1 interferons, and what do they do?

A

Interferon-alpha (a subfamily of related proteins) and interferon-beta (a single protein that stimulates the production of interferon-alpha) are produced by almost all cells in response to virus. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells pros at doing this though- making 1000x more than other cells when encountering virus. Group 1 interferons

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23
Q

What is the role of natural killer cells, how are they activated, and how do they do their work?

A

They are responsible for the early control of viruses and killing cancer cells. They are activated by type 1 interferons (produced largely by activated plasmacytoid dendritic cells) or IL-12 (produced by activated macrophages or conventional dendritic cells). They enzymatically destroy any cell that doesn’t produce adequate MHC-I, or produce altered MHC-I - a common strategy employed by cancer cells or virus infected cells to avoid detection by CD8 Tcells. Other signals shift the balabce towards killing such as the presence of Fc regions on target cells. In response to IL-12, NK cells produce interferon gamma. Pts with dysfunctional NK cells are susceptible to frequent recurrence of chronic viral infections like HZV and CMV.

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24
Q

What’s the difference between the CD8 T-cell responses to tumour or viruses?

A

Conventional dendritic cells can unilaterally activate naive CD8 cells to proliferate into effector cells to attack cancer cells. To destroy virus infected cells however, CD8 activation usually requires costimulation from an APC AND a CD4 T cell with the same antigen specific TCR. Dendritic cells when simultaneously bound to activated virus antigen specific CD4 T cells and naive CD8 T cells stimulate the CD4 T cells to produce CD40 ligand and IL-2. CD40L binds to the CD40 receptor on the dendritic cell and leads to production of more B7 receptors to bind more CD28 on T-cells, and a ligand called 4-IBBL that binds to 4-IBB on CD8 T cells to accelerate their growth. The IL-2 production from helper T cells also drives the nearby CD8 cells to activate.

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25
Q

A naive CD4 T cell encounters its antigen in the presence of IL-6 and and TGF-beta. The milieu does not contain IL-4 or IL-12. What does it differentiate into?

A

A Th17 Helper T-cell. In the first step, IL-21 is produced by naive CD4 T cells in response to IL-6 and TGF-beta. IL-21 in an autocrine manner drives, via a JAK-STAT receptor, complete differentiation to Th17 cell which express IL-23 receptors. IL-23 exposure it was drives their expansion. Th17 cells produce IL-17 once mature.

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26
Q

What does IL-17 do?

A

Produced by Th17 cells, IL-17 indirectly promotes inflammation. It causes local stomal and epithelial cell to produce chemokines that attract neutrophils.

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27
Q

What interleukin is required for differentiation from naive CD4 T cells to Th2 cells?

A

IL-4 drives the maturation in to Th2 cells, which subsequently produce abundant IL-4/9/13 and 5. The initial IL-4 is likely from activated mast cells or eosinophils.

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28
Q

During infection with extracellular bacterial or fungus, macrophages produce TNF-alpha, IL-6 and IL-1 beta. Dendritic cell produce IL-6 and IL-23. This cytokine mileu leads to maturation of Helper T cells to what subtype?

A

Th17 cells. Important for the production of IL-17 which induce the production of local chemokines by fibroblasts and epithelial cells to attract more WBCs to the site of infection as well as produce GM-CSF and G-CSF to stimulate the production of and attract more neutrophils and macrophages to the site of infection. Th17 cells also produce IL-22 which causes keratinoctes to produce beta defensins and other antimicrobial agents. Th17 cells are critical to protecting the interface between self antigens and commensal organisms from pathogenic organisms. Ustekinumab targets IL-23/IL-12 to counter the effects of Th17 cells as well Th1 cells respectively.

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29
Q

Which cells express CD40 ligand, and what does it do?

A

Expressed by Th2, Th17, Th1 and Tfh cells. Binds to CD40 on B-cells to provide cognate help to activate them and initiate isotope switching. Also binds CD40 on macrophages, causing to make more TNF-alpha and be activated more easily.

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30
Q

Intracellular bacterial infection leads to production of abundant interferon gamma from infected cells of any type, and IL-12 from conventional dendritic cells and macrophages. If a naive CD4 cell encounters its antigen on an APC in this environment, how will it likely mature?

A

Th1 cells mature from naive CD4 T cells in the presence of their TCR-speific antigen, costimulatory B7, and cytokines INF-gamma and IL-12. Furthermore, IL-12 inhibits the development of Th2 cells, allowing for Th1 maturation to dominate the helper T-cell response during intracellular pathogen infection.

31
Q

Th2 helper T cell development occurs in the presence of IL-4, and is accelerated by the addition of IL-6. What are the initial cell sources for IL-4?

A

In the presence of multicellular parasitic pathogens, invariant natural killer cells (a special NK cell subset) and eosinophils produce large amounts of IL-4, promoting Th2 development. Th2 cells themselves then go on to produce large amounts of IL-4, leading to a Th2 dominated T cell response to parasitic infections.

32
Q

What do activated Th1 cells do to macrophages in the presence of intracellular pathogens?

A

They supply INF-gamma and CD40L - the two signals required to activate the macrophages and allow them to kill intracellular pathogens by causing phagosomes to fuse with lysosomes, and causing them to amplify the immune response by producing more TNF alpha, IL-6 and IL-1. Activated macrophages also express more CD40, B7, MHCII, and TNF receptors. Sustained macrophage activation requires ongoing TNFR-1 (receptor) binding with ligands TNF alpha (produced by other active macs) or Lymphotoxin-alpha (LT-alpha, also produced Th1 cells).

33
Q

What do Th1 cells do to chronically infected macrophages?

A

Chronically infected macrophages may be unable to be activated. In this case, Th1 cells produce Fas Ligand and Lymphotoxin-beta to cause apoptosis of the chronically infected macrophages. This leads to the release of the bacteria sheltering there, and allows new macrophages to phagocytose them which can be activated to destroy them.

34
Q

How do Th1 helper cells bring more macrophages and other granulocytes to the site of infection?

A

They produce IL-3 and GM-CSF which cause increased proliferation of granulocytes in the bone marrow. TNF-alpha and LT-alpha (also important for sustaining activated macrophage activity) locally induces endothelial cells to produce more phagocytic cell adhesion molecules allowing for greater probability of diapedesis of those cells to the site of infection. Activated Th1 cells also produce CXCL2 which specifically attracts monocytes to the site of infection.

35
Q

What’s the main role of NOD like receptors in mature adults?

A

They react to foreign cytosolic components to form inflammasomes that interact with caspase-1 to produce innate inflammatory cytokines - in particular IL-1 and causes apoptosis. The communication between the inflammasome and caspase-1 is microtubule dependent. This is what happens in gout, which is why microtibule targeting medication (like colchicine) works.

Notable exception is NOD2 which doesn’t create inflammasomes, but is involved in recognition of intracellular pathogens and leads to production of INFs.

36
Q

RIG-like receptors do what?

A

Recognise intracellular RNA to trigger IFN response.

37
Q

AIM and cGAS do what?

A

Intracellular cytoplasmic DNA sensors. Lead to interferon type 1 response.

38
Q

What diseases are IgA deficiency associated with.

A

IgA is the most common Ig deficiency. It is not intrinsically dangerously immune compromising as secretary IgM monomer can cover for it somewhat, but it is associated with a set of autoimmune disease. Most important is coeliac disease- 3% are IgA deficient. There IgA-transglutaminase test will therefore be negative in these pts, thus the deamidated gliding peptide IgG must always also be performed. IgA deficiency is also associated with IBD, RA, JRA, SLE, DMS, ITP, Addison’s disease, thyroiditis, pernicious anaemia, anapylaxis when receiving flood from a donor who makes IgA.

39
Q

What is the role of Tfh cells?

A

To provide cognate help to B cells in lymph nodes.

40
Q

What are centroblasts?

A

B cells that have encountered there antigen on a lymph node start to multiply. Some of these form germinal centres and become centroblasts. Centroblasts temporarily suppress there surface receptors, then undergo somatic hypermutarion variable region of Ig to allow for affinity maturation. Those with better antigen affinity are selected for by fDCs and receive help from Tfh cells.

41
Q

What do B-cells with CD27 markings do?

A

Memory B-cells!

42
Q

What immunological disease typically has btk mutant involved?

A

X-linked agammaglobulibaemia. As a result, B-cells are unable to generate a functional signalling cascade downstream from the B-cel receptor. This prevents them escaping the bone and entering the circulation.

43
Q

What is cd3?

A

It’s the activating transmembrane bits on either side of the T-cell receptor. So it’s on all T-cells.

44
Q

Are there more CD8 cells or CD4 cells?

A

CD4 is about 2/3rds, CD8 ab9ut 1/3

45
Q

What level of CD4 puts you at a risk of severe disease?

A

Less than 200 is the definition of AIDS and puts you at the highest risk

46
Q

SCID most commonly caused by what?

A

Loss the common gamma chain involved formation of the IL-7 receptor, critical to T-cell development. Many other causes, but all of them result in an inability to create T-cells.

47
Q

FAS/FAS Ligand plays an important role in T cell immunobiology. What does it do?

A

Causes apoptosis when bound - important for elimination of T-cells after an infection is cleared. People with FAS mutations end up with autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome - uncontrolled T-cell proliferation with resultant autoimmunity.

48
Q

CTLA4 deficiency - what’s going on?

A

Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance. Leads to failure in T regulator function. Causes multiple system autoimmunity

49
Q

What leads to sympathetic ophthalmia?

A

Eye injury, normally immunoprivaleged, eye antigens circulate, activate T-cells, T-cell infiltration to both eyes. Eye damage.

50
Q

Treg mature in? What’s the gene that makes them special?

A

The thymus or peripherally. FoxP3 characteristically drive their development. X-linked FoxP3 deficiency (IPEX) leads to sever over immune system activity

51
Q

What are the subsets of helper T-cells?

A

Th1, th2, Th17, Treg, Tfh

52
Q

What cytokines and receptora do Tregs express impair immune activation?

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta which drive inactivation of other T-cells. CTLA4 which binds CD28 more strongly than B7. They also produce CD25 (ie. Il2 receptor alpha) which mops up IL2 so it can’t activate t cells.

53
Q

What CTLA4-Ig (abatacept) do?

A

It floods the pt with soluble CTLA4 which binds to B7 on APCs preventing them binding to CD28 delivering signal 2 to T cells, so the T cell cant activate. Not to be confused with anti-CTLA4 antibodies, which block native CTLA4 function and cause mass T-cell activation to fight cancer.

54
Q

What cytokine produced by T-cells at the site of tumour cause it to produce PD-1L?

A

INF-gamma

55
Q

With regard to T-cells and B-cells, what is ICOS?

A

In germinal centres, follicular helper T-cells present ICOS to B-cells after somatic hypermutation which binds to their ICOS receptors. This acts as signal 2 and causes a positive growth response and proliferatio +/- isotope switching. Cf B-cells and helper T-cells in the periphery where other subtypes of helper T-cells provide signal 2 via CD40L to B-cell CD40.

56
Q

Which is Th cell is classically described as dysfunctional in psoriasis?

A

Th17 cells. Drives the classic karatosis changes.

57
Q

What causes chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?

A

Th17 dysfunction- several possible genetic causes. AIRE mutants lead to auto-IL-17 abs which destroy IL-17. STAT-1 gain of function mutations also stuff them up somehow. There are other genes.

58
Q

What are the ways in which Tfh cells provide help to centroblasts (germinal centres B-cells that have just undergone somatic hypermutation)?

A

IL-21 production, ICOS presentation, CD40L presentation and all provide positive growth signals from the Tf2 cell to the centroblasts that have produced strongly antigen binding Ig. This causes them to proliferate into plasma cells or memory B-cells. Tfh cells also produce a cytokine called CXCR5 which holds the centroblast in position to optimise this process.

59
Q

What activates mast cells?

A

High affinity binding to IgE. When the IgE binds its target ag, it crosswinds and causes the mast cell to degranulate. However, they can also be activated and degranulate in response to other things- alarmins, PAMPS (they have TLRs).

60
Q

What do activated mast cells do?

A

They degranulate, and these granules contain proteases (like tryptase!) And histamine, and other stuff. Once degranulated they then produce leukotrienes, chemokines to attract other immune cells and cytokines IL-1, IL-6, TNF and IL-13. They can present antigen, and promote tissue repair.

61
Q

When does serum tryptase peak during an anaphylactic reaction? How long dose it persist for?

A

60-90min post allergen exposure. Persists for 5hrs post exposure.
Fun fact, sometimes not elevated with food allergy.

62
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for mastocytosis? What happens to them?

A

Need 1 major and 1 minor, or 3 or more minor criteria.

Major criteria: Foci of >15 mast cells in the bone marrow.

Minor criteria:
Atypical peripheral or marrow mast cells.
Aberrant CD25 and or CD2 expression of asthma cells in marrow
D816V KIT mutation
Serum tryptase >20 at baseline.

63
Q

How to treat mastocytosis?

A

Lifelong antihistamines and leukotriene inhibitors.

64
Q

What are the MHC Class 1 HLA subtypes?

A

HLA-A/B/C/E/F/G

65
Q

What she the MHC-II HLA subtypes?

A

HLA-DR/DP/DQ

HLA-DM is the one that floats round in the phagolysosome to facilitate the addition of the clip to the MHC-II grove on the active subtype.

66
Q

What are thr classic causes of drug induced lupus?

A

Procainamide, hydralazine, TNF inhibitors, minocycline.

67
Q

Side effects of cyclosporin? And how does it work?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor. Side effects: renal, hypertension, tremor, hirsuitism, gum hypertrophy. Need to monitor levels.

68
Q

How do azathioprine and mycophenolate work?

A

Both affect purine synthesis in dividing cells, which impact b and t cells. Aza - have to watch LFTs and leukopoenka. Mycophenolate - causes GIT symptoms, cytopoenias, alopecia, teratogenicity. However, MMF is typically better tolerated than Aza.

69
Q

Methotrexate side effects?

A

Dose adjustment in renal impairment, liver fibrosis, nausea, stomatitis, liver toxicity, alopecia, pulmonary toxicity, teratogenicity.

70
Q

Cyclophosphamide - how does it work?

A

Alkalating agent. Interferes with cell cycle. Particularly impacts plasma cells.

71
Q

Cyclophosphamide - indications in autoimmune disease?

A

SLE (nephritis and cerebral)
Vasculitis- PAN and ANCA associated

72
Q

Cyclophosphamide - side effects?

A

Bone marrow suppression, gonadal suppression, alopecia, immunosuppression, GIT side effects, bladder (haemorrhagic cystitis), bladder cancer, lymphoma/leukaemia.

73
Q

What is Muckle-Wells syndrome?

A

Triad of intermittent fever, headache, rash and joint pain. However, most strikingly these people have sensorneural hearing loss due to autoinflammatory cochlear inflammation from a young age. Autosomal dominant NLRP3 gene mutant (nod-like receptors p3) with variable penetrance. Inappropriate caspase-1 activation from the over-active NALP3 inflammasome leads to excessive IL1 production. Treatment is anakinra.