Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most significant change to metabolism of medication in older patients?

A

Liver mass and decreased blood flow to the liver. This decreases first pass metabolism (required for pro-drug conversion, and reduction in initial peak concentrations of straight drugs), and slows phase I metabolism (the early enzymatic reactions that alter drugs).

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2
Q

If first past metabolism is impaired, what implication does this have for oral drugs?

A

As with elderly patients, first pass metabolism is inhibited. For pro-drugs, this means lower concentrations of active drug in the circulation that depend on first pass metabolism. It also means higher peak concentrations for drugs that account for an amount of degradation via first pass metabolism when calculating the dose.

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3
Q

If phase 1 metabolism is impaired, what affect does this have on liver metabolised medications?

A

Decreased clearance of liver metabolised medications.

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4
Q

Does phase 1 metabolism influence peak plasma concentration of drugs metabolised in the liver?

A

No, just the rate at which they are cleared.

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5
Q

How is ampicillin excreted?

A

By the kidneys through filtration, but also through tubular secretion.

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6
Q

How do you dose adjust medications that rely on tubular secretion for clearance?

A

With great difficulty. It’s easy to do this if the drug is filtered - you can just adjust in line with the filtration rate. However predicting how tubular secretion will change from person to person is very hard.

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7
Q

What risks are associated with overdosing penicillins in patients with renal impairment?

A

Sodium overload, neurotoxicity (seizures, coma), neutropoenia.

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8
Q

What are the unwanted side effects of anti-cholinergic medications?

A

Dry mouth, drowsiness, blurred vision, urinary retnetion, constipation, tachycardia.

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9
Q

How is azithromycin unique amongst macrolides?

A

It doesn’t induce CYP3A4, leading to few drug-drug interactions.

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10
Q

Can azithromycin be used in pregnancy?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What is a biosimilar? Is it different to a generic?

A

Yes, a biosimilar is a biologic that is designed to act in the same way as a pre-existing medicine, has a similar efficacy and safety profile, but is different in its chemical makeup. A generic medication on the other hand tends to refer to small molecule medication and is an exact copy of the chemical structure of the original.

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12
Q

How can you calculate the steady state plasma concentration of a drug given as an infusion as a fixed rate?

A

Divide the infusion rate by the clearance rate.

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13
Q

Calculate the steady state plasma concentration of a drug being administered via IV infusion at a rate of 1mg/min that is cleared entirely renally in a patient with a creatine clearance of 120mL/hour

A

Plasma concentration is calculated by dividing the infusion rate by the clearance rate.

Infusion rate 1mg/min
Drug clearance rate 120mL/hr
= 2ml/min

Plasma concentration = 1/2mg/mL = 0.5mg/mL

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14
Q

Is clopidogrel a prodrug?

A

Yes

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15
Q

How does clopidogrel work?

A

Once converted to its activate metabolite by CYP2C19, it irreversibly binds to the adenosine diphospphate P2Y12 receptor on platelets which decreases their aggregation.

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16
Q

Mutations in what cyt P450 enzyme lead to reduced effectiveness of clopidogrel?

A

CYP2C19

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17
Q

What one of the reasons that P2Y12 inhibitors ticagrelor and prasugrel have been shown to be more efficacious than clopidogrel in the management of ACS?

A

Likely related to the relatively common CYP2C19 mutation prevalence in the relevent trial populations. When studies have been done that include genetic testing, clopidodrel is just as effective (with a lower bleeding profile) in patients who have wild type CYP2C19.

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18
Q

Paroxetine and fluoxetine inhibit what potently?

A

CYP2D6. Fluoxetine also inhibits CYP3A4.

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19
Q

Rifampacin potently induces which liver enzymes?

A

CYP3A4, CYP2D6 and CYP2C19

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20
Q

What drugs need to be given with caution in patient’s who have Addison’s disease?

A

Anything that induces CYP3A4 may lead to an Addisonian crisis. This is because hydrocortisone is metabolised by CYP3A4 and will rapidly deminish in plasma concentration when CYP3A4 is induced.

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21
Q

What are the strong CYP3A4 inducers?

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, dexamethasone, grisefulvin, nevirapine, phenytoin, riabutin, rifampin, and St John’s wort.

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22
Q

What is the only eGFR calculation validated for drug dosing?

A

Cockcroft-Gault

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23
Q

In what patient cohort is NM GFR scan inaccurate?

A

Severe renal infsufficiency (CrCl < 20ml/min)

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24
Q

How do you calculate anion gap?

A

Na + K - (bicarb + chloride)

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25
Q

What are the causes of high anion gap?

A

Ethylene glycol, propylene glycol poisoning. Oxoproline (from excessive paracetamol intake), Lactate. MEthanol. Aspirin. Renal failure (as opposed to renal tubular acidosis, which causes a hyperchloraemic, normal anion gap acidosis) and ketones.

The mneumonic is GOLD MARK

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26
Q

What happen to ethylene glycol after it is ingested?

A

It is metabolised by alcohol dehydrogenase to oxalic acid (this causes the raised anion gap acidosis). The oxalic acid forms crystals in that are eliminated in the urine and look like a square with a cross in them.

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27
Q

Who are toxic alcohol (methanol, ethylene glycol) poisonoing managed?

A

Gastric levage, induced emesis or activated charcoal all need to be done within 60mins of ingestion. Administration of IV ethanol will prevent oxalic acid formation down as it competes with methanol and ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase. Fomepizole can be used instead of ethanol - binds to alcohol dehydrogenase 8000 times more strongly than other substrates (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol). Once ethanol infusion or fomepizole on board, can do haemodialysis to remove the unmetabolised alcohol. Giving bicarb can help ameliorate metabolic acidosis.

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28
Q

Where does first pass metabolism happen?

A

In the liver, but also in the intestines.

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29
Q

What effect does portal hypertension have on first pass metabolism?

A

It shunts blood from the mesenteric cirulation rapidly through the portal system into the systemic circulation, resulting in reduced first pass metabolism and higher drug bioavailability. `

30
Q

What is the extraction ratio?

A

The fraction of drug that is removed from the blood or plasma as it crosses the organ eliminating it (such as the kidney or the liver).

31
Q

Can you use Warfarin for HIT?

A

No. Worsens thrombsis.

32
Q

How do the thiazide diuretics and indapamide work?

A

They inhibit the apical distal convoluted tubule epithelium sodium/chloride cotransporter. It also inadvertanly inhibits calcium reabsorption.

33
Q

Holw is indapamide superior to HCT?

A

Improves microalbuminuria in biatetics, reduces LV mass, inhibits platelet aggregation, reduces oxidative stress.

34
Q

What are the major side effects associated with taking linezolid?

A

Mitochondiral defects which is thought to cause optic and peripheral neuropathy, anaemia, lactic acidosis.

Also, it is MAO inhibitor, so it can’t be used with SSRIs/SNRIs/TCAs or other MAO inhibitors.

Hypertension.

35
Q

After how long should you stop taking linezolid?

A

28 days. After then, much increased risk of mitochondrial DNA mutations.

36
Q

What is the best measure of bioavailability?

A

Area under the curve.

37
Q

What are P-glycoproteins?

A

Efflux tranporters present all over the body (gut, liver, kidneys, brain, placenta). They protect eukaryotic cells from harmful substances. They are particularly important for protecting the CNS.

38
Q

What sorts of drugs are reliant on normal P-glycoprotein function to avoid toxicity?

A

Drugs with tight therapeutic windows.

39
Q

What drugs most often result in toxicity if given with a P-glycoprotein inhibitor?

A

Digoxin, cyclosporine, dabigatran, loperamide.

40
Q

What are some of the most potent clinically significant P-glycoproetin inhibitors?

A

Strong inhibitors: Anti-fungals, fexofenadine, and quinidine.
Moderate inhibitors: amiodarone, calcium channel blockers, beta blockers.

41
Q

What is the most clinically significant inducer of P-glycoprotein?

A

Rifampacin

42
Q

Which drug has a clinically significant dependence on CYP2C9 enzyme function?

A

Warfarin S- isomer (the most contributory to anticoagulant activity). Note that this enzyme is strongly inhibited by fluconazole other azoles and amiodarone. It is induced by carbamazepine.

43
Q

Which drugs have clinically singificant dependence on CYP2C19 enzyme function?

A

Clopidogrel, many antidepressants, the warfarin R - isomer, and possibly tamoxifen. Note this is one of the enzymes potently induced by rifampacin.

44
Q

Which drugs have clinically significant dependence on CYP3A4/5 enzymatic function?

A

Tacrolimus and cyclosporin A (the calcineruin inhibitors), the warfarin R isomer. Note that this is one of the enzymes potently induced by rifampacin.

45
Q

Which drugs have clinically significant dependence on CYP2D6 enzymatic activity?

A

Prodrug conversion to acitve metabolite of codeine, tamoxifen and tramadol all depend on this enzyme. Note that this is one of the enzymes strongly induced by rifampacin.

46
Q

What reactions are typical of phase one metabolsm?

A

Oxidation, rudction and hydrolysis - activate or inactivate drugs.

47
Q

What reactions a typical of phase 2 metabolism?

A

glucouronidation and sulfonation - enhance drug clearance.

48
Q

What impact does being obese have on renal clearance of drugs?

A

Tends to increase renal clearance of medications due to increased phase 2 metabolism in obese patients.

49
Q

What impact does being obese have on fat soluble medications?

A

Leads to elongation of half life as the medication is distributed in the fat.

50
Q

Other than mu-opioid receptor agonism, how does tramadol exert its analgesic effects?

A

Increasing serotonin and noradrenaline concentrations through re-uptake inhibition.

51
Q

Other than mu-opioid receptor agonism, how does tapentadol exert its analgesic effects?

A

Inhibtion of noradrenaline re-uptake.

52
Q

In elderly patietns with T2DM, what HbA1c should be targeted?

A

7.0-7.9%. Studies indicated that liklihood of death starts with HbA1c <6.0% in older patients.

53
Q

List all the common prodrugs

A

Allopurinol, azathioprine, cortisone (converted to hydrocortisone), diazepam (converted to oxazepam), famciclovir, levodopa (converted to dopamine), omprazole, prenisone (converted to prednisolone), ramipril, simvastatin, sulfasalazine, valganciclovir, clopidogrel`

54
Q

Other than D2 receptor blockade, how do second generation antipscyhotics exert their effects?

A

Via serotonin 5HT2A receptor blockade in the moslimbic pathway.

55
Q

Which has stronger D2 binding, 1st or 2nd generation antipsychotics?

A

1st generation. This is also why they are more likely to lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease.

56
Q

Which antibiotics are most likely to interact with statins?

A

Macrolides (erythromycin and clarifthromycin - recall azithromycin doesn’t have the same issue)

57
Q

What other drugs do statins interact with?

A

Protease inhibitors, amioadarone, azole antifungal agents, calcium channel blockers (non-dihydropyridine ones)

58
Q

How is vancomycin dosed for CNS infections?

A

Higher doses required due to poor tissue penetration.

59
Q

How does vancomycin cause renal toxicity?

A

Concentration dependent renal tubular necoriss.

60
Q

What occurs during red man syndrome?

A

Rate of vancomycin administration related histamine release.

61
Q

What is formula that represents volume of distribution?

A

VD = A (amount of drug in the body) / C (plasma concentration of the durg) when the two have reached steady state equilibrium

62
Q

What formula is used to determine the loading dose required to reach a certain plasma concentration?

A

Loading Dose = desired plasma concentration x volume of distribution

63
Q

What formula is used to derive the oral dose rate from the bioavailability and intravenous dose rate?

A

Oral dose rate = intravenous dose rate / bioavailability

64
Q

Using a known desired concentration, bioavailability and clearance rate, what formula can be used to establish oral dose rate?

A

Desired concentration = Bioavailability (F) x oral dose rate / Clearance

65
Q

Warfarin is racemic mixture of S and R isomers. What enzyme is responsible S (the stronger anticoagulant) metabolism? What inhibits and what induces this enzyme?

A

CYP2C9. Inihibited by azoles (fluconazole, metronidazole) and amiodarone. Induced by carbemazipine.

66
Q

How much does INR increase by in a patient on warfarin if amiodarone or an -azole medication is introduced?

A

About 50%

67
Q

Ohter than beta-1 blockade, what else does nebivolol do?

A

Nitric oxide potentiating peripheral vasodilator

68
Q

Which has a longer half life - methamphetamine or cocaine?

A

Methamphetaemine - as much as 10x greater

69
Q

What is average time of onset of MI following cocaine use?

A

30mins for IV use, 90mins following crack smoking, and 135 mins following intranasal use.

70
Q

What is the first line treatment for cocaine toxicity?

A

Benzodiazepines.

71
Q

What HLA type predicts agranulocytosis with clozapine use?

A

HLA-DQB1 0201

72
Q

What HLA type predicts severe rashes with the use of cabacavir?

A

HLA-B 5701