Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the macrolide antibiotics, and how do they exert their activity?

A

Azithromycin and clarithromycin are the modern macrolides. They are synthetic modifications of the original macrolide - erythromycin - which, ironically, was isolated origiannly from a bacterium that produces it. Macrolides work by binding to the eryhtromycin ribosom methylase (erm) region of the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, inhibiting protein synthesis be preventing tRNA binding. Furthermore, macrolides exert an antiinflammatory effect by reducing the production of IL-8, TNF-alpha, and IL-1beta. Their benefits are seen primarily in the treatment of neutrophil heavy inflammatory diseases (e.g. neutrophilic asthma).

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2
Q

Name a bacteriocidal antibiotic and explain the concept.

A

Bacteriocidal antibiotics cause the death of a bacterium, don’t just inhibit its growth. For example, penicillins cause the disinhibition of cell wall lytic enzymes in sensitive organisms leading to cell wall lysis. Cf with anti-folate synthesis abx such as trimethoprim that lead to a failure to grow and reproduce, and are therefore considered bacteriostatic.

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3
Q

Tetracylcines (doxycycline, tigecycline, minocycline etc) work by doing what? And are they bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30s prokaryotic ribosome in the ‘A’ binding position for tRNA. They do so in a reversible manner and so are considered bacteriostatic.

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4
Q

Fluoroquinolones - how do they work?

A

They work by inhibiting the activity of prokaryotic DNA gyrase - the enzyme responsible for the allowing DNA to coil into and out of superstructures to allow it to be transcribed.

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5
Q

Aminoglycocides - how do they work? What group of organisms is intrinsically resistant to this group?

A

Once transported actively into some bacterial cells, they bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit in a manner that is not reversible, and causes misreading of the mRNA transcript, effectively causing fram shifts. This leads to rapid bacteriocidal killing due to failure to produce any essential protiens. Anaerobes are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides. Interestingly, aminoglycosides are much less effective in low pH envirements like the lungs.

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6
Q

What is the cause of bowel damage in C. diff colitis?

A

C. diff exotoxin causing damage

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7
Q

What is first line treatment for C. auris at present?

A

Anidulafungin

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8
Q

What are the echinocandins?

A

Antifungal medications including caspofungin, micafungin and anidulafungin.

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9
Q

How do the echinocandins work?

A

Inhibit fungal cell well polysaccharide beta-1,3 glucan synthesis.

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10
Q

How do the azole antifungals work?

A

Inhibit C14-alpha sterol demtylase, which leads to the accumulation of sterol precursors and reduction to ergotseol.

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11
Q

Which CYP450 enzymes do the azoles inhibit?

A

CYPC219, CYP3A4, and CYPC29.

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12
Q

What size effects are associated with azole use?

A

QT prolongation (except for isavuconazole which shortens the QT interval), hepatotoxicity (espeicially with voriconazole).

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13
Q

What clasee of durg is amphotericin B? How does it work?

A

Polyene. bind to cell membrane ergosterol, forming artificial pores which permit potassium efflux and cell death.

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14
Q

What are the common adverse effects associated with amphotericin B use?

A

AKI uin 30% of cases. Can also cause heptatotoxicity.

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15
Q

What is 5-fluorocytosine?

A

Pyramidine analogue used to treat pathogenic yeasts. Indicated in combination with amphotericin B intravenously in the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis

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16
Q

Is Chlamydia normally symptomatic in females?

A

No

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17
Q

Does screening for Chlamydia reduced the incidence of PID?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Does negatvie CPE screening of a patient with previous CPE positive status allow them to avoid CPE isolation next hospital admission?

A

No

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19
Q

What treatment should be used for patients with dengue haemorrhagic fever?

A

Crystalloid, and if they need it, blood products. NSAIDs contraindicated. Steroids don’t do anything.

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20
Q

What is an important human bite wound microbe that doesn’t come up in other contexts?

A

E. corrodens (anaerobe) - senstivie to augmentin

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21
Q

What is human T-cell lymptorpic virus 1?

A

Retrovirus. Causes lifelong infection. Transmitted from mohter to child, through sexual contact, or through contaminated blood products. Assocaited with T cell lymphoma. Also causes inflammatory syndrome such as myelopathy and tropical spastic paraesis and uveitis. It worses outcomes in strongyloides patients, increasing risk of hyperinfection.

22
Q

Is the flu vax more effective against flu A or B?

A

50-60% effective against A, 70% against B

23
Q

How long til the flu vax typically starts providing protetion?

A

10-14 days

24
Q

Which organisms are typically ressitent to cephalosporins?

A

Enterococci and Listeria

25
Q

What’s the initial treatment for mellioidosis?

A

Depends on whether it is neurological or not. If neurology involvement - meropenem 2g IV TDS. If not, then ceftazidime 2g IV QID for 14 days OR meropenem 1g IV TDS for 14 days. If there is evidence of neurological , bone, joint or genitourinary infovlement, or skin and soft tissue infeciton, ADD Bactrim and folate.

26
Q

What is the follow-up treatment for eradication in melliodosis?

A

3-6 months of bactrim and daily folate.

27
Q

How long is initial treatment for mellioidosis with neurological or vascular infections?

A

8 weeks IV.

28
Q

How does hipprex (methenamine hippurate) work to reduce UTI frequency?

A

Methenamine is hydrolysed in acidic urine (<5.5 pH) and forms formaldehyde which is bacerticidal, and ammonia. It is effective against E. coli, but not against urea spitting organisms such as Prtoeus as they make the urine alkaline and stop the Hipprex working. Hipprex also won’t work if there is an indwelling catheter as the formaldehyde formation takes time in the bladder. Shouldn’tm be used in liver failure due to ammonia.

29
Q

What type of organism is Coxiella bernetii?

A

Obligate gram negative intracellular bacterium

30
Q

What’s treatment for acute Q fever?

A

Doxycyline.

31
Q

What’s the treatmnet for chronic Q fever?

A

Doxy + hydroxychloroquine

32
Q

How does strongyloides re-infection work?

A

They burrow through perianal tissue into the walls of the intestines, mature there, then lay more eggs in the intesine. Then repeat.

33
Q

What is first line treatment for tuberculosis?

A

Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for 2 months, followed by isoniazid and rifampicin for 4 months.

34
Q

What works better - daily or thrice weekly TB treatment?

A

Daily

35
Q

What is the most common drug of the four drug regimen for TB to be resistent to?

A

Isoniazid

36
Q

What are the clinically important side effects of isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy.

Contraindicated in epilepsy as may caue seizures. CNS toxixity including optic neutritis. Hepatitis. Raised ANA.

37
Q

What medication can be given with isoniazid to reduce the risk of peripheral neuritis?

A

Pyrodoxine (vitamin B6)

38
Q

How should you manage deranged LFTs in patients with previously normal liver function who are being treated with isoniazid?

A

Continue the medication and re-check. It usually resolves despite continuation of the drug.

39
Q

What are the clinically important side effects of rifampacin?

A

Orange urine. Flushing of the face and neck. Thromboytopoenia. Hepatitis, especially when combined with pyrazinamide.

40
Q

What are the clkinically important side effects of pyrazinamide?

A

Hyperuricaemia (contraindicated inthe presence of severe gout). Nausea, vomiting. Hepatitis, espeicially when combined with rifampacin. Rare: porphyric crisis.

41
Q

What are the clkinically important side effects of ethambutol?

A

OPTIC NEURITIS (loss of colour vision, pain, visual acuity, scotoma) - dose dependent, usually reversible.

42
Q

What causes toxi shock syndrome?

A

Super antigen (e.g. staphylococcal) activation of many T cells and mass cytokine release.

43
Q

What treatment options are available for close contacts of meningococcal infected persons?

A

Ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone IM. If ther person could be pregnant, give ceftriaxone. All close contacts should receive a meningococcal vaccine.

44
Q

How does rifampicin, rifaximin and rifabutin exert their anti-microbial characteristics?

A

Inhibit bacterial RNA-polymerase.

45
Q

How does colistin work?

A

Direct damage to the bacterial membranes - like detergent.

46
Q

How does VRE normally get it’s vancomycin resistance?

A

Replacement of the original antibiotic target by creation of a new target

47
Q

How does aminoglycoside resistant E. coli normally obtain it’s resistance?

A

Microbial enzymes break down the drug.

48
Q

What cancer is classically associated with HIV and human herpes virus 8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

49
Q

What cancer is classically associated with HIV and Merkel Cell Carcinoma?

A

Polyomavirus

50
Q

What cancer is classically assocaited with HIV and Primary central Nervous Sytem Lymphoma?

A

EBV

51
Q

What cancer is classically associated with HIV and squamous cell anal cancer?

A

HPV