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Medical Studies 2 > REVISION QUIZ > Flashcards

REVISION QUIZ Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Which part of the kidney contains the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the
nephrons?

A

Renal medulla

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2
Q

What is the two-step process by which urine is formed?

A

Filtration and absorption

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3
Q

What are the three factors that control arteriolar contraction and the glomerular
filtration rate?

A

Autoregulation - Local adjustment in diameter of arterioles made in response
to changes in blood flow in kidneys

Sympathetic nervous system - Increases vasoconstriction in both arterioles

Renin - Secreted by juxtaglomerular cells when blood flow to afferent
arteriole is reduced / Renin-angiotensin mechanism

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4
Q

How would you differentiate cystitis from pyelonephritis?

A

Fever and flank pain are present in pyelonephritis

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4
Q

What type of renal failure can occur as a result of a severe haemorrhage?

A

Pre-renal

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4
Q

What is the name given to the connective tissue that covers bones?

A

Periosteum

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5
Q

What are the three types of renal failure?

A

Pre-renal, Intra-renal and Post-renal

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5
Q

What is the name given to the long-term vascular access that is created to facilitate regular haemodialysis?

A

Arteriovenous fistula

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6
Q

What is the name given to the type of joint found between bones that move against each other?

A

Synovial joint

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic compartment syndrome?

A

Regular vigorous exercise

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8
Q

Which condition occurs as the result of bone reabsorption outweighing bone formation?

A

Osteoporosis

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9
Q

Which skeletal disorder is caused by a deficit of Vitamin D and phosphate?

A

Osteomalacia (Rickets)

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10
Q

What is the cause of Gout, a common and complex form of arthritis?

A

deposits of uric acid and crystals in the joint, causing inflammation

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10
Q

What is ascites and what is the cause?

A

Portal hypertension leads to increased hydrostatic pressure and fluid being forced into the peritoneal space. This is called ascites and is common in alcoholic cirrhosis.

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11
Q

In order, list the vomiting reflex activities.

A

o Deep inspiration
o Closing the glottis, raising the soft palate
o Ceasing respiration
o Relaxing the gastroesophageal sphincter
o Contracting the abdominal muscles
o Reversing peristaltic waves

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12
Q

What is steatorrhoea and in which genetic condition may it be present?

A

Frequent bulky, greasy, loose stools with a foul odor

Characteristic of malabsorption syndromes - Celiac disease, cystic fibrosis

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13
Q

List 3 causes of an upper GI bleed.

A

Peptic ulcer disease
Variceal rupture
Mallory-Weiss syndrome (oesophageal laceration from repeated vomiting)
Cancers of oesophagus or stomach

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13
Q

What is the common bacteria that can lead to gastritis?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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14
Q

What is the significance of a lack of intrinsic factor secretion in the stomach?

A

It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B₁₂ later on in the distal ileum of the small intestine.

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15
Q

List 3 causes of a lower GI bleed.

A

o Diverticulosis/itis
o Colon cancers
o Colon polyps
o Inflammatory bowel disorders such as Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease

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16
Q

What are 3 potential complications of a peptic ulcer?

A

o Haemorrhage – caused by erosion of blood vessels; common complication
and may be the first sign of a peptic ulcer

o Perforation – ulcer erodes completely through the wall; Chyme can enter the
peritoneal cavity and results in chemical peritonitis

o Obstruction – may result later because of the formation of scar tissue

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17
Q

What are the potential serious complications of diverticulitis?

A

o Associated with perforation of bowel

o Massive bright red rectal bleeding, or dark stools if bleeding is from
diverticulum in right colon -Haemorrhage can occur rapidly, often painless,
most common cause of massive rectal bleeding in older adults

o If bacteria escape into abdomen, peritonitis or abscess may develop

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18
Q

Which bowel disorder is found usually only in the innermost lining of the large intestine (colon) and rectum?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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19
Q

What is cirrhosis and what is the most common cause of this condition?

A

Slowly progressive and causes healthy liver tissue to be replaced with scar
tissue.

Alcoholism

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20
Q

Other than ascites, what is a life-threatening complication of portal hypertension?

A

Oesophageal varices

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21
Q

What is the cause of the severe pain often seen in pancreatitis?

A

Autodigestion of the pancreas by pancreatic digestive enzymes

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22
Q

What is the correct terminology for the formation of gall stones?

A

Cholelithiasis

23
Q

Contact dermatitis involves an immune response. T/F

A

False – inflammatory only

23
Q

What is the name given to the physical test that is specific for cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s sign - pain on inspiration when flat hand placed over the
gallbladder

24
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

skin abscesses caused by staphylococcal infection, which involve a hair follicle and surrounding tissue

24
Q

Which skin disorder is characterised by excessive proliferation of keratinocytes?

A

Psoriasis - results from abnormal T cell activation.

24
Q

According to Jackson’s burn theory, in which zone is the tissue potentially salvageable?

A

Stasis - The tissue in this zone is potentially salvageable. The main aim of burns resuscitation is to increase tissue perfusion here and prevent any
damage becoming irreversible

25
Q

What is the name given to benign lesions usually associated with aging or skin
damage?

A

Keratoses

25
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of labyrinthitis?

A

Sudden onset of symptoms including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, and loss
of balance. Vertigo is more marked with movement of the head

26
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma and in which population is it most common?

A

causes lesions to grow in the skin, lymph nodes, internal organs and mucous membranes lining the mouth, nose, and throat.
It often affects people with immune deficiencies, such as HIV or AIDS.

27
Q

What types of cells are newly produced, relatively immature red blood cells (RBCs) and what is their production influenced by?

A

o Reticulocytes
o Produced in bone marrow under influence of erythropoietin from kidney when
↓ O2

28
Q

What are the four functions of the spleen?

A

o Production of RBCs in foetal development
o Filtering old/defective RBCs
o Immune function – lymphocytes/monocytes
o Storage of platelets

29
Q

Which antigen is displayed on the surface of type B blood cells?

A

B antigen – plasma contains anti-A antibodies

30
Q

What is the main physiological effect of anaemia?

A

o Anaemia causes a reduction in oxygen transport.
o Basic problem is haemoglobin deficit

31
Q

What is the meaning of the term coagulopathy?

A

Any derangement of haemostasis resulting in either excessive bleeding or clotting, although most typically it is defined as impaired clot formation.

32
Q

Which blood clotting factor is absent in classic haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII

32
Q

What is the medical term for a reduced platelet count?

A

Thrombocytopenia - Whatever the cause, circulating platelets are reduced by
one or more of the following processes: trapping of platelets in the spleen, decreased platelet production or increased destruction of platelets

33
Q

Define the condition leukaemia

A

o Uncontrolled WBC production in bone or lymph nodes

o Other haemopoietic tissues are reduced.

o One or more types of leukocytes are undifferentiated, immature, and
nonfunctional.

34
Q

What is the pathogen responsible for the highly contagious, airborne disease that
occurs in seasonal epidemics and may manifest as an acute illness with symptoms
ranging from mild fatigue to respiratory failure and even death?

A

Influenza

35
Q

What is a virus?

A

an infective agent that typically consists of a nucleic acid molecule in a
protein coat, is too small to be seen by light microscopy, and is able to
multiply only within the living cells of a host

36
Q

What is the name given to the disorder where cancerous plasma cells accumulate in
the bone marrow and crowd out healthy blood cells?

A

Multiple myeloma

36
Q

Which infectious stage is occurring when Infection has occurred but infectious agent
cannot be passed (or “shed”) to someone else or cause clinically significant symptoms?

A

Latent stage

37
Q

Which strain of hepatitis is the only hepatitis virus that does not lead to chronic liver disease or a chronic carrier state?

A

Hepatitis A

38
Q

Which bacterial disease begins to destroy lung tissue if the cell mediated immunity is inadequate?

A

Tuberculosis – Mycobacterium tuberculosis

39
Q

What is the second most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

40
Q

What are Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax examples of, and what
disease do they cause?

A

parasite species that cause malaria in humans

41
Q

What is the contagious viral disease that can cause foetal malformation if caught in early pregnancy and what are the common birth defects seen?

A

Rubella (German Measles)

Blind, Deaf, heart defects, intellectual disability, and impaired growth

42
Q

What is Reye Syndrome and who is at risk of developing this disorder?

A

Reye syndrome – characterised by confusion, brain swelling and liver damage.
Children recovering from viral infections are at risk of developing Reye
syndrome

43
Q

Which infectious disease that affects about one in 200 infants under the age of six months can cause death from pneumonia or brain damage?

A

Pertussis (Whooping cough)

44
Q

What is the definition of a neoplasm?

A

An abnormal mass of tissue that forms when cells grow and divide more than they should or do not die when they should. No longer responds to genetic
control

45
Q

What are three local effects of tumours?

A

Pain - May be absent until very late stages, occurs when tumour is well advanced, severity depends on the type of tumour

Obstruction - Occurs when tumour compresses a duct or passageway, bloodsupply or lymphatic flow may be restricted

Tissue necrosis and ulceration - May lead to bleeding or infection

46
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a 3rd degree uterine prolapse?

A

uterus and cervix protrude through the vaginal orifice

47
Q

What is the name given to short menstrual cycles of less than 3 weeks?

A

Polymenorrhoea

48
Q

What are 3 ways in which an ovarian cyst can cause abdominal pain?

A

o Rapid expansion
o Torsion that produces ischaemia
o Acute rupture

49
Q

Which disease typically arises from sexually transmitted diseases, nonsterile abortions, or childbirth?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

50
Q

What is the name given to a condition in which one or both of the testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum?

A

Cryptorchidism - can cause degeneration of seminiferous tubules and
spermatogenesis is impaired

51
Q

What are the two peak periods in life in which testicular torsion is likely to occur?

A

Puberty and during the first year of life (peak periods of growth)

52
Q

What is the main pharmacological effect of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Inhibiting effects of acetylcholinesterase

Acetylcholine is cholinergic neurotransmitter

When acetylcholinesterase is inhibited, acetylcholine accumulates at synapses

53
Q

What are the potential life-threatening effects of opioid overdose?

A

o Can cause life-threatening respiratory depression

o In severe intoxication, possible presence of -Hypotension, profound shock, and
pulmonary oedema

54
Q

What class of drugs promote sleep, relieve anxiety by depressing brain function and are often abused for their sedative effects?

A

Benzodiazepines

Medical Studies 2 (12 decks)

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