Revision Flashcards
An adult can refuse treatment when
a. They understand the treatment and risks of refusal
b. They are aware that refusal may result in injury or death
c. They are competent to consent
d. of the above
An adult can refuse treatment when
a. They understand the treatment and risks of refusal
b. They are aware that refusal may result in injury or death
c. They are competent to consent
d. of the above
Under the Mental Health and Wellbeing Act 2019, one of the criteria for compulsory treatment is:
a. The person has engaged in illegal conduct and needs protection
b. The person is under the influence of drugs and alcohol and requires immediate treatment for the safety of the person and/or others
c. Immediate treatment is required to prevent serious deterioration in mental and physical health or for the safety of the person and/or others
d. The person has made comments that are offensive to other’s religious and ethical views
Under the Mental Health and Wellbeing Act 2019, one of the criteria for compulsory treatment is:
a. The person has engaged in illegal conduct and needs protection
b. The person is under the influence of drugs and alcohol and requires immediate treatment for the safety of the person and/or others
c. Immediate treatment is required to prevent serious deterioration in mental and physical health or for the safety of the person and/or others
d. The person has made comments that are offensive to other’s religious and ethical views
THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS ARE NECESSARY FOR A VALID CONSENT:
a. The patient must agree with the procedure and the consent form must be signed
b. The consent needs to be voluntary as long as the patient has been adequately informed and has legal capacity
c. The consent must be voluntary, specific to the procedure, the patient must be sufficiently informed and has legal capacity
d. The consent must be given by a competent patient where the procedure is in their best interests as determined by the physician
THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS ARE NECESSARY FOR A VALID CONSENT:
a. The patient must agree with the procedure and the consent form must be signed
b. The consent needs to be voluntary as long as the patient has been adequately informed and has legal capacity
c. The consent must be voluntary, specific to the procedure, the patient must be sufficiently informed and has legal capacity
d. The consent must be given by a competent patient where the procedure is in their best interests as determined by the physician
A nurse stopped at a car accident and began to provide emergency care for the injured. Ethically these actions are best labelled as:
a. Triage
b. Non-maleficence
c. Respect for people
d. Beneficence
A nurse stopped at a car accident and began to provide emergency care for the injured. Ethically these actions are best labelled as:
a. Triage
b. Non-maleficence
c. Respect for people
d. Beneficence
The Australian High Court decision of Rogers v Whitaker defined a risk as being “material” when:
a. A reasonable person in the patient’s position, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it and the medical practitioner is, or should reasonably be aware that the particular patient, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
b. A reasonable person in the patient’s position, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
c. The risk is not forseeable.
d. The medical practitioner is, or should reasonably be aware that the particular patient, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
The Australian High Court decision of Rogers v Whitaker defined a risk as being “material” when:
a. A reasonable person in the patient’s position, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it and the medical practitioner is, or should reasonably be aware that the particular patient, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
b. A reasonable person in the patient’s position, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
c. The risk is not forseeable.
d. The medical practitioner is, or should reasonably be aware that the particular patient, if warned of the risk, would be likely to attach significance to it.
The Guardianship List is located in the:
a. Magistrates Court.
b. County Court.
c. Supreme Court.
d. Victorian Civil and Administrative Tribunal.
The Guardianship List is located in the:
a. Magistrates Court.
b. County Court.
c. Supreme Court.
d. Victorian Civil and Administrative Tribunal.
A function of the coroner includes:
a. To investigate deaths in order to determine who was responsible
b. To arrange an autopsy for every death that occurs in hospital
c. To investigate deaths and provide recommendations to avoid future deaths in similar circumstances
d. To investigate deaths where the person died of natural causes
A function of the coroner includes:
a. To investigate deaths in order to determine who was responsible
b. To arrange an autopsy for every death that occurs in hospital
c. To investigate deaths and provide recommendations to avoid future deaths in similar circumstances
d. To investigate deaths where the person died of natural causes
Patient consent is required:
a. To other health professionals providing care to that patient
b. To another health professional not directly caring for the patient
c. In an emergency
d. When the patient’s family request information
Patient consent is required:
a. To other health professionals providing care to that patient
b. To another health professional not directly caring for the patient
c. In an emergency
d. When the patient’s family request information
Under the Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act 2016, a patient cannot:
a. Appoint a medical treatment maker
b. Refuse treatment as part of a research trial
c. Refuse medical treatment
d. Refuse palliative care
Under the Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act 2016, a patient cannot:
a. Appoint a medical treatment maker
b. Refuse treatment as part of a research trial
c. Refuse medical treatment
d. Refuse palliative care
In the event that State legislation conflicts with Commonwealth legislation
a. State legislation will prevail only in those jurisdictions to which it applied
b. The Supreme Court must resolve the matter
c. Commonwealth legislation will prevail
d. State legislation will prevail
In the event that State legislation conflicts with Commonwealth legislation
a. State legislation will prevail only in those jurisdictions to which it applied
b. The Supreme Court must resolve the matter
c. Commonwealth legislation will prevail
d. State legislation will prevail
The Australian Parliamentary system comprises:
a. A 2 tiered system, including a Federal & State Parliament.
b. Delegated legislation.
c. The Governor General, the Prime Minister & the Opposition.
d. A 3 tiered system including a Federal Parliament, a State Parliament & local government.
The Australian Parliamentary system comprises:
a. A 2 tiered system, including a Federal & State Parliament.
b. Delegated legislation.
c. The Governor General, the Prime Minister & the Opposition.
d. A 3 tiered system including a Federal Parliament, a State Parliament & local government.
The Coroner’s role is to:
a. Investigate every aspect of all fires which raise public and community issues.
b. Grant any interested party the right to appear.
c. Investigate every aspect of all deaths which raise public and community issues.
d. None of the above.
The Coroner’s role is to:
a. Investigate every aspect of all fires which raise public and community issues.
b. Grant any interested party the right to appear.
c. Investigate every aspect of all deaths which raise public and community issues.
d. None of the above.
Parties involved in civil court proceedings are referred to as
a. Plaintiff and defendant
b. Plaintiff and accused
c. Prosecutor and defendant
d. Plaintiff and prosecutor
Parties involved in civil court proceedings are referred to as
a. Plaintiff and defendant
b. Plaintiff and accused
c. Prosecutor and defendant
d. Plaintiff and prosecutor
Consent may be conveyed in the following ways:
a. By providing a minimal understanding of the procedure.
b. By the spouse.
c. Verbally.
d. By VCAT.
Consent may be conveyed in the following ways:
a. By providing a minimal understanding of the procedure.
b. By the spouse.
c. Verbally.
d. By VCAT.
An example of a breach of ‘duty’ in a negligence claim is
a. A nurse or midwife failing to report deterioration in a patient where injury did not occur as a result
b. A nurse or midwife failing to document vital signs accurately
c. A nurse or midwife breaching a patient’s privacy
d. A nurse or midwife failing to report deterioration in a patient where injury occurred as a result
An example of a breach of ‘duty’ in a negligence claim is
a. A nurse or midwife failing to report deterioration in a patient where injury did not occur as a result
b. A nurse or midwife failing to document vital signs accurately
c. A nurse or midwife breaching a patient’s privacy
d. A nurse or midwife failing to report deterioration in a patient where injury occurred as a result
According to the Health Records Act 2001 (Vic) patient records:
a. Contain health information, such as information or an opinion about the physical, mental or psychological health of a patient.
b. May not be the subject of a complaint by a patient who believes the information contained within the record is factually incorrect.
c. Should be made available to all of the patient’s family members.
d. Of patients treated in private hospitals may not be accessed.
According to the Health Records Act 2001 (Vic) patient records:
a. Contain health information, such as information or an opinion about the physical, mental or psychological health of a patient.
b. May not be the subject of a complaint by a patient who believes the information contained within the record is factually incorrect.
c. Should be made available to all of the patient’s family members.
d. Of patients treated in private hospitals may not be accessed.
The Health Services (Conciliation and Review) Act 1987:
a. Determines what will happen when a patient is incompetent.
b. Provides a means for reviewing and improving the quality of health services.
c. Establishes a mechanism for health professionals to make complaints.
d. Deals with the professional misconduct of health professionals.
The Health Services (Conciliation and Review) Act 1987:
a. Determines what will happen when a patient is incompetent.
b. Provides a means for reviewing and improving the quality of health services.
c. Establishes a mechanism for health professionals to make complaints.
d. Deals with the professional misconduct of health professionals.
When a health professional breaches patient confidentiality the following outcomes may occur:
a. Defamation, professional misconduct, breach of employment contract, negligence.
b. Defamation, breach of employment contract, assault, negligence.
c. Breach of employment contract, negligence, trespass, defamation.
d. Professional misconduct, negligence, assault, false imprisonment.
When a health professional breaches patient confidentiality the following outcomes may occur:
a. Defamation, professional misconduct, breach of employment contract, negligence.
b. Defamation, breach of employment contract, assault, negligence.
c. Breach of employment contract, negligence, trespass, defamation.
d. Professional misconduct, negligence, assault, false imprisonment.
To be considered ‘Gillick Competent’ minors may be able to give consent to treatment:
a. If they are capable of understanding the nature and consequences of the treatment.
b. If living with their grand parents.
c. If they have an understanding of the law.
d. If they are at least 14 years of age.
To be considered ‘Gillick Competent’ minors may be able to give consent to treatment:
a. If they are capable of understanding the nature and consequences of the treatment.
b. If living with their grand parents.
c. If they have an understanding of the law.
d. If they are at least 14 years of age.
The patient record may be used:
a. To chronicle the patient’s health history.
b. To facilitate and sufficiently document communication amongst all health professionals caring for the patient.
c. To assist a court in determining whether an adequate standard of care was reached by the health professional.
d. All of the above.
The patient record may be used:
a. To chronicle the patient’s health history.
b. To facilitate and sufficiently document communication amongst all health professionals caring for the patient.
c. To assist a court in determining whether an adequate standard of care was reached by the health professional.
d. All of the above.
Which of the following describes:
In tort law, the health care professional cannot use fragility of the harmed patient (plaintiff) as a defence
a. The double effect
b. The doctrine of precedent
c. Bolam’s Principal
d. Vicarious Liability
e. The ‘but for’ test
f. The doctrine of emergency
g. The thin skull or eggshell rule
g. The thin skull or eggshell rule
Which of the following describes:
Where an entity is held responsible for the actions or omissions of another person, such as an employee or union member
a. The double effect
b. The doctrine of precedent
c. Bolam’s Principal
d. Vicarious Liability
e. The ‘but for’ test
f. The doctrine of emergency
g. The thin skull or eggshell rule
d. Vicarious Liability
Which of the following describes:
Protects people who provide assistance in emergency against negligence
a. Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act (2016)
b. The Wrongs Act (1958)
c. Guardianship and Administration Act (1986)
d. NMBA Code of Ethics
e. NMBA Code of Conduct
f. The Human Tissue Act (1982)
g. The Mental Health Act (2014)
h. The Voluntary Assisted Dying Act (2017)
i. Good Samaritan Legislation
j. The Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (2009)
k. The Freedom of Information Act (1982)
l. The Privacy Act (1988)
m. The Health Records Act (2001)
i. Good Samaritan Legislation
Which of the following describes:
The actions of the health professional must be a necessary condition for the injury/loss
a. The double effect
b. The doctrine of precedent
c. Bolam’s Principal
d. Vicarious Liability
e. The ‘but for’ test
f. The doctrine of emergency
g. The thin skull or eggshell rule
e. The ‘but for’ test
Which of the following describes:
To ensure high quality education, training and continuous professional development of health care professionals
a. Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act (2016)
b. The Wrongs Act (1958)
c. Guardianship and Administration Act (1986)
d. NMBA Code of Ethics
e. NMBA Code of Conduct
f. The Human Tissue Act (1982)
g. The Mental Health Act (2014)
h. The Voluntary Assisted Dying Act (2017)
i. Good Samaritan Legislation
j. The Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (2009)
k. The Freedom of Information Act (1982)
l. The Privacy Act (1988)
m. The Health Records Act (2001)
j. The Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (2009)
Which of the following describes:
Clarifies the procedure for a person who has suffered damages through the course of their treatment by health care professionals and enables them to make a claim
a. Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act (2016)
b. The Wrongs Act (1958)
c. Guardianship and Administration Act (1986)
d. NMBA Code of Ethics
e. NMBA Code of Conduct
f. The Human Tissue Act (1982)
g. The Mental Health Act (2014)
h. The Voluntary Assisted Dying Act (2017)
i. Good Samaritan Legislation
j. The Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (2009)
k. The Freedom of Information Act (1982)
l. The Privacy Act (1988)
m. The Health Records Act (2001)
b. The Wrongs Act (1958)
