Review V Flashcards

1
Q

spinal facilitation

A

nociceptive input

  • CNS has decreased firing threshold
  • these neurons fire more quickly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pathologic murmur

A
holosystolic or diastolic
grade 3 or higher
harsh
increased intensity with standing
max intensity ULSB

echo - definitive diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

feeding difficulty with infant

A

first sign of CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

liver enlargement/ascites

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

wide fixed split S2

A

atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

URSB

A

aortic valve clicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ULSB

A

pulmonary valve clicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

LLSB

A

ventricular septal defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

apex

A

aortic and mitral valve clicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

venous hum

A

grade 1 to 6 continuous murmur
accentuated in diastole

whining, roaring, or whirring quality

heard over low anterior neck lateral to SCM
louder on right

resolves or changes when patient is supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

still murmur

A

grade 1 to 3 early systolic murmur
low to medium pitch - vibratory/musical

best heart lower left sternal border

loudest with patient supine

decreases with patient supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ventricular septal defect

A

loud holosystolic murmur at LLSB for small defect

thrill at LLSB, split S2, grade 2-5, grade 1 or 2 mid-diastolic rumble - for medium or large defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

atrial septal defect

A

grade 2 or 3 systolic ejection murmur
-best heart ULSB
wide flixed split S2
absent thrill

may have grade 1 or 2 diatolic flow rumble at LLSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

patent ductus arteriosus

A

continuous grade 1 to 5 in ULSB

  • crescendo in systole and decrescendo into diastole
  • normal S1 - buried S2
  • thrill or hyperdynamic left ventricular impulse may be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tetralogy of fallot

A
central cyanosis, clubbing nail beds
grade 3 or 4 long systolc ejection murmur at ULSB
-may have holosytolic murmur at LLSB
-systolic thrill at ULSB
-increased S1 and single S2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

coarctation of aorta

A

systolic ejection murmur best heard over interscapular region
=normal S1 and S2
-decreased or delayed femoral pulse
-increased left ventricular impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

seven S’s

A

of innocent murmurs

  • sensitive - changes with childs position
  • short duration
  • single
  • small
  • soft
  • sweet - not harsh
  • systolic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most common innocent murmur

A

still murmur

  • characteristic to LLSB - musical or vibratory quality
  • vibrations of left outflow tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

chest radiography and ECG

A

rarely assist diagnosis of heart murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

phonocardiography

A

good for distinguishing between innocent and pathologic murmurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diagnosis of innocent murmur

A

1 absence of abnormal physical exam findings
2 negative ROS
3 history negative for features that increase risk of structural heart disease
4 auscultatory features of innocent murmurs

criteria for children older than 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

newborns

A

higher risk of having serious structural heart disease that presents as asymptomatic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cardiac viscerosomatics

A

Sympathetics - T1-5

Parasympathetics - OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pulmonary viscerosomatics

A

sympathetics T2-6

parasympathetics OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

urology consult

A

larger than 5mm stone or multiple stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tx for acute pyelonephritis

A

fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nocturnal enuresis

A

bedwetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

always going to bathroom

A

recurrent cystitis

29
Q

gold standard

A

spiral CT

30
Q

bladder symapthetics

A

T10-L2

31
Q

kidney sympathetics

A

T10-11

32
Q

ureter sympathetics

A

T10-L1

33
Q

green discharge

A

gonorrhea

34
Q

cheesy discharge

A

candida

35
Q

acute pyelonephritis

A

bacterial infection of renal pelvis and kidney

  • young adult women
  • FLANK PAIN universal

diagnosis - positive urinalysis

common - E. coli

36
Q

beta lactam

A

resistance in cystitis and acute pyelonephritis

37
Q

risk factors for acute pyelonephritis

A

sexual intercourse 3x per week

new sex partner

38
Q

uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis

A

without structural or functional GU tract

39
Q

CVA tenderness, flank pain, requency, urgency, fever, nausea, vomiting

A

acute pyelonephritis

may not have fever

40
Q

leukocyte esterase

A

positive in urinalysis for acute pyelonephritis

41
Q

antibiotics for acute pyelonephritis

A

fluoroquinolones

or ciprofloxacin

should improve 48-72 hours

42
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

kidney stones
-stone on radiograph - not uric acid though

cramping, abdominal and flank pain intermittent, hematuria, N/V, malaise, fever, chills

43
Q

referral to neurologist for kidney stone

A

more than one stone, larger than 5mm stone, hydronephrosis, pregnant

44
Q

Tx for nephrolithiasis

A

oral hydration and pain management

-10mm or less - antispasmodics - CCBs and alpha blockers - relax smooth m of ureters

45
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

calcium phosphate stone formation

46
Q

acidic urine

A

uric acid, cystine, calcium oxalate stones

47
Q

alkaline urine

A

calcium phosphate and struvite (Mg) stones

48
Q

pregnant women

A

likely calcium phosphate stones

second and third trimester - higher urine pH

49
Q

recurrent infections

A

struvite stones

50
Q

Oxalobacter formigens

A

ingestion can decrease urinary oxalate levels

51
Q

obesity

A

dehydration and proinflammatory

52
Q

fructose

A

incresed kidney stone risk

53
Q

alkalinize urine

A

fruit and veggies

citrate

54
Q

acidify urine

A

cranberry juice and betaine

55
Q

UTIs

A

msot common bacterial infection in women

frequency and dysuria

suprapuhic tenderness

E. coli

56
Q

suprapubic tenderness

A

acute uncomplicated cystitis

57
Q

phone diagnosis for UTI

A

works!

58
Q

nitrites and leukocyte esterase on urinalysis

A

-acute uncomplicated cystitis

59
Q

Tx for acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

nitrofurantoin

fosfomycin

60
Q

inhalation

A

kidneys move inferiorly along psoas

61
Q

sympathetics to kidney

A

decreased GFR

-decreased urine output

62
Q

sympathetics to ureter

A

decreased peristalsis

T10-L2

psoas spasm

63
Q

urination

A

relax external sphincter
decreased sympathetic tone

increased parasymapthetics to internal sphincter
-S2-4

viscerosomatic reflex - warmth, muscle spasm, tenderness, moisture

64
Q

HTN

A

SD at C2, T2, T6

65
Q

ANG II

A

constric afferent and efferent

prostaglandins vasodilated afferent - NSAIDs affect this
-hypoperfusion over time

66
Q

fatigue

A

with renal disease

67
Q

emotional stress

A

decreased urine production and output

vasoconstriction

68
Q

OMT and nephrolithiasis

A

decreased sympathetic tone - allow stone passage

69
Q

OMT and cystitis

A

improve motion of bladder and supporting structures