Review III Flashcards

1
Q

direct technique

A

toward restrictive barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

indirect technique

A

away from restrictive barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

articulatory technique

A

aka springing or LVHA

  • direct
  • patient relax/comfort

engage restrictive barrier
> pressure against barrier to carry body past it
> maintain 1-2 seconds
> retreat from barrier 1-2 seconds
> reengage restrictive barrier (new position)
>repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

absolute contraindications for articulatory technique

A
lack of consent
no SD
fracture/dislocation
neuro entrapment
vascular compromise
local infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

indication for articulatory technique

A

SD in joint/periarticular tissue that increase joint ROM and decrease hypertonic muscle restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

balanced ligamentous tension

A

uses reciprocal tension in ligament of joint

goal - rebalance ligaments and tighten loose ligament

effectiveness - ability to restore cranial rhythmic impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

crimping

A

configuration of fibers that make up ligament

  • allow it to work as a spring
  • SD leads to straight ligament - lost crimp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BLT treatment

A

disengage/decompression area until motion felt
> exaggeration of dysfunction - return to injury position
> balance ligaments in position of equal tension until release or CRI is palpated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BLT indications

A

relax contracted muscles, release tethered structures, restore symmetry, increase arterial circulation and venous/lymph drainage

to obtain decrease in pain and edema

any dysfunctional or strained ligamenet

direct, indirect, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BLT absolute contraindications

A

lack of consent

no SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

strain/counterstrain

A

to relax intrafusal muscle and reset gamma gain

  • reduce afferent activity
  • in association with myofascial tenderpoint

move muscle origin and insertion closer around TP
> hold for 90 seconds
> slow return to neutral position

gamma gain now at new lower resting state

end of treatment - may feel therapeutic pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tenderpoints

A

tender with no radiation

inappropriate proprioceptive reflex - correlate with SD

rapid myofascial tisue lengthening
-reciprocal shortening reflex of antagonist muscle

initial muscle strain leads to reactive counterstrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

strain/counterstrain indications

A

when tenderpoint identified

-muscle lengthening and relaxation desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

trigger points

A

tender with radiation and muscle twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

absolute contraindication for S/CS

A

absent of SD

lack of consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

facilitated position release

A

indirect technique

first allow neutrality in dysfunctional tissue
> activating force into tissue for 5-15 seconds
> causes immediate release of restriction
> release before returned to neutral position

treat superficial dysfunction first**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FPR diagnosis

A

three-plane diagnosis should be made before attempting FPR
-need to unload joint of all nociceptive and proprioceptive feedback

joint restriction - increase efferent gamma gain
-signals to shorten muscle even when relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FPR indications

A

hypertonic muscles and restricted ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

absolute contraindications for FPR

A
lack of consent
no SD
hip prosthetic
shoulder pathology
acute/chronic joint dislocation
recent trauma
acute fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HVLA

A

direct technique

engage restrictive barrier
> altered afferent output of mechanoreceptors at joint when forced through barrier

quick thrust applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

no HVLA if..

A

setup uncomfortable
setup produces neuro sx
barrier is rubbery, rather than firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HVLA indications

A

SD with firm, distinct barriers

goal - to restore motion and function

reduce muscle hypertonicity, stretch shortened muscles, increase fluid movement, reducing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

absolute contraindications HVLA

A

lack of consent
no SD
rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

lymphatic technique

A

restore homeostasis and improving lymph circulation while removing barriers to lymph flow

free restrictions centrally then peripherally
-treat major diaphragms first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sibsons fascia

A

thoracic inlet

-drainage point for thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lymphatic principles of treatment

A

1 - remove barriers to flow
2 - enhance mechanisms involved in resp/circ homeostasis
3 - augment lymph flow and other immune system elements
4 - mobilize lymph fluid from other regions of body to decrease congestion

27
Q

lymphatic indications

A

edema, tissue congestions, lymph stasis, infection and inflammation

28
Q

absolute contraindications for lymphatic

A

no consent
no SD
aneuresis if not on dialysis
necrotizing fasciitis

29
Q

muscle energy technique

A

direct treatment
-goal to obtain muscle relaxation and increase mobility

position patient against feather edge of barrier
> patient force in opposition 3-5 seconds
> pause few seconds - neuromuscular adaptation
> barrier re-engaged, repeat

30
Q

principles of MET

A

dysfunction due to increased gamma gain

increased efferent gamma motor neuron activity

31
Q

muscle spindle

A

control muscle length, motion, and position
-proprioception

2-12 intrafusal fibers

group Ia and II afferent fibers

32
Q

golgi tendon organs

A

type Ib afferent fibers

at tendonous attachments

fire during muscle contraction - info about stretch and tension

33
Q

primary annulospiral endings

A

length and rate of stretch info

34
Q

secondary flower spray endings

A

relative muscle length info - but no rate of change

35
Q

isometric

A

no length change

36
Q

isotonic

A

muscle length change

37
Q

concentric

A

muscle contracts

physician force < patient force

38
Q

eccentric

A

muscle lengthens

physician force > patient force

39
Q

isolytic

A

forced lengthening of shortened, fibrotic muscles

40
Q

isokinetic

A

constant velocity

41
Q

crossed extensor reflex

A

flexor group contracts

-contralateral flexor relaxes and contralateral extensor tightens

42
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

agonist contraction produces antagonist relaxation because of CNS patterning

43
Q

oculocephalogyric reflex

A

eye motion to stimulate contraction of cervical and truncal muscle groups

44
Q

respiratory assistance

A

muscles or resp to engage muscles directly or transmit motion to rest of body

45
Q

post-isometric relaxation

A

period after controlled muscle contraction where proprioception and nociceptive feedback is absent
-allows muscle to be passively stretched without stimulating myotatic reflex

46
Q

MET indications

A

SD is sufficient indication

47
Q

absolute contraindications for MET

A

lack of consent
no SD
young child cannot comprehend
coma/unresponsive

48
Q

MFR

A

continual palpatory feedback to release tissues

  • fascia can change length - plasticity/elasticity
  • indirect or direct
49
Q

MFR indications

A

contracted muscle, release tethered structures, restore symmetry, increase circulation and venous/lymph drainage

fascia, tendons, scars, internal organs, visceral suspensory ligaments

50
Q

absolute contraindications for MFR

A
absence of SD
lack of consent
acute fracture
open wound
dermatitis
acute thermal injury
51
Q

soft tissue technique

A

direct to relax hypertonic muscles and reduce muscle spasm

create tonic stimulation in hypotonic muscles by stimulating stretch reflex

52
Q

traction

A

pressing tissue along long axis - parallel

53
Q

kneading

A

pressing tissue along latidudinal axis - perpendicular

54
Q

inhibition

A

forces superficial to deep into dysfunctional tissue

55
Q

effleurage

A

superficial lymph treatment

-stroking tissues lightly from distal to proximal

56
Q

petrissage

A

deep pressure/squeezing to break down adhesions between skin and muscle

57
Q

tapotement

A

rapid striking of muscle belly with hypothenar eminence

58
Q

indication for soft tissue

A

hypertonic muscles
tension in fascial structures
abnormal somato-somato and somato-visceral reflexes

59
Q

stretch reflex

A

myotatic, knee jerk, or deep tendon reflex

60
Q

absolute contraindication for soft tissue

A

lack of consent

no SD

61
Q

still technique

A

place dysfunction tissue into position of ease
> adding a force vector through dysfunction tissue
> maintain force and move through barrier

place of ease - neuro feedback neutralized

tissues released from restriction without triggering reactive firing from NS

62
Q

indications for still technique

A

muscle hypertonicity and restricted ROM

63
Q

absolute contraindications for still

A
lack of consent
no SD
hip prosthetic
shoulder injury
acute/chronic dislocation
recent trauma
fracture less than 6 weeks old
recent wound
64
Q

FPR vs. Still

A

Still - originally places body into exaggerated position of ease (position of SD)
-requires joint be carried through restrictive barrier

FPR - sets up body in position of neutrality