REVIEW NOTES IN CLINICAL CHEMISTRY Flashcards

1
Q

: the act of obtaining a blood sample from a vein using a needle attached to a syringe or a stoppered evacuated tube; it is the most common way to collect blood specimens

A

VENIPUNCTURE

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2
Q

THE MAJOR VEINS FOR VENIPUNCTURE are in the antecubital fossa, the area of the arm in front of the elbow. The H pattern is displayed by approximately 70% of the population and includes the following veins:

A

Median
Cephalic
Basilic

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3
Q

Located near the center of the antecubital fossa

A

Median cubital vein

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4
Q

• Preferred vein because it is typically large, closer to the surface and the most stationary

A

Median cubital vein

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5
Q

Easiest and least painful to puncture

A

Median cubital vein

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6
Q

• Least likely to bruise

A

Median cubital vein

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7
Q

Second-choice vein

A

Cephalic vein

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8
Q

• Often harder to palpate than medial cubital vein

A

Cephalic vein

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9
Q

• Fairly well-anchored

A

Cephalic vein

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10
Q

• Often the only vein felt in obese patients

A

Cephalic vein

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11
Q

Last choice

A

Basilic vein

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12
Q

Not well anchored and rolls easily

A

Basilic vein

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13
Q

• Increased risk of puncturing a median cutaneous nerve branch or the brachial artery

A

Basilic vein

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14
Q

• Not recommended unless no other vein in either arm is more prominent

A

Basilic vein

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15
Q

OTHER VEINS
Although antecubital veins are used most frequently, veins on the [?] may also be used for venipuncture. Veins on the [?], however, should never be used for venipuncture. [?] are sometimes used but not without permission of the patient’s physician, due to a potential for significant medical complications.

A

back of the hand and wrist

underside of the wrist

Leg, ankle, and foot veins

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16
Q

• normally a clear, pale yellow fluid

A

Serum

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17
Q

• non-fasting serum can be cloudy due to lipids

A

Serum

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18
Q

• separated from clotted blood by centrifugation (approx. 10 minutes at an RCF of 1,000 to 2,000g)

A

Serum

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19
Q

• many chemistry tests are performed on serum

A

Serum

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20
Q

• normally a clear to slightly hazy, pale yellow fluid

A

Plasma

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21
Q

• separates from the cells when blood in an anticoagulant tube is centrifuged

A

Plasma

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22
Q

• contains fibrinogen (serum does not because it was used in clot formation)

A

Plasma

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23
Q

• Stat and other tests requiring a fast turnaround time (TAT) are often collected in tubes containing heparin anticoagulant because they can be centrifuged immediately to obtain plasma

A

Plasma

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24
Q

• contains both cells and plasma

A

Whole blood

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25
Q

• must be collected in an anticoagulant tube to keep it from clotting

A

Whole blood

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26
Q

• used for most hematology tests and many point-of-care tests (POCTs), especially in acute care and stat situations.

A

Whole blood

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27
Q

preferred method because blood is collected directly from the vein into a tube, minimizing the risk of specimen contamination and exposure to the blood.

A

Evacuated tube system (ETS)

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28
Q

• discouraged by CLSI due to safety and specimen quality issues

A

Needle and syringe

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29
Q

• sometimes used on small, fragile, or damaged veins

A

Needle and syringe

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30
Q

• can be used with the ETS or a syringe

A

Butterfly set

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31
Q

• often used to draw blood from:

A

Butterfly set

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32
Q

infants and children; hand veins; in other difficult-draw situations

A

Butterfly set

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33
Q

Fibrin degradation products

A

Light blue

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34
Q

Inhibits thrombin formation

A

Light green/black
Green
Tan (glass)
Royal blue (heparin)

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35
Q

Inhibits glycolysis

A

Gray

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36
Q

WBC preservative

A

Yellow

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37
Q

Clot activator

A

Yellow/gray and orange

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38
Q

Silica clot

A

Red/gray and gold

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39
Q

CAPILLARY PUNCTURE Length of lancet should be

A

less than 2.0 mm to avoid penetrating bone

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40
Q

CAPILLARY PUNCTURE Sites:

A

Palmar surface of 3rd and 4th fingers Lateral plantar heel surface (newborns)
Earlobes

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41
Q

Syringes are used instead of evacuated tubes because of the pressure in an arterial blood vessel.

A

ARTERIAL PUNCTURE

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42
Q

ARTERIAL PUNCTURE Preferred anticoagulant:

A

Heparin

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43
Q

Collect without a tourniquet

A

ARTERIAL PUNCTURE

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44
Q

ARTERIAL PUNCTURE Primary arterial sites (in order of preference):

A

radial, brachial and femoral arteries

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45
Q

ARTERIAL PUNCTURE Major complications of arterial puncture:

A

thrombosis, hemorrhage, and possible infection

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46
Q

done before the collecting arterial blood from radial artery

A

Modified Allen Test

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47
Q

to determine whether the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation to the hand after the radial
arter puncture

A

Modified Allen Test

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48
Q

Albumin, ALP (↑older), phosphorus, cholesterol

A

Age

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49
Q

(↑older)

A

ALP

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50
Q

: Albumin, ALP, creatine, calcium, uric acid, CK, AST, PO4, BUN, magnesium, bilirubin, cholesterol

A

↑ males

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51
Q

: Fe, cholesterol, gamma-globulins, a-lipoproteins

A

↑ females

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52
Q

Peaks 4-6 AM; lowest 8 PM-12 AM; 50% lower at 8 PM than at 8 AM

A

Cortisol

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53
Q

Lower at night

A

ACTH, Plasma renin activity, Aldosterone, Insulin

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54
Q

Lower at night; higher standing than supine

A

Plasma renin activity

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55
Q

Higher in afternoon and evening

A

Acid phosphatase, Growth hormone

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56
Q

Higher levels at 4 and 8 AM and at 8 and 10 PM

A

Prolactin

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57
Q

Peaks early to late morning; decreases up to 30% during the day

A

Iron

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58
Q

≥20% for ALT, bilirubin, Fe, TSH, triglycerides

A

Day-to-day variation

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59
Q

↑ Glucose, insulin, triglycerides, gastrin, ionized calcium

A

Recent Food Ingestion

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60
Q

↓ chloride, phosphorus, potassium, amylase, ALP

A

Recent Food Ingestion

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61
Q

: albumin, cholesterol, aldosterone, calcium

A

↑ when standing

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62
Q

: CK

A

↑ in ambulatory patients

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63
Q

: lactic acid, creatine, protein, CK, AST, LD, thyroxine

A

↑ with exercise

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64
Q

: cholesterol and triglycerides

A

↓ with exercise

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65
Q

↑ACTH, cortisol, catecholamines, prolactin

A

Stress

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66
Q

: ↑TP, ↓ albumin

A

Black

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67
Q

: ↑CK/LD

A

Black males

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68
Q

: IgG ↑40% and IgA ↑20%

A

Black male vs white male

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69
Q

: ↑cholesterol and triglycerides

A

White & >40 years old

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70
Q

FBS, GTT, Triglycerides, lipid panel, gastrin, insulin, aldosterone/ renin

A

Require fasting

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71
Q

Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not cooled = ↓ pH and pO2)

A

Require Ice (Immediate Cooling)

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72
Q

↑ potassium, PO4, Fe, magnesium, ALT, AST, LD, ALP, catecholamines, CK

A

Hemolysis

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73
Q

CK

A

(marked hemolysis)

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74
Q

: method of determining the concentration of substance in solution by measuring the amount of light absorbed by that solution after appropriate treatment.

A

SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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75
Q
  • photons travelling in waves
A

Electromagnetic radiation

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76
Q
  • distance between two peaks
A

Wavelength

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77
Q
  • distance between peak and trough
A

Amplitude

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78
Q

Visible light:

A

400-700nm

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79
Q

states that the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed or
inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light

A

BEER-LAMBERT LAW (BEER’S LAW)

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80
Q

Light Source
= most common source of light for work in the visible and near-infrared regions

A

a. Incandescent tungsten or tungsten-iodide lamp

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81
Q

= most commonly used for ultraviolet (UV) work

A

Deuterium - discharge lamp & Mercury - arc lamp

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82
Q

= most commonly used Monochromator

A

Diffraction gratings

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83
Q

= advantage over round cuvets in that there is less error from the lens effect, orientation in the spectrophotometer, and refraction.

A

Square

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84
Q

= used for applications in the visible range

A

Glass

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85
Q

= for applications requiring UV radiation.

A

Quartz

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86
Q

= least expensive

A

Barrier - layer cell or photo cell

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87
Q

= used in instruments designed to be extremely sensitive to very low light levels and light flashes of very short duration

A

Photomultiplier (PM) tube

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88
Q

PRINCIPLE: measures the quantity of light reflected by a liquid sample that has been dispensed onto a grainy or fibrous solid support

A

REFLECTOMETRY

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89
Q

COMPONENTS are very similar to those of a photometer

A

REFLECTOMETRY

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90
Q

APPLICATION:
urine dipstick analysis
dry slide chemical analysis

A

REFLECTOMETRY

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91
Q

PRINCIPLE: measurement of concentration is done by detecting the absorption of electromagnetic by atoms rather than molecules. When a ground-state atom absorbs light energy, an excited atom is produced. The excited atom ther returns to the ground state, emitting light of the same energy as it absorbed.

A

ATOMIC ABSORPTION SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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92
Q

COMPONENTS
Hollow-cathode lamp
Flame
Monochromator

A

ATOMIC ABSORPTION SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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93
Q
  • usual light source
A

• Hollow-cathode lamp

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94
Q
  • breaks chemical bonds and form free, unexcited atoms; serves as sample cells (instead of a cuvet)
A

Flame

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95
Q
  • used to isolate the desired wavelength; also protects photodetector from excessive light emanating from flame emissions.
A

Monochromator

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96
Q

APPLICATION: measurement of unexcited trace metals e.g. calcium and magnesium

A

ATOMIC ABSORPTION SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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97
Q

APPLICATION: measurement of unexcited trace metals e.g. calcium and magnesium

A

ATOMIC ABSORPTION SPECTROPHOTOMETRY

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98
Q

PRINCIPLE: measurement of light emitted by excited atoms

A

FLAME PHOTOMETRY

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99
Q

APPLICATION: Widely used before to determine the concentration of Na*, K+ or Lit

A

FLAME PHOTOMETRY

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100
Q

PRINCIPLE: measurement of the concentration of solutions that contain fluorescing molecules

A

FLUOROMETRY

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101
Q

COMPONENTS
Xenon lamp - most common light source

A

FLUOROMETRY

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102
Q

APPLICATION: is used to measure small particles, such as drugs.

A

FLUOROMETRY

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103
Q

PRINCIPLE: Chemical energy generated in a chemiluminiscent reaction produces excited intermediates that decay a ground state with the emission of photons; no excitation is required unlike in fluorometry

A

CHEMILUMINESCENCE

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104
Q

PRINCIPLE: measurements are made with a spectrophotometer to determine concentration of particulate matter in sample. The amount of light blocked by a suspension of particles depends not only on concentration but also on size.

A

TURBIDIMETRY

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105
Q

APPLICATIONS
1. Detection of bacterial growth and bacterial culture
2. Antibiotic sensitivity
3. Coagulation studies
4. Protein concentration in CSF and urine

A

TURBIDIMETRY

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106
Q

PRINCIPLE: light scattered by small particles is measured at an angle to the beam incident to the cuvet

A

NEPHELOMETRY

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107
Q

measure particles which are too large for spectrophotometry, such as antibody-antigen complexes formed in enzyme immunoassays.

A

NEPHELOMETRY

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108
Q

PRINCIPLE: involves measurement of the current or voltage generated by the activity of specific ions. techniques include potentiometry, coulometry, voltammetry, and amperometry.

A

ELECTROCHEMISTRY

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109
Q

Measurement of potential (voltage) between two electrodes in a solution to measure analyte concentration

A

Potentiometry

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110
Q

pH, pCO2, Nat, Ca?, K, NH4*

A

Potentiometry

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111
Q

measurement of the current flow produced by an oxidation-reduction reaction

A

Amperometry

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112
Q

pOz (Clark electrode), glucose, peroxidase

A

Amperometry

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113
Q

Electrochemical titration in which the titrant is electrochemically generated

A

Coulometry

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114
Q

Cl

A

Coulometry

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115
Q

Potential is applied to an electrochemical cell and the resulting current is measured

A

Voltammetry

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116
Q

Anodic stripping voltametry (for lead and iron)

A

Voltammetry

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117
Q

PRINCIPLE: separation of charged compounds based on their electrical charge

A

ELECTROPHORESIS

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118
Q

COMPONENTS
1. A driving force (electrical power)
2. Support more (electrical power)
a. Filter paper
b. Agarose
c. Cellulose acetate
d. Polyacrylamide
3. Buffer
4. Sample
5. Detecting system

A

ELECTROPHORESIS

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119
Q

: movement of buffer ions and solvent relative to the fixed support

A

ELECTROENDOSMOSIS

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120
Q
  • most common and reliable way for quantitation of separated protein fractions
A

DENSITOMETRY

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121
Q

PRINCIPLE: separation of complex mixtures on the basis of different physical attractions between the individual compounds and the stationary phase of the system

A

CHROMATOGRAPHY

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122
Q

COMPONENTS
1. Mobile phase (gas or liquid)
2. Stationary phase (solid or liquid)
3. Column
4. Eluate

A

CHROMATOGRAPHY

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123
Q

: carries the complex mixture

A
  1. Mobile phase (gas or liquid)
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124
Q

: substance through which the mobile phase flows

A
  1. Stationary phase (solid or liquid)
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125
Q

: holds the stationary phase

A
  1. Column
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126
Q

: separated components

A
  1. Eluate
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127
Q

CHROMATOGRAPHIC PROCEDURES

A
  1. Thin-Layer Chromatography
  2. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
  3. Gas Chromatography (GC)
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128
Q
  • uses pressure for faster separations
A
  1. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
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129
Q
  • separate mixtures of compounds that are volatile or can be made volatile
A
  1. Gas Chromatography (GC)
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130
Q

PRINCIPLE: Sample in a MS is first volatilized and then ionized to form charged molecular ions and fragments that are separated according to their mass-to-charge (m/Z) ratio

A

MASS SPECTROMETRY

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131
Q

Allows definitive identification when used on samples eluting from GC or HPLC

A

MASS SPECTROMETRY

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132
Q

Gold standard for drug testing when coupled with GC

A

MASS SPECTROMETRY

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133
Q

PRINCIPLE
Two-step procedure: (1) MALDI, then (2) Time-of-Flight (TOF) Mass

A

MALDI-TOF MS (Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption lonization Time-of-Flight) analysis

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134
Q

• A laser pulse irradiates the sample, causing desorption and ionization of both the matrix and the sample.

A

MALDI-TOF MS (Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption lonization Time-of-Flight) analysis

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135
Q

• lons from the sample are focused into the mass spectrometer.

A

MALDI-TOF MS (Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption lonization Time-of-Flight) analysis

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136
Q

The molecular weight of the proteins acquired by mass spectrometry is used to determine the identity of the sample and is helpful in determining posttranslational modifications that may have occurred.

A

MALDI-TOF MS (Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption lonization Time-of-Flight) analysis

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137
Q

APPLICATION: used for the analysis of biomolecules, such as peptides and proteins

A

MALDI-TOF MS (Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption lonization Time-of-Flight) analysis

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138
Q
  • process by which lab ensures quality results by closely monitoring preanalytical, analytical, & postanalytical stages of testing.
A

QUALITY ASSURANCE

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139
Q
  • everything that precedes test performance,
A

• Preanalytical

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140
Q

e.g., test ordering, patient preparation, patient ID, specimen collection, specimen transport, specimen processing.

A

• Preanalytical

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141
Q
  • everything related to assay,
A

• Analytical

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142
Q

e.g., test analysis, quality control (QC), reagents, calibration,
preventive maintenance.

A

• Analytical

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143
Q
  • everything that comes after test analysis, e.g., verification of calculations & reference ranges, review of results, notification of critical values, result reporting, test interpretation by physician, follow-up patient care.
A

• Postanalytical

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144
Q
  • part of analytical phase of quality assurance
A

QUALITY CONTROL (QC)

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145
Q

process of monitoring results from control samples to verify accuracy of patient results.

A

QUALITY CONTROL (QC)

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146
Q
  • most frequently used measure of variation
A

b. Standard deviation (SD)

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147
Q
  • an index of precision used to compare the dispersion of two or more groups of data with different units / concentrations
A

c. Coefficient of variation (CV)

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148
Q
  • used to determine if there is a significant difference between the MEANS of two groups of data
A

T-test

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149
Q
  • used to determine if there is a significant difference between the SD of two groups of data
A

F-test

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150
Q

describes many continuous laboratory variables and
deviation shares several unique characteristics

A

The Gaussian Distribution (Normal Distribution)

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151
Q

the mean, median, and mode are [?];
the distribution is [?] — meaning half the values fall to the left of the mean, and the other half fall to the right (the symmetrical shape is often referred to as a “bell curve.”)
The total area under the gaussian curve is [?].

A

identical

symmetric

1.0, or 100%

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152
Q

summarizes the above relationships between the area under a Gaussian distribution and the SD.

A

“68-95-99 Rule”

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153
Q

“68-95-99 Rule”
In other words, given any Gaussian distributed data
of the data fall between ‡1 SD from the mean
of the data fall between +2 SDs from the mean
fall between ‡3 SDs from the mean

A

68%

295%

99%

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154
Q
  • nearness or closeness of assayed values to the true value
A
  1. Accuracy
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155
Q
  • nearness or closeness of assayed values to each other
A
  1. Precision (Reproducibility)
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156
Q
  • ability of an analytical method to maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period of time
A
  1. Reliability
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157
Q
  • degree by which a method can easily be repeated
A
  1. Practicability
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158
Q
  • ability to measure the smallest concentration of the analyte of interest
A
  1. Analytical sensitivity
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159
Q
  • ability to measure only the analyte of interest
A
  1. Analytical specificity
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160
Q
  • also known as linearity; range of values over which lab can verify accuracy of test system
A
  1. Reportable range
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161
Q

Formerly called normal value.

A
  1. Reference interval
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162
Q

Can vary for different patient populations (age, gender, race).

A
  1. Reference interval
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163
Q

Established by testing minimum of 120 healthy subjects & determining range in which 95% fall.

A
  1. Reference interval
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164
Q

Verifying a reference interval (transference) can required as few as 20 study individuals

A
  1. Reference interval
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165
Q

Reporting a positive result in a patient who has the disease

A

True positive (TP)

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166
Q

Reporting a positive result in a patient who doesn’t have the disease

A

False positive (FP)

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167
Q

Reporting a negative result in a patient who doesn’t have the disease

A

True negative (TN)

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168
Q

Reporting a negative result in a patient who has the disease

A

False negative (FN)

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169
Q

% of population with the disease that test positive

A

Diagnostic sensitivity

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170
Q

ability of the analytical method to detect the proportion of individuals with the disease

A

Diagnostic sensitivity

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171
Q

% of population without the disease that test negative

A

Diagnostic specificity

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172
Q

ability of the analytical method to detect the proportion of individuals without the disease

A

Diagnostic specificity

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173
Q

Number individuals without the disease with a negative test × 100%

A

Diagnostic Specificity (%)

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174
Q

% of time that a positive result is correct

A

Positive predictive value (PPV)

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175
Q

% of time that a negative result is correct

A

Negative predictive value (NPV)

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176
Q

• Assayed on a regular schedule to verify that a laboratory procedure is performing correctly

A

QC SAMPLES

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177
Q

• Generally, two different concentrations are necessary for adequate statistical QC

A

QC SAMPLES

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178
Q

• Chemically & physically similar to unknown specimen & is tested in exactly the same manner

A

QC SAMPLES

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179
Q

• New instrument or new lot of reagents: analyze QC materials for 20 days

A

QC SAMPLES

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180
Q

CHARACTERISTICS OF IDEAL QC MATERIALS

A
  1. Must resemble human samples
  2. Inexpensive and stable for long periods
  3. No communicable disease
  4. No known matrix effects
  5. With known analyte concentrations (for assayed controls)
  6. Convenient packaging for easy dispensing and storage
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181
Q

Also called a Shewart plot

A

LEVEY-JENNINGS CONTROL CHART

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182
Q

• Most common presentation for evaluating QC results

A

LEVEY-JENNINGS CONTROL CHART

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183
Q

shows each QC result sequentially over time

A

LEVEY-JENNINGS CONTROL CHART

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184
Q
  • control values increasing or decreasing for six consecutive runs
A

Trend

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185
Q

Trend Main cause:

A

DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS

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186
Q
  • six consecutive control values on the same side of the mean
A

Shift

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187
Q

Shift Main cause:

A

IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF INSTRUMENT

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188
Q
  • highly deviating values
A

Outliers

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189
Q

control result outside established limits

A

Outliers

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190
Q

1 control >‡ 2s from mean.

A

1(2S)

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191
Q

1 control >‡ 2s from mean.

A

1(2S)

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192
Q

Warning flag of possible change in accuracy or precision.

A

1(2S)

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193
Q

Initiates testing of other rules (warning rule). If no violation of other rules, run is considered in control.

A

1(2S)

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194
Q

1 control >‡ 3s from mean

A

1(3S)

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195
Q

2 consecutive controls >2s from mean on same side

A

2(2S)

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196
Q

Random; Rejection rule

A
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197
Q

Systematic; Rejection rule

A
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198
Q

2 consecutive controls differ by >4s

A

R(4S)

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199
Q

4 consecutive controls > 1s from mean on same side

A

4(1S)

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200
Q

10 consecutive controls on same side of mean

A

10x

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201
Q

Present in all measurements; due to chance; no means of predicting it

A
  1. Random error
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202
Q

Error that doesn’t recur in regular pattern

A
  1. Random error
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203
Q

Associated with violations of the 12s, 13s and R4s Westgard rules

A
  1. Random error
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204
Q

• Error that influences ALL observations consistently in one direction

A
  1. Systematic error
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205
Q

Recurring error inherent in test procedure

A
  1. Systematic error
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206
Q

• Associated with violations of the 22s and 41s Westgard rules

A
  1. Systematic error
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207
Q

• Also known as external quality assessment

A

PROFICIENCY TESTING

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208
Q

• consists of evaluation of method performance by comparison of results versus those of other

A

PROFICIENCY TESTING

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209
Q

• laboratories for the same set of samples

A

PROFICIENCY TESTING

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210
Q

PROFICIENCY TESTING • Basic procedure:

A

PT providers circulate a set of samples among a group of
laboratories.
Each laboratory includes the PT samples along with patient samples in the usual assay process.
Results for the PT samples are reported to the PT provider for evaluation.

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211
Q

Error due to dirty glassware

A

RANDOM ERRORS

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212
Q

Dirty photometer

A

SYSTEMATIC ERRORS

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213
Q

Use of wrong pipet

A

RANDOM ERRORS

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214
Q

Faulty ISE

A

SYSTEMATIC ERRORS

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215
Q

Voltage fluctuation

A

RANDOM ERRORS

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216
Q

Evaporation or contamination of standards or reagents

A

SYSTEMATIC ERRORS

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217
Q

Sampling error

A

RANDOM ERRORS

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218
Q

Anticoagulant or drug interference

A

RANDOM ERRORS

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219
Q

• Comparison of patient data with previous results.

A

Delta checks

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220
Q

• Detects specimen mix-up & other errors.

A

Delta checks

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221
Q

• When limit is exceeded, must determine if due to medical change in patient or lab error.

A

Delta checks

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222
Q

Test results that indicate a potentially life-threatening situation.

A

Critical values

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223
Q

List typically includes glucose, Na+, K+, total CO2, Ca2+, Mg2+, phosphorus, total billrubin (neonates), blood gases

A

Critical values

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224
Q

• Patient care personnel must be notified immediately.

A

Critical values

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225
Q

Critical values• Example:
Serum glucose

A

<40 mg/dL
>500 mg/dL

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226
Q

Schedule of maintenance to keep equipment in peak operating condition; must be documented & must follow manufacturer’ s specifications & frequencies.

A

Preventive maintenance

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227
Q

CARBOHYDRATES
1. Contain C, H and 0; Empiric formula: (CH20)n
3. Can be reducing or non-reducing sugars ; Can be classified according to the number of sugar units

A

CARBOHYDRATES

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228
Q

CARBOHYDRATES Functions:
Major energy source (?)
Storage form of energy e.g. [?]
Components of cell membranes e.g. [?]
Structural component in plants, bacteria, insects (e.g. ?)

A

glucose

glycogen

glycoproteins

chitin, cellulose

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229
Q
  • one sugar unit e.g. glucose, fructose, galactose
  • 2 sugar units linked together by a glycosidic bond e.g. sucrose, lactose, maltose
  • 3 to 10 sugar units
  • more than 10 sugar units (e.g. starch, glycogen, cellulose)
A

a. Monosaccharides

b. Disaccharides

Oligosaccharides

d. Polysaccharides

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230
Q

Glucose + fructose

A

Sucrose-Sucrase

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231
Q

Glucose + galactose

A

Lactose-Lactase

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232
Q

Glucose + glucose

A

Maltose-Maltase

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233
Q

Metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy

A

Glycolysis

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234
Q

Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from non-carbohydrate sources

A

Gluconeogenesis

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235
Q

Breakdown of glycogen to glucose for use as energy

A

Glycogenolysis

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236
Q

Conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage

A

Glycogenesis

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237
Q

Conversion of carbohydrates to fatty acids

A

Lipogenesis

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238
Q

Decomposition of fat

A

Lipolysis

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239
Q

Carbohydrates in the diet constitute about 50% of the calories in the average diet:
- 60%
- 30% C.
- 5%
- 5%
(part of dietary fiber)

A

a. Starch and dextrins

b. Sucrose

C. Lactose

d. Other sugars

e. Cellulose

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240
Q

breakdown polymers to dextrins and disaccharides.

A

Salivary amylase (ptyalin) and pancreatic amylase (amylopsin)

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241
Q

are further hydrolyzed into monosaccharides by specific enzymes (disaccharidases)

A

Disaccharides

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242
Q

are absorbed by the gut via active transport (glucose and galactose) or facilitated diffusion (fructose).

A

Monosaccharides

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243
Q

They are then transported into the liver through the portal circulation.

A

Monosaccharides

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244
Q

is the only carbohydrate to be used directly for energy.

A

Glucose

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245
Q

After glucose enters the cell, it undergoes phosphorylation into glucose-6-phosphate through the action of

A

hexokinase or glucokinase.

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246
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate is then shunted into the following metabolic pathways:

A

a. Glycolysis (Embden-Meyerhof pathway)
b. Glycogenesis
c. Hexose-Monophosphate shunt

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247
Q

• Produced by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans (pancreas)

A

Insulin

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248
Q

→ insulin

A

• Preproinsulin → proinsulin

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249
Q

• Target: most cells of the body

A

Insulin

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250
Q

Increases utilization of glucose by the cells by increasing cellular uptake and hepatic glycolysis

A

Insulin

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251
Q

Increases glycogenesis and inhibits glycogenolysis; Inhibits gluconeogenesis

A

Insulin

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252
Q

Stimulates lipogenesis while inhibiting lipolysis

A

Insulin

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253
Q

Stimulates protein synthesis and stimulates uptake of amino acids into muscles

A

Insulin

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254
Q

• Produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans

A

GLUCAGON

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255
Q

• Target: liver

A

GLUCAGON

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256
Q

• Target: liver

A

GLUCAGON

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257
Q

Promotes liver glycogenolysis

A

GLUCAGON

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258
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis

A

GLUCAGON

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259
Q

Inhibits glycolysis

A

GLUCAGON

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260
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis

A

Cortisol (Glucocorticoids)

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261
Q

Decreases glucose uptake and utilization by extrahepatic tissues

A

Cortisol (Glucocorticoids)

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262
Q

Stimulates glycogenolysis

A

Catecholamines

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263
Q

Increases glucose absorption in the small intestines

A

Thyroid hormone

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264
Q

Inhibit glucagon and insulin secretion

A

Somatostatin

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265
Q

Increases liver gluconeogenesis

A

Growth hormone

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266
Q

Inhibits glucose transport

A

Growth hormone

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267
Q
  • heterogeneous group of multifactorial, polygenic syndromes characterized by an elevated fasting blood glucose caused by a relative or absolute deficiency in insulin
A

DIABETES MELLITUS

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268
Q
  • characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin caused by an autoimmune attack on the beta cells of the pancreas
A
  1. Type 1 DM
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269
Q
  • characterized by a combination of insulin resistance and dysfunctional beta cells
A
  1. Type 2 DM
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270
Q

Juvenile Onset DM; Insulin Dependent DM; Most common in children and young adults

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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271
Q

Adult Onset DM; Non-insulin Dependent DM; Most common with advancing age

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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272
Q

5-10%

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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273
Q

90-95%

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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274
Q

Genetic, autoimmune, environmental (e.g. viral infection)

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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275
Q

HLA DR3/4 ; Autoantibodies
-Anti-islet cell cytoplasmic antibody
-Insulin autoantibodies
-Anti-GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase)

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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276
Q

Genetic, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, race/ethnicity

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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277
Q

Destruction of pancreatic beta cells, usually autoimmune

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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278
Q

No autoimmunity; Insulin resistance and progressive insulin deficiency

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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279
Q

Very low or undetectable c-peptide

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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280
Q

Detectable c-peptide

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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281
Q

Low to absent plasma insulin

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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282
Q

High in early disease; low to absent in disease of long duration plasma insulin

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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283
Q

Prone to ketoacidosis and diabetic complications

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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284
Q

Not prone to ketoacidosis

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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285
Q

Insulin absolutely necessary; muliple

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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286
Q

Oral agents (insulin sometimes daily injections or insulin pump indicated)

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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287
Q

None known therapy

A

TYPE 1 DIABETES

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288
Q

Lifestyle, oral medicines

A

TYPE 2 DIABETES

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289
Q
  • associated with secondary conditions
    E.g. genetic defects of beta cell function; pancreatic disease; endocrine disease; drug or chemical induced; insulin receptor abnormalities; other genetic syndromes
A

Other specific types of DM

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290
Q

Glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy

A

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

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291
Q

• Due to metabolic and hormonal changes

A

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

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292
Q

• Large % of patients develop DM Within 5 to 10 years

A

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

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293
Q

• Infants born to mothers with diabetes are at increased risk for RDS, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia and other complications

A

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

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294
Q

• Screening: 2-hour OGTT using a 75 g glucose load

A

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

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295
Q

Random plasma glucose

A

≥200 mg/dL (211.1 mmol/L), +symptoms of DM

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296
Q

Fasting plasma glucose

A

≥126 mg/dL (27.0 mmol/L)

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297
Q

Two-h plasma glucose

A

≥200 mg/dL (≥11.1 mmol/L)

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298
Q

N.B. In absence of unequivocal hyperglycemia, these criteria should be confirmed by repeat testing on a different day. The third measure (OGTT) is not recommended for routine clinical use.

A
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299
Q

Normal Fasting plasma glucose

A

<100 mg/dL
<5.6 mmol/L

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300
Q

Normal 2-hour plasma glucose level (after 75 g load)

A

<140 mg/dL
<7.8 mmol/L

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301
Q

Pre-diabetes HbA1c

A

5.7-6.4 %

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302
Q

Impaired fasting glucose Fasting plasma glucose

A

100-125 mg/dL
5.6-6.9 mmol/L

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303
Q

Impaired glucose tolerance 2-hour plasma glucose level (after 75 g load)

A

140-199 mg/dL
7.8-11.0 mmol/L

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304
Q

Diabetes mellitus Fasting plasma glucose

A

≥126 mg/dL
≥7.0 mmol/L

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305
Q

Diabetes mellitus 2-hour plasma glucose level (after 75 g load)

A

≥200 mg/dL
≥11.1 mmol/L

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306
Q

Diabetes mellitus HbA1c

A

≥6.5%

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307
Q

Use: detection of GDM

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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308
Q

Before an OGTT is performed, individuals should ingest [?]
preceding the test.

A

At least 150g/day of carbohydrates for the 3 days (no restriction of diet)

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309
Q

No limitation in physical activity

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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310
Q

Test should be performed after an overnight 8- to 14-hour fast.

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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311
Q

The individual should not eat food, drink tea, coffee, or alcohol, or smoke cigarettes during the test, and should be seated.

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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312
Q

Venous glucose samples are preferably collected in gray-top tubes containing fluoride and an anticoagulant (Henry’s, 23rd ed)

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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313
Q

FBG is measured right before the administration of the glucose load. A FBG of greater than 140 mg/dL necessitates that the test be stopped immediately. Proceed with the glucose load if FBG is less than 140 mg/dL.

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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314
Q

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)
• Glucose load for adults
• Glucose load for children
• Pregnant women

A

75 g
1.75g/kg bw (max: 75 g)
75 g or 100 g

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315
Q

Patient should finish glucose load within 5 - 15 minutes.

A

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)

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316
Q

ORAL GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST (OGTT)
Patient should NOT vomit. If patient vomits, [?]

A

Discontinue the test

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317
Q

DIAGNOSIS OF GESTATIONAL DIABETES MELLITUS
Gestational diabetes mellitus is diagnosed if [?] plasma glucose levels are exceeded (American Diabetes Association, 2004)

A

≥2

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318
Q

• Rate of formation of Hbac is proportional to the average blood glucose concentration over the previous 3 months

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HbA1c)

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319
Q

• For every 1% increase in Hba1c, there is a corresponding 35mg/dL change in plasma glucose

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HbA1c)

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320
Q

• The ADA also recommends that it be tested at least twice a year to monitor long-term glycemic control.

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HbA1c)

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321
Q

• Spn: EDTA-WB → hemolysate

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HbA1c)

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322
Q

• False decrease: decreased RBC lifespan

A

GLYCOSYLATED HEMOGLOBIN (HbA1c)

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323
Q

• Monitoring glucose control over past 2-3 weeks

A

FRUCTOSAMINE (Glycated Albumin)

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324
Q

• Albumin has a life span of 20 days in circulation

A

FRUCTOSAMINE (Glycated Albumin)

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325
Q

• Affected by albumin levels; false decrease in patients with hypoalbuminemia

A

FRUCTOSAMINE (Glycated Albumin)

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326
Q

100 g OGTT plasma glucose/75 g OGTT plasma glucose
Fasting

A

≥95 mg/dL
≥5.3 mmol/L

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327
Q

100 g OGTT plasma glucose/75 g OGTT plasma glucose
1 hour

A

≥180 mg/dL
≥10.0 mmol/L

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328
Q

100 g OGTT plasma glucose/75 g OGTT plasma glucose
2 hour

A

≥ 155 mg/dL
≥8.6 mmol/L

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329
Q

100 g OGTT plasma glucose
3 hour

A

≥140 mg/dL
≥7.8 mmol/L

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330
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
The plasma glucose concentration at which glucagon and other glycemic factors are released is between [?]. At about [?], observable symptoms of hypoglycemia appear. Warning signs and symptoms are all related to the central nervous system

A

65 and 70 mg/dL

50 to 55 mg/dL

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331
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
Most causes are secondary to other illnesses and resolve themselves when the primary disorder is treated.
Examples:

A

Insulinoma
Various liver disorders
Gastrointestinal disorders and surgery

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332
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA
Possible specimens =

A

WB, serum, plasma, urine, CSF, serous fluid, synovial fluid

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333
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA Standard clinical specimen

A

Fasting venous plasma

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334
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA Fasting blood sugar should be obtained after

A

8 - 10 hours of fasting

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335
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA Whole blood glucose levels

A

10-15% lower vs plasma levels

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336
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of

A

7 mg/dl/hour

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337
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA At 4°C, glucose decreases by approximately

A

2 mg/dl/hour

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338
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA Evacuated tube

A

Gray top (NaF)

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339
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA CSF glucose levels

A

60-70% of plasma levels (decreased in bacterial meningitis)

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340
Q

HYPOGLYCEMIA As little as 10% contamination with 5% dextrose (D5W) will elevate glucose in a sample by

A

500 mg/dL or more

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341
Q

Principle: Glucose and other carbohydrates are capable of converting cupric ions in alkaline solution to cuprous ions.

A

Chemical Methods

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342
Q

GLUCOSE: Chemical Methods

A

a. Oxidation-reduction method
i. Alkaline Copper Reduction Method
Folin-Wu
Nelson-Somogyi
Neocuproine method
Benedict’s method
ii. Alkaline Ferric Reduction Method (Hagedorn-Jensen)
a. Condensation method (Dubowski)

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343
Q

GLUCOSE: Enzymatic Methods

A

a. Glucose oxidase method
i. Colorimetric method
ii. Polarographic method
b. Hexokinase method

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344
Q

is the most specific enzyme reacting with only B-D-glucose

A

Glucose oxidase

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345
Q
  • uses a side reaction that consumes H202
A

i. Colorimetric method

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346
Q
  • measure the rate of disappearance of oxygen using an oxygen electrode
A

ii. Polarographic method

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347
Q

• More accurate than glucose oxidase methods because the coupling reaction using G6PDH is highly specific; therefore it has less interference than the coupled glucose oxidase procedure

A

b. Hexokinase method

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348
Q

• NADPH has a strong absorbance at 340 nm

A

b. Hexokinase method

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349
Q

Generally accepted as the reference method

A

b. Hexokinase method

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350
Q

• Not affected by ascorbic acid or uric acid

A

b. Hexokinase method

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351
Q

Most common cause of lactose intolerance

A

Lactase deficiency

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352
Q

Lactose is not digested at a normal rate and accumulates in the gut, where it is metabolized by bacteria. Bloating, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea result

A

Lactase deficiency

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353
Q

result of the deficiency of a specific enzyme that causes an alternation of glycogen metabolism

A

Glycogen storage diseases

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354
Q

Glycogen storage diseases Most common congenital form:

A

Von Gierke Disease

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355
Q

i. Autosomal recessive disease

A

Von Gierke Disease

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356
Q

ii. Characterized by hepatomegaly, severe hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis, ketonemia, and elevated lactate and alanine

A

Von Gierke Disease

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357
Q

• Building blocks of lipids

A

FATTY ACIDS

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358
Q

• Hydrocarbon chains with a terminal COO- group

A

FATTY ACIDS

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359
Q

• 3 fatty acid molecules attached to one molecule of glycerol by ester bonds

A

TRIGLYCERIDES

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360
Q

• Serves as main storage form of energy, insulator, shock absorber and integral part of cell membrane

A

TRIGLYCERIDES

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361
Q

• Similar to triglycerides except that the third position on the glycerol backbone contains a phospholipid head group

A

PHOSPHOLIPIDS

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362
Q

• Contains polar and non-polar end

A

PHOSPHOLIPIDS

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363
Q

• Constituent of cell membranes

A

PHOSPHOLIPIDS

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364
Q

• Serves as part of cell membranes and as parent chain for cholesterol-based hormones, e.g. aldosterone, cortisol and the sex hormones

A

CHOLESTEROL

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365
Q

CHOLESTEROL• Exists in two forms
- approximately 70% of total cholesterol
- approximately 30% of total cholesterol

A

• Cholesterol esters

• Free cholesterol

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366
Q

Typically spherical in shape with sizes ranging from 10 to 1200 nm

A

LIPOPROTEIN

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367
Q

Composed of lipids and proteins, called apolipoproteins

A

LIPOPROTEIN

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368
Q

Size particle correlates with its lipid content

A

LIPOPROTEIN

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369
Q

originally separated through ultracentrifugation

A

LIPOPROTEIN

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370
Q

• located on the surface of lipoprotein particles maintain structural integrity of lipoproteins

A

Apolipoproteins

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371
Q

• serve as ligands for cell receptors

A

Apolipoproteins

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372
Q

Apolipoproteins• Important types:

A
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373
Q
  • largest
    -least dense
  • highest TG content
  • postprandial turbidity
  • fxn: transports exogenous / dietary triglycerides
A

CHYLOMICRONS

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374
Q
  • 2nd largest
    -2nd least dense
  • 2nd highest TG content
  • fasting hyperlipidemic turbidity
  • fxn: transports endogenous/hepatic triglycerides
A

VERY LOW DENSITY LIPOPROTEIN (VLDL)

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375
Q
  • small –> can cross BV walls
    –> deposition of lipid
  • highest cholesterol content
  • fxn: transports cholesterol to peripheral tissues
    →inc LDL –> in atherosclerosis
  • target for cholesterol lowering therapy
A

LOW DENSITY LIPOPROTEIN (LDL)

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376
Q
  • smallest but densest
  • highest protein content
  • fxns: reverse transport cholesterol (peripheral tissues –> liver)
  • inc HDL –> dec atherosclerosis
A

HIGH DENSITY LIPOPROTEIN (HDL)

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377
Q

• Chylomicrons accumulate as a floating “cream” layer and can be detected visually. The presence of chylomicrons in fasting plasma is considered to be abnormal.

A

Standing Plasma Test

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378
Q

• A plasma sample that remains turbid after standing overnight contains excessive amounts of VLDL; if a floating
“cream” layer also forms, chylomicrons are present as well. (Henry, 23rd ed)

A

Standing Plasma Test

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379
Q

Floating Beta-lipoprotein

A
  1. Beta-VLDL
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380
Q

Increased in familial dysbetalipoproteinema

A
  1. Beta-VLDL
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381
Q

• Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein

A
  1. Lp(a)
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382
Q

• LDL - like particle

A
  1. Lp(a)
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383
Q

Increased risk of premature coronary heart disease and stroke

A
  1. Lp(a)
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384
Q

Seen in patient with biliary cirrhosis or cholestasis and in patients with mutations in the enzyme lecithin: cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

A
  1. Lpx
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385
Q

happens in the intestines

A

Absorption Pathway

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386
Q

CM transports exogenous TG

A

Exogenous Pathway

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387
Q

VLDL and hDL transports endogenous TG

A

Endogenous Pathway

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388
Q

LDL transports Cholesterol

A

Reverse Cholesterol Transport Pathway

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389
Q

was used to characterize lipid disorders; used electrophoresis and a standing plasma test for CM to correlate clinical disease syndromes with laboratory phenotypes. Note that each phenotype is not a specific disease but rather a variety of disorders that affect the same lipoproteins and therefore express the same lipid pattern.

A

FREDRICKSON CLASSIFICATION OF LIPID DISORDERS

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390
Q

-Hyperchylomicronemia
-Familial LPL deficiency

A

Type 1

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391
Q

-Familial Hypercholesterolemia

A

Type 2a

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392
Q

-Familial Combined Hyperlipidemia

A

Type 2b

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393
Q

Familial Dysbetalipoproteinemia

A

Type 3

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394
Q

Familial Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Type 4

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395
Q

Low cardiac risk; eruptive xanthoma; recurrent pancreatitis

A

Type 1

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396
Q

High cardiac risk; xanthelasma; tendon xanthoma; corneal arcus; hypothyroidism and nephrotic syndrome

A

Type 2a

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397
Q

High cardiac risk

A

Type 2b

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398
Q

Eruptive and palmar xanthomas

A

Type 3

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399
Q

Low cardiac risk

A

Type 4

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400
Q

Low cardiac risk; eruptive xanthoma, may be associated
with pancreatitis

A

Type 5

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401
Q

Fasting = 12 hours before venipuncture

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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402
Q

• Can be measured non-fasting = TC and HDL-C

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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403
Q

• Prolonged tourniquet application = causes hemoconcentration

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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404
Q

Reclined patients = decreased values

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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405
Q

Preferred sample = Serum or plasma but plasma preferred in electrophoresis and ultracentrifugation

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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406
Q

Capillary blood samples = generally lower values

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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407
Q

Lipemic samples = seen when triglyceride levels exceed 4.6 mmol/L (400 mg/dL).

A

LIPIDS AND LIPOPROTEINS

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408
Q

Initial extraction with zeolite to remove sterols

A
  1. Abell-Kendall method
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409
Q

Redissolving of cholesterol

A
  1. Abell-Kendall method
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410
Q

Hydrolysis of cholesterol esters to cholesteriol

A
  1. Abell-Kendall method
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411
Q

Liebermann-Burchard reagent

A

glacial acetic acid
sulfuric acid
acetic anhydride

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412
Q

(+) formation of product which strongly absorbs at 410 nm

A
  1. Abell-Kendall method
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413
Q

Recently, the reference method has changed to a [?] that now specifically measures cholesterol and does not detect related sterols. (Bishop 7h ed.)

A

GC-MS method

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414
Q
  • definitive method
A
  1. Isotope Dilution Mass Spectrometry (IDMS)
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415
Q

Hydrolysis of glycerol is accomplished using alcoholic KOH

A
  1. Chemical methods (triglyceride)
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416
Q

Oxidation of glycerol by periodic acid, forming formaldehyde and formic acid

A
  1. Chemical methods (triglyceride)
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417
Q

Formaldehyde combines with a variety of reagents:

A
  1. Chemical methods (triglyceride)
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418
Q

Reagent: Chromotropic acid → blue colored compound

A

a. Van Handel & Zilversmit (Colorimetric method)

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419
Q

Reagent: acetylacetone (aka diacetyl acetone; reactant of choice)

A

Hantzsch (Fluorometric method)

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420
Q

Product has a strong absorption maximum at 412 nm and also has good fluorescence

A

Hantzsch (Fluorometric method)

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421
Q
  • new reference method for triglyceride measurements; involve the hydrolysis of fatty acids on triglycerides and the measurement of glycerol.
A

GC-MS method

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422
Q

: range in density observed among lipoprotein classes is a function of lipid and protein content and enables fractionation by density using ultracentrifugation

A
  1. Ultracentrifugation
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423
Q

: takes advantage of differences in size and charge

A
  1. Electrophoresis
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424
Q

: depends on particle size, charge and differences in the
apolipoprotein content; primarily used in research labs only

A
  1. Chemical precipitation
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425
Q

Uses polyanions (heparin sulfate, dextran sulfate and phosphotungstate) and divalent cations such as magnesium, calcium andmanganese e.g. HDL - dextran sulfate + magnesium

A
  1. Chemical precipitation
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426
Q

: uses antibodies specific to apolipoproteins to bind and separate lipoprotein classes

A
  1. Immunoassays
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427
Q

: takes advantage of size differences in molecular sieving methods or composition in affinity methods e.g. gel chromatography or affinity chromatography

A
  1. Chromatographic methods
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428
Q

• The term [Plasma TG]/5 is used when concentrations are expressed in mg/dL.

A

K. FRIEDEWALD CALCULATION

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429
Q

It has been reported that the factor [Plasma TG]/2.825 gives a more accurate estimate of VLDL-C (DeLong, 1986). This is equivalent to Plasma TG/6.5, when concentrations are expressed in mg/dL.

A

K. FRIEDEWALD CALCULATION

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430
Q

a. Involves large- and medium-sized arteries (e.g. abdominal aorta, coronary artery, popliteal artery, internal carotid artery)

A
  1. Atherosclerosis
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431
Q

b. LDL - increased risk ; HDL - decreased risk

A
  1. Atherosclerosis
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432
Q

c. Complications
Narrowing of blood vessels result in impaired blood flow and ischemia leading to:
(i) Peripheral vascular disease
(ii) Angina
(iii) Ischemic bowel disease

A
  1. Atherosclerosis
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433
Q

Plaque rupture → thrombosis → myocardial infarction and stroke
Plaque rupture → embolization atherosclerotic embolism
Weakening of blood vessel wall results in aneurysm

A
  1. Atherosclerosis
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434
Q

An extreme form of hypoalphalipoproteinemia (isolated decrease in circulating HDL)

A
  1. Tangier Disease
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435
Q

Associated with HDL cholesterol concentrations as low as 1-2 mg/dL (0.03-0.05 mmol/L) in homozygotes, accompanied by total cholesterol concentrations of 50 to 80 mg/dL (1.3-2.1 mmol/L).

A
  1. Tangier Disease
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436
Q

Associated with increased risk of premature coronary heart disease (CHD).

A
  1. Tangier Disease
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437
Q

Linear polymers of amino acids; Perform diverse functions

A

PROTEIN

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438
Q

Regulate metabolism

A

PROTEIN

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439
Q

• Facilitate contraction in the muscle

A

PROTEIN

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440
Q

Provide structural framework

A

PROTEIN

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441
Q

Shuttle molecules in the bloodstream

A

PROTEIN

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442
Q

• Component of the immune system

A

PROTEIN

443
Q

: determined by amino acid sequence

: folding of short segments of polypeptide into geometrically ordered units (e.g. alpha-helix, beta-sheet)

: overall 3-dimensional shape of the protein (globular vs fibrous)

: number and types of polypeptide units of oligomeric proteins and their spatial arrangement

A

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Quaternary

444
Q

Indicator of malnutrition; binds thyroid hormones and retinol-binding protein

A

Prealbumin (Transthyretin)

445
Q

Binds bilirubin, steroids, fatty acids; major contributor to oncotic pressure

A

Albumin

446
Q

Protease inhibitor

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

447
Q

Principal fetal protein

A

Alpha-1-fetoprotein

448
Q

May be related to immune response

A

Alpha-1- acid glycoprotein

449
Q

Binds hemoglobin

Transports copper; peroxidase activity

A

Haptoglobin

Ceruloplasmin

450
Q

Inhibits thrombin, trypsin and pepsin

A

Alpha-2-macroglobulin

451
Q

Transports iron

Binds heme

Immune response

Precursor of fibrin

Opsonin

A

Transferrin

Hemopexin

Complement

Fibrinogen

C-reactive protein

452
Q
  1. Most plasma proteins are synthesized in the [?]
    and secreted by the hepatocyte into the circulation.
    The immunoglobulins are exceptions because they are synthesized in plasma cells.
A

Liver (hepatocytes)

453
Q
  1. The nitrogen content of serum proteins is, on average,
A

16%

454
Q

: site of protein synthesis within the cell

A
  1. Ribosomes
455
Q

• Aka Transthyretin
• Migrates before albumin in the serum protein electrophoresis

A
  1. PREALBUMIN
456
Q

• Function: Transport protein for thyroid hormones; transports vitamin A by forming a complex with retinol-binding protein

A
  1. PREALBUMIN
457
Q

Decreased in hepatic damage, acute-phase inflammatory response, and tissue necrosis

A
  1. PREALBUMIN
458
Q
  • A low prealbumin level is a sensitive marker of poor nutritional status
A
  1. PREALBUMIN
459
Q

Increased in patients receiving steroids, in alcoholism, and in chronic renal failure

A
  1. PREALBUMIN
460
Q

• Protein present in the highest concentration in serum

A
  1. ALBUMIN
461
Q

Provide nearly 80% of colloid osmotic pressure (COP) of intravascular fluid

A
  1. ALBUMIN
462
Q

Buffers pH

A
  1. ALBUMIN
463
Q

Binds to various substances in blood (e.g. some hormones, drugs, electrolytes, unconjugated bilirubin)

A
  1. ALBUMIN
464
Q

Negative acute-phase reactant

A
  1. ALBUMIN
465
Q

Decreased: liver disease, malnutrition, malabsorption, kidney loss, hemodilution

A
  1. ALBUMIN
466
Q

Increased: dehydration

A
  1. ALBUMIN
467
Q

• Most important function: inhibition of the protease neutrophil elastase

A
  1. ALPHA-1-ANTITRYPSIN
468
Q

• Abnormal form of AAT can also accumulate in the liver and cause cirrhosis

A
  1. ALPHA-1-ANTITRYPSIN
469
Q

• Major component of a1-globulin band → deficiency of AAT seen as lack of an a1-globulin band on SPE

A
  1. ALPHA-1-ANTITRYPSIN
470
Q

One of the COPs (chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases)

A

Emphysema

471
Q

Most common cause: smoking

A

Emphysema

472
Q

• Pathophysiology: excessive inflammation or lack of AAT leads to destruction of alveolar air sacs → loss of elastic recoil and collapse of airways during exhalation → obstruction and air trapping

A

Emphysema

473
Q

• Dyspnea, cough with minimal sputum

A

Emphysema

474
Q

“Pink puffers”, “barrel-chest”, hypoxemia

A

Emphysema

475
Q

Synthesized by the developing embryo and fetus; thought to protect the fetus from immunologic attack by
the mother

A

ALPHA-1-FETOPROTEIN

476
Q

• No known function in normal adults

A

ALPHA-1-FETOPROTEIN

477
Q

: neural tube defects (e.g. spina bifida), presence of twins

: increased risk for Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

A

Elevated AFP

Low AFP

478
Q
  • Tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, some testicular carcinomas
A

AFP

479
Q

• Copper-containing (contains >90% of total serum copper)

A

CERULOPLASMIN

480
Q

• Used in the diagnosis of Wilson’s disease

A

CERULOPLASMIN

481
Q

• Autosomal recessive
• Decreased levels of ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson’s disease

482
Q

Wilson’s disease
• Excess storage of copper in various organs
Liver →
- Brain →
- Cornea →

A

hepatic cirrhosis

neurologic damage

Kayser-Fleischer rings

483
Q

• Large protein that inhibits proteases such as trypsin, thrombin, kallikrein, and plasmin

A

ALPHA-2-MACROGLOBULIN

484
Q

• Increased in nephrotic syndrome (large size aids in its retention)

A

ALPHA-2-MACROGLOBULIN

485
Q

• Glomerular disorder characterized by proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)

A

Nephrotic syndrome

486
Q

• Pathophysiology: Disruption of the electrical charges that produce the tightly fitting podocyte barrier resulting in massive loss of protein and lipids

A

Nephrotic syndrome

487
Q

Nephrotic syndrome
• Manifestations
- pitting edema
- increased risk of infection
- due to the loss of anti-thrombin III
- may result in fatty casts in the urine

A
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Hypogammaglobulinemia
  • Hypercoagulable state
  • Hyperlipidemia and hypercholesterolemia
488
Q

Function: bind free hemoglobin to prevent loss of hemoglobin and its constituent, iron, into the urine

A

HAPTOGLOBIN

489
Q

Used primarl to holp detect and evaluate hemolylic anemia

A

HAPTOGLOBIN

490
Q

Transports two molecules of ferric iron

A

TRANSFERRIN

491
Q

• Negative acute-phase reactant

A

TRANSFERRIN

492
Q

• Major component of the beta-globulin fraction

A

TRANSFERRIN

493
Q

• Tested to determine cause of anemia (e.g. increased levels in IDA)

A

TRANSFERRIN

494
Q

• Function: scavenge heme released or lost by the turnover of heme proteins such as hemoglobin → protect body from oxidative damage that free heme can cause

A

HEMOPEXIN

495
Q

• Low levels are diagnostic of hemolytic anemia

A

HEMOPEXIN

496
Q

• Precipitates with C substance, a polysaccharide of pneumococci

A

C-REACTIVE PROTEIN

497
Q

• Functions in opsonization

A

C-REACTIVE PROTEIN

498
Q

One of the first acute-phase proteins to rise in inflammatory disease

A

C-REACTIVE PROTEIN

499
Q

• High or increasing amount of CRP suggests an acute infection or inflammation

A

C-REACTIVE PROTEIN

500
Q

• Glycoprotein produced by fetal membranes responsible for the cellular adhesiveness of placenta and membranes to the decidua.

A

FIBRONECTIN

501
Q

• Fetal fibronectin is produced at the boundary between the amniotic sac and the decidua (the lining of the uterus) and functions to maintain the adherence of the placenta to the uterus.

A

FIBRONECTIN

502
Q

• Test for assessment of the risk for [PRE-TERM DELIVERY] in women between 24 to 35 weeks gestational age.

A

FIBRONECTIN

503
Q

• Proteolytic fragments of collagen I formed during bone resorption

A

CROSS-LINKED C-TELOPEPTIDES

504
Q

• CTX is a biochemical marker of bone resorption that can be detected in serum and urine.

A

CROSS-LINKED C-TELOPEPTIDES

505
Q

Govern excitation-contraction coupling in muscle
TROPONIN• Three subunits: Troponin T (cTnT), Troponin C (TnC), Troponin I (cTnl)

A

TROPONIN

506
Q

is used as an AMI indicator because of specificity and early rise in serum concentration following AMI

rises within 3-4 hours, peaks in 10-24 hours, returns to normal in 10-24 days.

rises within 3-6 hours, peaks in 14-20 hours, and returns to normal in 5-10 days.

A

cTnT or cTnI

cTnT

cTnl

507
Q

• Now known as the “gold standard” for diagnosis of MI

A

TROPONIN

508
Q

• Heme-containing protein that binds oxygen with cardiac and skeletal muscle

A

MYOGLOBIN

509
Q

• Levels are related to muscle mass and activity (reasonable sensitivity but poor specificity)

A

MYOGLOBIN

510
Q

Increased in skeletal injuries, muscular dystrophy, and AMI

A

MYOGLOBIN

511
Q

is released early in cases of AMI, rising in 1-3 hours and peaks in 5-12 hours, and returns to normal in 18-30 hours. However, it is not tissue specific. It is better used as a negative predictor in the first 2-4 hours following chest pain.

A

MYOGLOBIN

512
Q

are neurohormones that affect body fluid homeostasis (through natriuresis and diuresis) and blood pressure

A

BRAIN NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE (BNP) AND N-TERMINAL-BRAIN NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE (NT-BNP)

513
Q

BNP has become a popular marker for

A

CONGESTIVE EART FAILURE

514
Q

are found in largest concentration in the left ventricular myocardium but are also detectable in atrial tissue as well as in the myocardium of the right ventricle.

A

NT-proBNP and BP

515
Q

ELECTROPHORETIC PATTERNS OF SERUM PROTEINS

A
516
Q

share the property of showing elevations in concentrations in response to stressful or inflammatory states that occur with infection, injury, surgery, trauma, or other tissue necrosis.

A

acute phase reactant proteins

517
Q

They include AAT, orosomucoid, haptoglobin, ceruloplasmin, fibrinogen, serum amyloid A protein, and CRP. Others are Factor VIII, ferritin, lipoproteins, complement proteins, and immunoglobulins.

A

acute phase reactant proteins

518
Q

Opsonization, complement activation

A

CRP

519
Q

Removal of cholesterol

A

Serum amyloid A

520
Q

Protease inhibitor

A

Alpha1-antitrypsin

521
Q

Binds hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

522
Q

Clot formation

A

Fibrinogen

523
Q

Binds copper, oxidizes iron

A

Ceruloplasmin

524
Q

Opsonization, lysis

A

С3

525
Q

Complement activation

A

Mannose-binding protein

526
Q

• Total protein level less than the reference interval

A

Hypoproteinemia

527
Q

• occurs in any condition where a negative nitrogen balance exists (excessive loss, decreased intake, decreased synthesis, accelerated catabolism)

A

Hypoproteinemia

528
Q

• Increase in total plasma proteins

A

Hyperproteinemia

529
Q

• Not an actual disease state but is the result of dehydration

A

Hyperproteinemia

530
Q

When excess water is lost from the vascular system, the proteins, because of their size, remain within the blood vessels

A

Hyperproteinemia

531
Q

May also be cause by excessive production, primarily of gamma-globulins e.g. multiple myeloma

A

Hyperproteinemia

532
Q

Digestion of protein; measurement of nitrogen content

A

Kjeldahl

533
Q

Reference method; assume average nitrogen content of 16%

A

Kjeldahl

534
Q

Measurement of refractive index due to solutes in serum

A

Refractometry

535
Q

Rapid and simple; assume nonprotein solids are present in same concentration as in the calibrating serum

A

Refractometry

536
Q

Formation of violet-colored chelate between Cu?+ ions and peptide bonds

A

Biuret

537
Q

Routine method; requires at least two peptide bonds and an alkaline medium

A

Biuret

538
Q

Protein binds to dye and causes a spectral shift in the absorbance maximum of the dye

A

Dye binding

539
Q

Research use

A

Dye binding

540
Q

Globulins are precipitated in high salt concentrations; albumin in supernatant is quantitated by biuret reaction

A

Salt precipitation

541
Q

Labor intensive

A

Salt precipitation

542
Q

Albumin binds to dye; causes shift in absorption maximum

A

Methyl orange

HABA [2,4’-hydroxyazobenzene)-benzoic acid]

BCG (bromcresol green)

BCP (bromcresol purple)

543
Q

Nonspecific for albumin

A

Methyl orange

544
Q

Many interferences (salicylates, bilirubin)

A

HABA [2,4’-hydroxyazobenzene)-benzoic acid]

545
Q

Sensitive; overestimates low albumin levels; most commonly used dye

A

BCG (bromcresol green)

546
Q

Specific, sensitive, precise

A

BCP (bromcresol purple)

547
Q

Proteins separated based on electric charge

A

Electrophoresis

548
Q

Accurate; gives overview of relative changes in different protein fractions

A

Electrophoresis

549
Q

Performed when an abnormality in the total protein or albumin is found

A

Protein Electrophoresis

550
Q

Principle: separation of proteins based on their charge density

A

Protein Electrophoresis

551
Q

Regions are stained using: Coomassie Blue, Amido Black, Ponceau S

A

Protein Electrophoresis

552
Q

Electrophoretic patterns:

A

Protein Electrophoresis

553
Q

Probably the most significant finding from an electrophoretic pattern is

(Bishop, 6th ed)

A

monoclonal immunoglobulin disease

554
Q

Beta-gamma bridging:
Monoclonal spike:
↑a2, ↑B, ↓albumin:
↓a1-antitrypsin:
↑B:

A

Cirrhosis

Multiple myeloma

Nephrotic

Emphysema

Inflammation

555
Q

NPN present in the highest corientation in blood

A

UREA

556
Q

Major excretory product of protein metabolism

A

UREA

557
Q

• Following synthesis in the liver, urea is carried in the blood to the kidney, where it is readily filtered from the plasma by the glomerulus. Most of the urea in the glomerular filtrate is excreted in the urine.

A

UREA

558
Q

• The concentration of urea in the plasma is determined by:
i. renal function and perfusion
ii. the protein content of the diet
iii. rate of protein catabolism

A

UREA

559
Q

• evaluate renal function

A

UREA

560
Q

• assess hydration status aid in the diagnosis of renal disease

A

UREA

561
Q

• verify frequency of dialysis

A

UREA

562
Q

• Urea nitrogen concentration is converted to urea concentration by multiplying [?]

A
563
Q

• Enzymatic methods are used most frequently in clinical laboratories.

A

UREA

564
Q

UREA: Used on many automated instruments; best as kinetic measurement

A

GLDH coupled enzymatic

565
Q

UREA: Used in automated systems, multilayer film reagents, and dry reagent strips

A

Indicator dye

566
Q

UREA: Specific and rapid

A

Conductimetric

567
Q

UREA: Proposed reference method

A

Isotope dilution mass spectrometry

568
Q

An elevated concentration in the blood is called azotemia. Very high plasma concentration accompanied by renal failure is called uremia, or the uremic syndrome.

A

urea

569
Q

This condition is eventually fatal if not treated by dialysis or transplantation.

A

uremia, or the uremic syndrome

570
Q

Low protein intake
Severe vomiting and diarrhea
Liver disease
Pregnancy

A

DECREASED UREA CONCENTRATION

571
Q

Congestive heart failure
Shock, hemorrhage
Dehydration
Increased protein catabolism
High-protein diet

A

INCREASED UREA CONCENTRATION: Prerenal

572
Q

Acute and chronic renal failure
Renal disease, including glomerular nephritis, tubular necrosis

A

INCREASED UREA CONCENTRATION: Renal

573
Q

Urinary tract obstruction

A

INCREASED UREA CONCENTRATION: Postrenal

574
Q
  1. Product of the catabolism of purines (guanine and adenosine)
A

URIC ACID

575
Q
  1. Filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the distal tubules into the urine, but mostly reabsorbed in the proxima tubules and reused
A

URIC ACID

576
Q
  1. Relatively insoluble in plasma, and at high concentrations, can be deposited in the joints and tissue, causing painful inflammation; mostly present as monosodium urate in plasma, wherein it is insoluble at around pH 7
A

URIC ACID

577
Q

• Assess inherited disorders of purine metabolism

A

URIC ACID

578
Q

Confirm diagnosis and monitor the treatment of gout

A

URIC ACID

579
Q

Assist in the diagnosis of renal calculi

A

URIC ACID

580
Q

• Prevent uric acid nephropathy during chemotherapeutic treatment

A

URIC ACID

581
Q

• Detect kidney dysfunction

A

URIC ACID

582
Q

Liver disease

A

DECREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

583
Q

Defective tubular reabsorption (Fanconi syndrome)

A

DECREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

584
Q

Chemotherapy with azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine

A

DECREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

585
Q

Overtreatment with allopurinol

A

DECREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

586
Q

Enzyme deficiencies
Lesch - Nyhan Syndrome (hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency)
Phosphoribosy|pyrophosphate synthetase deficiency
Glycogen storage disease type I (glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency)
Fructose intolerance (fructose-1-phosphate aldolase deficiency)

A

INCREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

587
Q

Gout
Treatment of myeloproliferative disease with cytotoxic drugs
Hemolytic and proliferative processes
Chronic renal disease
Toxemia of pregnancy
Lactic acidosis
Drugs and poisons
Purine-rich diet
Increased tissue catabolism or starvation

A

INCREASED URIC ACID CONCENTRATION

588
Q

is formed from creatine (synthesized primarily in the liver from arginine, glycine and methionine) and creatine phosphate in muscle

A

Creatinine

589
Q

Excreted in plasma at a constant rate related to muscle mass

A

CREATININE

590
Q

Daily excretion is fairly stable thus it is commonly used to assess renal filtration function

A

CREATININE

591
Q

Determine sufficiency of kidney function and severity of disease

A

CREATININE

592
Q

Monitor the progression of kidney disease

A

CREATININE

593
Q

Measure of completeness of 24 hour collections

A

CREATININE

594
Q

Abnormal renal function

A

INCREASED CREATININE CONCENTRATION

595
Q

Muscle disease:
Muscular dystrophy
Poliomyelitis
Hyperthyroidism
Trauma

A

INCREASED CREATININE CONCENTRATION

596
Q

The normal BUN/CREATININE RATIO is [?]
In prerenal disease, it rises to well [?]
In true renal disease, both BUN and creatinine rise together, maintaining BUN/Creatinine ratio at [?]
(Bishop, 6th ed.)

A

10:1 to 20:1.

10:1 to 20:1.

10-20:1.

597
Q

Formed through the deamination of amino acids during protein metabolism

A

AMMONIA

598
Q

Removed from the circulation and converted to urea in the liver

A

AMMONIA

599
Q

Free ammonia is toxic; however ammonia is present in the plasma in low concentrations

A

AMMONIA

600
Q

• Provide useful information on clinical conditions such as hepatic failure, Reye’s syndrome and inherited deficiencies of the urea cycle enzymes

A

AMMONIA

601
Q

Measurement of urine ammonia can be used to confirm the ability of the kidneys to produce ammonia

A

AMMONIA

602
Q

Severe liver disease
Inherited deficiencies of enzymes of the urea cycle

A

INCREASED AMMONIA CONCENTRATION

603
Q
  • protein catalysts; increase velocity of a chemical reaction without being consumed during the reaction they catalyze. This is achieved by decreasing the energy of activation (Ea) of a chemical reaction.
A

Enzymes

604
Q
  • protein catalysts; increase velocity of a chemical reaction without being consumed during the reaction they catalyze. This is achieved by decreasing the energy of activation (Ea) of a chemical reaction.
A

Enzymes

605
Q

Majority are proteins so they can be denatured by certain agents (acids, strong bases, detergents, etc.)

A

Enzymes

606
Q

Majority are proteins so they can be denatured by certain agents (acids, strong bases, detergents, etc.)

Active site - site where substrate interacts with enzymes
Allosteric site- site other than the active site
Isoenzyme - multiple forms of an enzyme with different genetic origin
Isoform - results when an enzyme is subject to post-translational modifications
Cofactors - nonprotein molecule that must bind to particular enzymes for enzyme reactions to occur
a. Activators - inorganic cofactors
b. Coenzymes - organic cofactor (e.g. vitamins)
Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + prosthetic group (a coenzyme tightly bound to its enzyme)
Proenzyme / zymogen - inactive form
IZYME CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE
The International Union of Biochemistry (IUB) Enzyme Commission categorized all enzymes into six (6) classes based on the catalytic activity of an enzyme:

A

Enzymes

607
Q

are highly specific for their substrates and products. Many recognize only a single compound as a substrate.

A

Enzymes

608
Q
  • site where substrate interacts with enzymes
  • site other than the active site
A

Active site

Allosteric site

609
Q
  • multiple forms of an enzyme with different genetic origin
A

Isoenzyme

610
Q
  • results when an enzyme is subject to post-translational modifications
A

Isoform

611
Q
  • nonprotein molecule that must bind to particular enzymes for enzyme reactions to occur
A

Cofactors

612
Q
  • inorganic cofactors
  • organic cofactor (e.g. vitamins)
A

a. Activators

b. Coenzymes

613
Q

= apoenzyme + prosthetic group (a coenzyme tightly bound to its enzyme)

A

Holoenzyme

614
Q
  • inactive form
A

Proenzyme / zymogen

615
Q

categorized all enzymes into six (6)
classes based on the catalytic activity of an enzyme

A

The International Union of Biochemistry (IUB) Enzyme Commission

616
Q
  • catalyze an oxidation-reduction reaction between two substrates
A
  1. Oxidoreductases
617
Q
  • catalyze the transfer of a group other than hydrogen from one substrate to another
A
  1. Transferases
618
Q
  • catalyze hydrolysis of various bonds
A
  1. Hydrolases
619
Q
  • catalyze removal of groups from substrates without hydrolysis; the product contains double bonds
A
  1. Lyases
620
Q
  • catalyze the interconversion of geometric, optical or positional isomers
A
  1. Isomerases
621
Q
  • catalyze the joining of two substrate molecules, coupled with the breaking of the pyrophosphate bond in ATP or a similar compound
A

Ligases

622
Q
  • rate of reaction is almost directly proportional to substrate concentration at low level
A

FIRST-ORDER KINETICS

623
Q
  • rate of reaction is almost directly proportional to substrate concentration at low level
A

FIRST-ORDER KINETICS

624
Q

• substrate is high enough to saturate all available enzymes
reaction rate is unaffected by increase in substrate concentration

A

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

625
Q

• dependent on enzyme concentration only

A

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

626
Q

• when maximum velocity is reached, the rate of increase in velocity is “zero”

A

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

627
Q

pH
a. most enzymes react at pH
b. controlled through

A

7.0 - 8.0

buffer solutions

628
Q

Temperature
a. Increased temperatures increase
b. For each 10°C, rate of reaction is
c. Temperatures which are too high can

A

rate of reaction

doubled

denature proteins

629
Q
  • required for enzymatic activity but are not consumed in the process (unlike substrates)
A

Cofactors

630
Q
  • the presence of inhibitors can affect the reaction velocity
A

Inhibitors

631
Q
  • compete for the substrate at the active site of the enzyme and form an enzyme - inhibitor complex; competitive inhibition can be reversed by increasing substrate [S]
A

a. Competitive inhibitors

632
Q
  • bind to the enzyme or enzyme-substrate at a site distinct from the active site, decreasing the activity of the enzyme. Inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing substrate.
A

b. Non-competitive inhibitors

633
Q
  • inhibitor binds to the enzyme-substrate complex, preventing the formation of a product. Increasing substrate concentration further increases inhibition.
A

Uncompetitive inhibitors

634
Q

: reaction is stopped then measurement is done
: multiple measurements are done at different intervals

A

Fixed time

Continuous monitoring or kinetic

635
Q

1 International Unit: amount of enzyme that will catalyze the reaction of [?]
1 Katal: amount of enzyme that will catalyze the reaction of [?]
1 IU = [?]

A

1 umol of substrate in 1 minute

1 mole of substrate in 1 second

17nkat

636
Q

HIGH SPECIFICITY
- RBC & Prostate
- Liver
- Pancreas & Salivary glands
- Pancreas

MODERATE SPECIFICITY
- Liver, Heart, Skeletal muscle
- Heart, Skeletal muscle, brain
- Liver, Bone, Kidney, Placenta

LOW SPECIFICITY
- all tissues

A

ACP
ALT
AMS
LIPASE

AST
CK
ALP
LDH

637
Q

HEART

A

CK-MB, AST, LD1>LD2

638
Q

BONE

A

ALP

639
Q

LIVER

Hepatocellular disorders:
Biliary tract obstruction:

A

AST, ALT, LD5

ALP, GGT

640
Q

PANCREAS

A

Amylase Lipase

641
Q

SKELETAL MUSCLE

A

CK-MM, AST, LD, Aldolase

642
Q

BRAIN

A

СК-BB

643
Q

PROSTATE

A

ACP

644
Q

Widely distributed in skeletal muscle, brain and cardiac muscle

A

CREATINE KINASE

645
Q

May be detected in nerve tissue, testicular tissue, amniotic fluid and in certain malignant tissues

A

CREATINE KINASE

646
Q

exists as a dimer (subunits: M or B)

A

CREATINE KINASE

647
Q

• Major form in sera of healthy people and in striated muscle

A

СК-ММ

648
Q

• Increased in hypothyroidism, IM injections, mild to strenuous activity

A

СК-ММ

649
Q

• Cardiac tissue contains significant amounts

A

СК-МВ

650
Q

• Value in detection of AMI

A

СК-МВ

651
Q

Rise within 4-8 hours, peak at 12-24 hours, return to normal within 48 to 72 hours

A

СК-МВ

652
Q

Highest concentration in CNS

A

СК-ВВ

653
Q

• Increased with extensive damage to the brain and carcinoma of various organs

A

СК-ВВ

654
Q

Frequently elevated in disorders of cardiac and skeletal muscles

A

CREATINE KINASE

655
Q

Sensitive indicator of AMI and Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy

A

CREATINE KINASE

656
Q

Separation of total CK into its various isoenzyme fractions is considered a more specific indicator of various disorders than total levels:

A

CREATINE KINASE

657
Q

• Optimum pH: 9.0
• Coupled with pyruvate kinase and lactate dehydrogenase (NADH → NAD+)
• Absorbance at 340 nm is determined

A

CK: Forward Reaction (Tanzer-Gilvarg)

658
Q

• More commonly performed method in the laboratory
• Reverse reaction is two to six times faster and has less interferences
• Optimum pH: 6.8

A

CK: Reverse Reaction (Oliver-Rosalki)

659
Q

Sources of Error
Anticoagulants inhibit enzyme activity
Avoid hemolysis
Serum should be stored in the dark
Muscular activity and muscle mass have effects on levels

A

CREATINE KINASE

660
Q

Widely distributed in the tissues of the body

A

LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE

661
Q

High concentrations in the heart and liver

A

LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE

662
Q

Five major isoenzyme fractions ; Each isoenzyme is composed of four subunits. The subunits are of two different structures: (heart) and M (muscle) polypeptide

A

LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE

663
Q

LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE Serum concentration:
LD flipped pattern:

A

LD-2 > LD-1 > LD-3 > LD-4 > LD-5

664
Q

Heart, RBCs

A

LD-1

LD-2

665
Q

Myocardial infarction
Hemolytic anemia

A

LD-1

666
Q

Megaloblastic anemia
Acute renal infarct
Hemolyzed specimen

A

LD-2

667
Q

Lung, lymphocytes, spleen and pancreas

A

LD-3

668
Q

Pulmonary embolism
Extensive pulmonary pneumonia
Lymphocytosis
Acute pancreatitis
Carcinoma

A

LD-3

669
Q

Liver
Hepatic injury or inflammation

A

LD-4

670
Q

Skeletal muscles
Skeletal muscle injury

A

LD-5

671
Q

Because of its widespread activity in numerous body tissue, [?] is elevated in a variety of disorders.

A

LDH

672
Q

Highest levels are seen in pernicious anemia and hemolytic disorders

A

LDH

673
Q

In AMI: rises 12-24 hours after onset, peaks 48-72 hours, remains elevated for 10 days An elevated total value is a nonspecific finding. Assays therefore assume more clinical significance when separated into isoenzyme fractions.

A

LDH

674
Q

Optimum pH: 8.3 to 8.9

A

LDH: Forward reaction (Wacker et al)

675
Q

Optimum pH: 7.1 to 7.4
Rate of reaction is three times faster → smaller sample volumes and shorter reaction times
More susceptible to substrate exhaustion and loss of linearity

A

LDH: Reverse reaction (Wrobleuski & La Due)

676
Q

Sources of Error
Avoid hemolysis
Do not freeze specimen
Serum is the sample of choice since some anticoagulants (e.g. oxalate) inhibit the enzyme

A

LDH

677
Q

increases within 4-8 hours of MI, peaks at 12-24 hours, elevated 3-4 days
increases within 12-24 hours, peaks at 72 hours, elevated 10 days

A

CK

LD

678
Q

[?] are heat stable; [?] labile
[?]↑with liver and skeletal muscle disease.
[?] with hemolysis

A

LD1 and LD2; LD5

LD4 and LD5

LD1 > LD2

679
Q

Widely distributed in human tissue

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT)

680
Q

Highest concentration: cardiac tissue, liver & skeletal muscle

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT)

681
Q

Smaller amounts: kidney, pancreas & RBCs

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT)

682
Q

Bilocular enzyme: cytoplasmic & mitochondrial isoenzyme

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (SGOT)

683
Q

Distributed in many tissues

A

Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT)

684
Q

Comparatively high concentrations in the liver (more liver-specific enzyme of the aminotransferases)

A

Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT)

685
Q

catalyze the interconversion of amino acids & alpha-ketoacids by transfer of amino groups

A

AMINOTRANSFERASES

686
Q

acts as the coenzyme for both AST and ALT

A

Pyridoxal phosphate

687
Q

AMI: rises within 6-8 hours, peaks 24 hours, returns to normal in 5 days

A

AST

688
Q

measurements are mainly confined to evaluation of hepatic disorders

A

• ALT

689
Q

• With most forms of acute hepatocellular injury (e.g. hepatitis) [?] will be higher than ALT initially, because of the higher activity of [?] in hepatocytes. Within 24 - 48 hours, particularly if ongoing damage occurs, ALT will become higher than AST, based on its longer half-life

A

AST

AST

690
Q

In alcoholic hepatitis, the elevations in ALT are comparatively lower than AST, resulting in an AST/ALT ratio (De Ritis ratio) [?]. (Bishop)

A

greater than 2

691
Q

Oxaloacetate from AST activity reacts with Malate dehydrogenase as the indicator enzyme
Monitors the change in absorbance at 340 nm
continuously as NADH is oxidized to NAD
Optimal pH: 7.3 - 7.8

A

Karmen Method (for AST)

692
Q

Pyruvate from ALT activity reacts with lactate dehydrogenase as the indicator enzyme

A

Walker et al Method (for ALT)

693
Q

Sources of Error
[?] can be dramatically increased in hemolyzed specimens while [?] is relatively unaffected.

A

AST

ALT

694
Q

Involved in the cleavage of phosphate-containing compounds in alkaline pH

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

695
Q

facilitates the transfer of metabolites across cell membranes associated with lipid transport and the calcification process in osseous tissues

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

696
Q

Located in a wide variety of tissues
None in erythrocytes

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

697
Q

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE: Separation is done through the following methods
[?]- reduces activity of intestinal and placental isoenzymes
[?]- Reduces activity of bone and liver enzyme
Heat fractionation
Electrophoretic fractionation

A

Inhibition with phenylalanine

Inhibition with levamisole

698
Q

Often used in evaluation of hepatobiliary (obstructive conditions) and bone disorders (osteoblast involvement)

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

699
Q

Highest elevation of ALP is seen in [?]
Physiologic elevation of ALP can be seen in [?]

A
700
Q

Sources of Error
Use serum or heparinized plasma only
Increased activity in specimens left standing on the clot for a long time due to a gradual development of a more basic pH in the system as CO2 is lost

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE

701
Q

ACID PHOSPHATASE: Tissue distribution and isoenzymes
- band 1; inhibited by tartrate
- bands 2 & 4
- band 3; major form in plasma
- band 5; osteoclasts

A

Prostatic ACP

Granulocytic ACP

Platelets, RBs & Monocytes

Bone isoenzyme

702
Q

Separation is done through the following methods
Electrophoretic separation
Chemical inhibition - pACP inhibited by L-tartrate
Immunoassays

A

ACID PHOSPHATASE

703
Q

Prostatic cancer: ACP is inferior to PSA

A

↑ Prostatic ACP

704
Q

Prostatic hyperplasia and prostatic infarction

A

↑ Prostatic ACP

705
Q

Urinary tract obstruction, carcinoid tumors of rectum and prostatic massage

A

↑ Prostatic ACP

706
Q

assays have proven useful in forensic clinical chemistry, particularly in the investigation of rape. Vaginal washings are examined for seminal fluid (presumptive evidence of rape in such cases).

A

ACID PHOSPHATASE

707
Q

Sources of Error
Store at appropriate pH and temperature
Sample of choice: plasma (to minimize contamination by platelets)
Preferred anticoagulant citrate buffered to a pH of 6.2 to 6.6
Avoid hemolysis

A

ACID PHOSPHATASE

708
Q

Catalyze the hydrolytic cleavage of peptides to form amino acids or smaller peptides

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

709
Q

Plasma membrane-bound on cells

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

710
Q

Widely distributed in a number of tissues

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

711
Q

Highest amounts of GGT in the kidneys / Significant amounts in pancreas and liver

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

712
Q

Useful marker for liver damage

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

713
Q

Increased in obstructive liver disease, inflammation of the liver, obstruction of the biliary tract

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

714
Q

Increase over time in patients on long-term medications

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

715
Q

Most useful application for GGT measurements:

A
716
Q

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE
Reference method:
Product of the reaction: 5-amino-2-nitrobenzoate (410 nm)

A

Szasz Assay

717
Q

Sources of Error
Preferred specimen: serum
Some anticoagulants inhibit activity

A

GAMMA-GLUTAMYLTRANSFERASE

718
Q

Primarily responsible for starch digestion
Splits complex CHO made up of a-D glucose units

A

AMYLASE

719
Q

Two major sources:

A

AMYLASE

720
Q

Major clinical reason for increased serum amylase:

A
721
Q

cancers
kidney impairment (e.g. renal failure)
conditions affecting salivary glands

A

↑ AMYLASE

722
Q

: number of milligrams of glucose released in 30 minutes at 37 deg C under specific assay conditions

A

Somogyi unit

723
Q

: inhibits salivary amylase

A

Wheat germ lectin

724
Q

Electrophoresis: salivary amylase is more

A

anodal

725
Q

Measures the rate of disappearance of the starch substrate

A

Amyloclastic (lodometric)

726
Q

Measures the amount of reducing sugars produced by the hydrolysis of starch

A

Saccharogenic (Nelson Somogyi mod. By Henry & Chiamon)

727
Q

Measures the increasing color from production of product coupled with a chromogenic dye

A

Chromogenic (Klein, Foreman, Searcy)

728
Q

This measures the change in turbidity of starch solution over a short reaction period. This is used for stat analysis to rule out acute upper abdominal pain

A

Turbidimetry and Nephelometry (Peralta
& Reinhart)

729
Q

AMYLASE Classic reference method:

A
730
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyzes glycerol esters of long chain fatty acids (e.g. triglycerides)

A

LIPASE

731
Q

Full activity in the presence of bile salts and colipase

A

LIPASE

732
Q

Highest concentrations found in pancreatic tissue and secretions
Assessment of acute pancreatitis

A

LIPASE

733
Q

• Rise: 2 - 12 hours
• Peak value within 48 - 72 hours
• Remains elevated for 10 - 14 days

A

LIPASE

734
Q

LPS: Cherry-Crandall method
Substrate:

A
735
Q

Liberated fatty acids were measured after a 24-h incubation

A

LPS: Cherry-Crandall method

736
Q

Modifications - used triolein as substrate

A

LPS: Cherry-Crandall method

737
Q

Simpler and more rapid

A

LPS: Turbidimetric method

738
Q

Based on coupled reactions with enzymes such as peroxidase or glycerol kinase

A

LPS: Colorimetric method

739
Q

Sources of Error
Bacterial contamination - false elevation
Avoid hemolysis - hemoglobin inhibits lipase thus causing falsely lower values

A

LPS

740
Q

Sources include the adrenal cortex, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, lactating mammary gland and RBCs

A

GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE

741
Q

Little activity found in normal serum

A

GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE

742
Q

Specimen
RBC hemolysate: to detect enzyme deficiencies
Serum: to detect enzyme evaluations

A

GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE

743
Q

Inherited sex-linked trait
Drug-induced hemolytic anemia
Increased levels in MI and megaloblastic anemias (but not routinely tested in these conditions)

A

G6PD deficiency

744
Q

Reaction catalyzed: hydrolysis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid, a reaction necessary to allow a cholinergic neuron to return to its resting state after activation

A

CHOLINESTERASE

745
Q

Uses only acetylcholine as a substrate (high substrate specificity)

A

“TRUE” CHOLINESTERASE

746
Q

Hydrolyzes a variety of choline esters

A

“PSEUDO” CHOLINESTERASE

747
Q

Also known as acetylcholinesterase

A

“TRUE” CHOLINESTERASE

748
Q

Referred to as “cholinesterase”

A

“PSEUDO” CHOLINESTERASE

749
Q

Primary location are synapses of nerve cells.
Also seen in RBCs, lung, brain, spleen

A

“TRUE” CHOLINESTERASE

750
Q

Found in serum and in the white matter of the central and peripheral nervous system Also in the heart, liver and pancrease

A

“PSEUDO” CHOLINESTERASE

751
Q

Important part of the process for the transmission of nerve impulses

A

“TRUE” CHOLINESTERASE

752
Q

Protective function in the body; hydrolyzes choline esters (other than acetylcholine) which can inhibit acetylcholinesterase

A

“PSEUDO” CHOLINESTERASE

753
Q

CHOLINESTERASE
Pathological values are
Important roles in the diagnosis and management of

A
754
Q

Richest source in prostate. Also in bone, liver, spleen, kidneys, RBCs and platelets.

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

755
Q

↑in prostatic carcinoma, bone disease

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

756
Q

Catalyze hydrolysis of phosphomonoesters = alcohol + phosphate ion

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

757
Q

Reacts optimally at pH 5.0

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

758
Q

Differentiate prostatic portion using tartrate as inhibitor (inhibited by tartrate).

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

759
Q

Also used in rape investigation.

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

760
Q

Activity associated with osteoclasts.

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

761
Q

Separate serum from RBCs ASAP

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

762
Q

Freeze or acidify to <pH 6.5

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

763
Q

Avoid hemolysis.

A

Acid phosphatase (ACP)

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

AST

764
Q

Most human tissues. Highest concentrations in intestines, liver, bone, spleen, placenta and kidney.

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

765
Q

↑in hepatobiliary disease and bone disorders; highest ↑with Paget’s disease

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

766
Q

Reacts optimally at pH 9.0 to 10.0

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

767
Q

Requires Mg2+

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

768
Q

Associated with osteoblast activity

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

769
Q

Diet may induce elevations in ALP activity of blood group B and O individuals who are secretors.

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

770
Q

Primarily in kidney, brain, prostate, pancreas and liver.

A

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

771
Q

↑ with biliary tract obstruction, chronic alcoholism

A

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

772
Q

Glutathione serves as gamma-glutamyl donor in most biologic systems.

A

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

773
Q

Lower values in females.

A

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

774
Q

Hemolysis does not interefere.

A

Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

775
Q

Many tissues; Considered the liver-specific enzyme of the transferases

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

776
Q

↑ with liver disease

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

777
Q

Formerly SGPT. Pyridoxal phosphate as coenzyme.

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

778
Q

Relatively unaffected by hemolysis.

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

779
Q

Many. Highest in liver, heart, skeletal muscle.

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

780
Q

↑ with liver disease, myocardial infarction (MI, muscular dystrophy

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

781
Q

Formerly SGOT. Pyridoxal phosphate as coenzyme.

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

782
Q

Marked elevation with viral hepatitis.

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

783
Q

Don’t use ammonium heparin

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

784
Q

All. Highest in liver, heart, skeletal muscle, RBCs.

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

785
Q

↑ with MI, liver disease, pernicious anemia

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

786
Q

Catalyzes lactic acid › pyruvic acid

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

787
Q

Serum should be separated in clot immediately to prevent ↑in LD1 and LD2.

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

788
Q

Unstable; Store at 25 °C

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

789
Q

Highest levels with pernicious anemia.

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

790
Q

Enzyme that stays elevated longest with MI.

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

791
Q

Some anticoagulants interfere.

A

Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

792
Q

Cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, brain.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

793
Q

↑ with MI and muscular dystrophy

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

794
Q

Catalyzes phosphocreatinine + ADP → creatine +ATP.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

795
Q

Most sensitive enzyme for skeletal muscle disease.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

796
Q

Highest levels with muscular dystrophy.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

797
Q

First enzyme to increase with MI.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

798
Q

Inhibited by all anticoagulants except heparin.

A

Creatine kinase (CK)

799
Q

Salivary glands, pancreas

A

Amylase (AMS)

800
Q

↑ with acute pancreatitis

A

Amylase (AMS)

801
Q

Breaks down starch to simple sugars.

A

Amylase (AMS)

802
Q

Saccharogenic method measures sugar produced. lodometric or amyloclastic measures starch remaining. Chromogenic method measures dye released from the breakdown of polysaccharide. Kinetic method measures change of NAD to NADH at 340 nm.

A

Amylase (AMS)

803
Q

Ca2+ and Cl required.

A

Amylase (AMS)

804
Q

Don’t use EDTA, citrate or oxalate.

A

Amylase (AMS)

805
Q

Urine levels stay elevated longer than serum.

A

Amylase (AMS)

806
Q

Pancreas;↑ with acute pancreatitis

A

Lipase (LPS)

807
Q

Breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.

A

Lipase (LPS)

808
Q

Olive oil substrate.

A

Lipase (LPS)

809
Q

Levels usually parallel amylase, but may peak a little later and stay elevated longer.

A

Lipase (LPS)

810
Q

RBCs;↓ with hereditary predisposition to hemolytic crises after ingestion of oxidant drugs such as primaquine, infection or diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

811
Q

Involved in first step of glucose metabolism.

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

812
Q

Measure in hemolysate of whole blood.

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

813
Q

Liver, brain

A

Pseudocholinesterase (PChE)

814
Q

↑ after exposure to organophosphorus compounds found in insecticides and nerve gases, with hypersensitivity to succinylcholine and liver disease

A

Pseudocholinesterase (PChE)

815
Q

1.2 to 1.5 kg
Extremely vascular - blood supply comes from the hepatic artery and portal vein
1500 mL blood/min
Functional unit: LOBULE

A

LIVER

816
Q

-Six-sided with one portal triad (comprised of a hepatic artery, a portal vein and a bile duct) on each side
-Two major cell types:
• Kupffer cells
• Hepatocytes (80%)

A

LOBULE

817
Q

major waste product of heme catabolism
Approximately 200-300 mg produced per day

A

BILIRUBIN

818
Q

Synthesis:
Proteins - albumin, cholinesterase, coagulation proteins, cholesterol, bile salts, glycogen
Cholesterol
Bile salts
Glycogen

A

BILIRUBIN

819
Q

Metabolism:
Glucose to acetyl-CoA, gluconeogenesis, amino acid conversions, fatty acids

A

BILIRUBIN

820
Q

Detoxification:
Bilirubin, drugs, ammonia

A

BILIRUBIN

821
Q

Excretion:
Bile acids

A

BILIRUBIN

822
Q

Jaundice becomes noticeable to the naked eye once bilirubin levels reach

A

> 3.0 mg/dL.

823
Q

: increased amounts of bilirubin are being presented to the liver

A

a. Prehepatic Jaundice

824
Q

: primary problem is within the liver

A

b. Hepatic Jaundice

825
Q

: lower production of UDPGT due to a genetic lesion and overall lower enzymatic activity; an additional defect related to a transport deficit in the sinusoidal membrane of the hepatocyte may be present

A

Gilbert Disease

826
Q

: more serious disorder; multiple mutations in the gene coding for UDPGT results in the production of mildly dysfunctional to completely nonfunctional UDPGT.

A

Crigler- Najjar Syndrome

827
Q

: more serious form; homozygously nonfunctioning proteins

A

• Crigler- Najjar Syndrome Type I

828
Q

: severe deficiency

A

• Crigler- Najjar Syndrome Туре Il

829
Q

Infants who are affected with Crigler-Najjar syndrome, especially the more severe form, develop severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which typically leads to kernicterus, the deposition of bilirubin in the brain. Motor dysfunction and retardation can result. The danger of kernicterus is a certainty at levels exceeding

A

20 mg/dL.

830
Q

: removal of conjugated bilirubin from the liver cell & the excretion into the bile are defective

A

Dubin-Johnson

831
Q

• Caused by deficiency of the canalicular transporter protein (MDR2/cMOAT)

A

Dubin-Johnson

832
Q

• Appearance of dark-stained granules on a liver biopsy

A

Dubin-Johnson

833
Q

: hypothesized to be due to a reduction in the concentration or activity of intracellular binding proteins; Liver biopsy does NOT show dark pigmented granules

A

iv. Rotor syndrome

834
Q

v. Physiologic jaundice:

A
835
Q

: biliary obstructive disease; stool loses color (clay-colored)

A

c. Posthepatic jaundice

836
Q

: biliary obstructive disease; stool loses color (clay-colored)

A

c. Posthepatic jaundice

837
Q

• Clinical condition in which tissue scar replaces normal, healthy liver tissue

A

Cirrhosis

838
Q

• Most common causes include chronic alcoholism and chronic hepatitis C infection

A

Cirrhosis

839
Q

are more common than primary liver cancers

A

a. Metastatic liver cancers

840
Q

is the most common malignant tumor of the liver

A

b. Hepatocellular carcinoma

841
Q

Reye Syndrome
• Almost exclusively seen in
• Often preceded by a
• Strong association with intake of

A
842
Q

• Acute illness characterized by non-inflammatory encephalopathy and fatty degeneration of the liver

A

Reye Syndrome

843
Q

• Mild hyperbilirubinemia; threefold changes in ammonia and aminotransferases (AST and ALT)

A

Reye Syndrome

844
Q

Drug and Alcohol-related Disorders

Drugs cause injury most commonly via immune-mediated injury to the [?]
[?]: most important drug which can cause liver damage; can lead to alcoholic cirrhosis
[?] can cause fatal hepatic necrosis

A

hepatocytes

Acetaminophen

845
Q

• Bilirubin + diazotized sulfanilic acid → azobilirubin (pink-purple)

A

Classic Diazo Reaction

846
Q

Reaction Initially done before on urine samples

A

Classic Diazo

847
Q

• Can be done on serum samples, but only in the presence of accelerators (solubilizer)

A

Classic Diazo Reaction

848
Q

Classic Diazo Reaction
• Evelyn-Malloy reaction:
• Jendrassik-Grof :

A
849
Q

Total Bilirubin =

A

unconjugated bilirubin + conjugated bilirubin + delta bilirubin

850
Q

Attached to one or two glucuronic acid molecules

A

CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

851
Q

Reacts DIRECTLY with the color reagent

A

CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

852
Q

Noncovalently attached to albumin

A

UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

853
Q

Does not react with the color reagent until the bilirubin is first dissociated from albumin using an accelerator (INDIRECT)

A

UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

854
Q

Non-polar; water insoluble

A

UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

855
Q

AKA hemobilirubin / slow-reacting bilirubin

A

UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

856
Q

Polar; water soluble

A

CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

857
Q

AKA cholebilirubin / one-minute / prompt bilirubin

A

CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN

858
Q

• Third fraction of bilirubin

A

Delta bilirubin

859
Q

• Conjugated bilirubin that is covalently bound to albumin.

A

Delta bilirubin

860
Q

Seen only when there is significant hepatic obstruction.

A

Delta bilirubin

861
Q

• When present, will react in most laboratory methods as conjugated bilirubin.

A

Delta bilirubin

862
Q

Bilirubin is very sensitive to and is destroyed by light; therefore, specimens should be protected from
light. If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by

A

30% to 50% per hour.

863
Q

WATER BALANCE
• Average water content of the human body ranges from [?]
• Located within the [?] compartments.
• Concentrations of ions within cells are maintained both by [?]

A

40% to 75% of total body weight.

intracellular (2/3) and extracellular (1/3)

active and passive transport.

864
Q

Physical property based on the concentration of solutes (colligative property)

A

OSMOLALITY

865
Q

The sensation of thirst and arginine vasopressin hormone (AVP formerly ADH; posterior pituitary gland) secretion are stimulated by the hypothalamus in response to an increased osmolality of blood

A

OSMOLALITY

866
Q

Normal plasma osmolality =

A

275 - 295 mOsm/kg of plasma H20

867
Q

Indirectly indicates the presence of osmotically active substances other than Na+, urea or glucose, such as:
Ethanol
Lactate
Methanol
Betanydroxybutyrate
Ethylene glycol

A

OSMOLAL GAP

868
Q

Volume and osmotic regulation

A

Sodium, potassium, chloride

869
Q

Myocardial rhythm and contractility

A

Potassium, magnesium, calcium

870
Q

Cofactors in enzyme activation

A

Magnesium, calcium, zinc

871
Q

Regulation of ATPase ion pumps

A

Magnesium

872
Q

Acid-base balance

A

Bicarbonate, potassium, chloride

873
Q

Blood coagulation

A

Calcium, magnesium

874
Q

Neuromuscular excitability

A

Potassium, calcium, magnesium

875
Q

Production and use of ATP from glucose

A

Magnesium, phosphate

876
Q

Greatly depends on intake and excretion of water and on renal regulation of Na*; AVP, aldosterone, angiotensin Il and ANP

A

Sodium

877
Q

Kidneys are important in regulation; aldosterone stimulates secretion into urine

A

Potassium

878
Q

Aldosterone secretion conserves Cl; changes usually parallel Na*

A

Chloride

879
Q

Most reabsorbed in kidneys as CO2

A

Bicarbonate

880
Q

Regulation controlled largely by kidneys; regulation can be related to Ca?+ and Na*; PTH increases renal reabsorption and intestinal absorption; aldosterone and thyroxine increase renal excretion

A

Magnesium

881
Q

↑: PTH, vitamin D
↓: calcitonin

A

Calcium

882
Q

Kidneys play major role in regulation
↓: PTH
↑: Vitamin D and Growth hormone

A

Phosphate

883
Q

Not specifically regulated; liver is the major organ for removing lactate

A

Lactate

884
Q
  1. Difference between unmeasured anions and unmeasured cations
A

ANION GAP

885
Q
  1. Useful in indicating an increase in one or more of the unmeasured anions in the serum and also as a form of QC for the analyzer used to measure these electrolytes
A

ANION GAP

886
Q

Hypoalbuminemia

A

LOW ANION GAP

887
Q

Severe hypercalcemia

A

LOW ANION GAP

888
Q

uremia/ renal failure
ketoacidosis
methanol, ethanol, ethylene glycol, salicylate poisoning
lactic acidosis
hypernatremia
instrument error

A

ELEVATED ANION GAP

889
Q

is amperometric (Clarke electrode).

A

• p02 measurement

890
Q

are potentiometric, using the Severinghaus and glass membrane electrodes respectively.

A

pCO2 and pH measurements

891
Q

• Several acid-base parameters can be calculated from measured pH and pCO2 values:
1. calculation is based on the Henderson Hasselbach equation.
2. can be calculated using the solubility coefficient of CO2 in plasma at 37°C
3. is the bicarbonate plus the dissolved CO2 (carbonic acid) plus the associated CO2 with proteins (carbamates).

A

HCO3

Carbonic acid concentration

Total CO2 content

892
Q

Mixture of a weak acid and its salt with the capability of combining with protons and releasing protons in response to external shifts in pH

A

BUFFERS

893
Q

Purpose: maintain a defined pH

A

BUFFERS

894
Q

BUFFER SYSTEMS IN THE BODY

A

A. Plasma bicarbonate buffer
B. RBC hemoglobin/oxyhemoglobin buffer
C. Organic and inorganic phosphate buffer
D. Plasma proteins
Carbon dioxide = driving force in the bicarbonate carbonic acid system

895
Q

TRH, CRF, GnRH, others

A

Hypothalamus

896
Q

TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, prolactin, GH

A

Anterior Pituitary

897
Q

Vasopressin, oxytocin

A

Posterior Pituitary

898
Q

Epinephrine, norepinephrine

A

Adrenal Medulla

899
Q

Cortisol, 11-deoxycortisol, aldosterone

A

Adrenal Cortex

900
Q

T3, T4, calcitonin

A

Thyroid

901
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

Parathyroid

902
Q

Insulin, glucagon

A

Pancreas

903
Q

Estrogens

A

Ovaries

904
Q

Testosterone, other androgens

A

Testes

905
Q

Released directly from the tissue into the bloodstream and carried to the specific site of action.

A

HORMONES

906
Q

Acts at a specific site or sites (target cells) to induce certain characteristic biochemical changes.

A

HORMONES

907
Q

Adrenal glands, gonads, and placenta

A

STEROID HORMONES

908
Q

Anterior pituitary, placenta, and parathyroid glands

A

PROTEIN HORMONES

909
Q

Thyroid and adrenal glands

A

AMINE HORMONES

910
Q

Cholesterol

A

STEROID HORMONES

911
Q

Protein

A

PROTEIN HORMONES

912
Q

Amino acids

A

AMINE HORMONES

913
Q

Synthesized as needed, not stored

A

STEROID HORMONES

914
Q

Synthesized, then stored in cell as secretory granules until needed

A

PROTEIN HORMONES

915
Q

Synthesized, then stored in the cell as secretory granules until needed

A

AMINE HORMONES

916
Q

Lipid
Water

A

STEROID HORMONES

PROTEIN HORMONES ; AMINE HORMONES

917
Q

Lipid
Water

A

STEROID HORMONES

PROTEIN HORMONES ; AMINE HORMONES

918
Q

Protein
Do not need protein
Require a carrier protein and others do not

A

STEROID HORMONES

PROTEIN HORMONES

AMINE HORMONES

919
Q

Cortisol Aldosterone Testosterone Estrogen, and Progesterone

A

STEROID HORMONES

920
Q

FSH*
LH*
TSH*
hCG*
Glucagon
Parathyroid hormone
Growth hormone
Prolactin

A

PROTEIN HORMONES

921
Q

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Thyroxine
Triiodothyronine

A

AMINE HORMONES

922
Q
  • Composed of two polypeptide chains containing carbohydrate. Alpha chains are the same in all. Beta chains determine specificity
A

*Glycoproteins

923
Q

Gonad (tropic)

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

924
Q

Maturation of follicles, ovulation, production of estrogen progesterone, testosterone

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

925
Q

• Regulated by GnRH from hypothalamus.

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

926
Q

• Sharp ↑ just before ovulation.

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

927
Q

↑ FSH & LH in

A

ovarian failure, menopause

928
Q

Sperm and egg production

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

929
Q

• Regulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from hypothalamus

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

930
Q

Thyroid (tropic)

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

931
Q

Production of T3 and T4 by thyroid

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

932
Q

• Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from hypothalamus.

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

933
Q

Adrenal (tropic)

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

934
Q

Production of adrenocortical hormones by adrenal cortex

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

935
Q

• Regulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from hypothalamus.

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

936
Q

• Diurnal variation: highest levels in early am, lowest in late afternoon.

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

937
Q

↑ ACTH in

A

Cushing’s disease.

938
Q

(GH; aka somatotropin)

A

Growth hormone

939
Q

Multiple (direct effector)

A

Growth hormone

940
Q

Allows an individual to transition from a fed state to a fasting state

A

Growth hormone

941
Q

↑ protein synthesis in skeletal muscle and other tissues

A

Growth hormone

942
Q

Antagonizes the effects of insulin

A

Growth hormone

943
Q

• Regulated by growth-hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) & somatostatin from hypothalamus.

A

Growth hormone

944
Q

↑ GH in
↓ GH in

A

Gigantism & Acromegaly

Dwarfism.

945
Q

Breasts (direct effector)

A

Prolactin

946
Q

Lactation

A

Prolactin

947
Q

Regulated by prolactin-releasing factor (PRF) & prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF) from hypothalamus.

A

Prolactin

948
Q

Breasts and uterus (direct effector)

A

Oxytocin

949
Q

Critical role in lactation

A

Oxytocin

950
Q

Major role in labor and parturition

A

Oxytocin

951
Q

Produced in hypothalamus. Stored in posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin

952
Q

Kidneys (direct effector)

A

Vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone)

953
Q

Regulation of renal free water excretion

A

Vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone)

954
Q

Produced in hypothalamus. Stored in posterior pituitary.

A

Vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone)

955
Q

Release stimulated by ↑ osmolality, ↓ blood volume or blood pressure.

A

Vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone)

956
Q

↓ in diabetes insipidus.

A

Vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone)

957
Q

• Located near larynx; two lobes connected by a thin piece of tissue

A

THYROID GLAND

958
Q

Exerts significant control over the rate of metabolism in humans

A

THYROID GLAND

959
Q

THYROID GLAND Hormones produced:

A

T3, T4, calcitonin

960
Q

Stimulated by TSH (from the anterior pituitary to produce and secrete T3, T4

A

THYROID GLAND

961
Q

THYROID GLAND Functional unit:

A

thyroid follicle

962
Q

Comprised of follicular cells surrounding a central colloid

A

thyroid follicle

963
Q

Colloid contains thyroglobulin, which is rich in tyrosine (the amino acid that forms the backbone for the thyroid hormone molecules)

A

thyroid follicle

964
Q
  • contains tyrosine which forms the backbone for the thyroid hormone molecules
A

•Thyroglobulin

965
Q
  • contains tyrosine which forms the backbone for the thyroid hormone molecules
A

•Thyroglobulin

966
Q

= T3 (3, 5, 3’-triiodothyronine)

A

• Monoiodotyrosine + dodotyrosine

967
Q

= T4 (3, 5, 3’, 5’-tetraiodothyronine)

A

• Diiodotyrosine + diodotyrosine

968
Q

is more potent (T4 is converted to T3 suggesting that T3 is more important)

A

• T3

969
Q

Major transport protein for T3 and T4

A

Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)

970
Q

: 0.03-0.05% is unbound (almost completely bound to proteins)
: 0.5% free (weaker attachment to proteins)

A

T4

T3

971
Q

RIA, fluorometric enzyme immunoassay, fluorescence polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

A

Thyroxine

972
Q

RIA, microparticle enzyme immunoassay, fluorometric
enzyme immunoassay

A

Triiodothyronine

973
Q

Resin uptake, FPIA

A

Thyroid hormone binding ratio, T3 uptake, T uptake

974
Q

Equilibrium dialysis, immunometric assay (chemiluminescence)

A

Free T4

975
Q

RIA

A

Free T3

976
Q

Calculation from T4 and THBR

A

Free T4 index, Free thyroxine index (FTI), T7

977
Q

Calculation from T3 and THBR

A

Free T3 index

978
Q

RIA, Immunometric assay (IMA)

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

979
Q

Cretinism
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Hypothyroidism

980
Q

• Hypothyroidism in neonates and infants

A

Cretinism

981
Q

• Characterized by mental retardation, short stature with skeletal abnormalities, coarse facial features, enlarged tongue and umbilical hernia

A

Cretinism

982
Q

• Causes:
Maternal hypothyroidism during early pregnancy
Thyroid agenesis lodine deficiency
Dyshormonogenetic goiter (congenital defect in thyroid hormone production; most commonly involves thyroid peroxidase)

A

Cretinism

983
Q

• Most common cause of hypothyroidism in regions where iodine levels are adequate

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

984
Q

• Autoimmune destruction of thyroid gland

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

985
Q

• Anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies are often present

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

986
Q

• Associated with HLA-DR5

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

987
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism =

Subclinical hyperthyroidism =

A

↑ TSH, normal FT4

↓ TSH, normal FT4

988
Q

Grave’s disease

A

Hyperthyroidism

989
Q

• Most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Grave’s disease

990
Q

• Autoantibody (IgG) stimulates TSH receptor → increased synthesis and release of thyroid hormones

A

Grave’s disease

991
Q

• Clinical features:
- Hyperthyroidism
- Diffuse goiter
- Exophthalmos
- Pretibial myxedema

A

Grave’s disease

992
Q

• Composed of three layers; each secretes predominantly one class of hormones.

A

ADRENAL CORTEX

993
Q

produces mineralocorticoids (e.g. aldosterone)

A

Zona glomerulosa

994
Q

produces glucocorticoids (e.g. cortisol)

A

Zona fasciculata

995
Q

produces androgens (e.g. DHEA, dehydroepiandrosterone)

A

Zona reticularis

996
Q

are derived from cholesterol.

A

Cortical hormones

997
Q

= Fluid and electrolyte balance

A

a. Mineralocorticoids

998
Q

= Fluid and electrolyte balance

A

a. Mineralocorticoids

999
Q

= Glucose production and protein metabolism

A

b. Glucocorticoids

1000
Q

= Regulate sexual development and control many aspects of pregnancy

A

c. Sex steroids

1001
Q

All adrenal steroids are derived by sequential enzymatic conversion of a common substrate, cholesterol.

A

STEROIDOGENESIS

1002
Q

Non-specific; carries many steroids

A

Albumin

1003
Q

Cortisol and derivatives; progesterone

A

Cortisol-binding globulin

1004
Q

Testosterone and estradiol

A

Sex hormone- binding globulin

1005
Q

• critical for sodium retention, (volume), potassium, and acid-base homeostasis

A

MINERALOCORTICOIDS (ALDOSTERONE)

1006
Q

Most commonly due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (60%) or adrenal adenoma (40%, Conn syndrome)

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism

1007
Q

Arises with activation of renin-angiotensin system (e.g. renovascular hypertension)

A

Secondary Hyperaldosteronism

1008
Q

Muscle weakness with thin extremities - cortisol increases muscle break down to produce amino acids for gluconeogenesis

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1009
Q

Moon facies, buffalo hump, and truncal obesity - high glucose → high insulin increased storage of fat centrally

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1010
Q
  • Abdominal striae - impaired collagen synthesis results in thinning of skin
A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1011
Q

Hypertension often with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1012
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1013
Q

Immunosuppression

A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1014
Q
  • 24-hour urine cortisol level (increased)
A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1015
Q
  • Late night salivary cortisol level (increased)
A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1016
Q
  • Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
    • Low dose dexamethasone suppresses cortisol in normal individuals but fails to suppress cortisol in all cases of Cushing syndrome
  • High dose dexamethasone suppression test
    • High dose dexamethasone suppresses ACTH production by a pituitary adenoma (serum cortisol is lowered) but does not suppress ectopic ACTH production (serum cortisol remains high)
A

Hypercortisolism (Cushing Syndrome)

1017
Q

• Due to enzymatic defects in cortisol production

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

1018
Q
  • High ACTH (decreased negative feedback) leads to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

1019
Q
  • Mineralocorticoids and androgens may be increased or decreased depending on the enzyme defect
A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

1020
Q
  • Most common cause: 21-hydroxylase deficiency (90% of cases)
A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

1021
Q
  • Aldosterone and cortisol are decreased; steroidogenesis is shunted towards androgens
A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

1022
Q
  • Classic form presents in neonates as:
    • Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia with life-threatening hypotension (salt-wasting type);
    • Females have clitoral enlargement (genital ambiguity)
A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

1023
Q
  • Newborn screening for CAH: measurement of serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

1024
Q

Presents as weakness and shock

A

Acute ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

1025
Q

Abrupt withdrawal of glucocorticoids

A

Acute ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

1026
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhagic necrosis of adrenal glands, usually due to sepsis and DIC in young children with N. meningitidis infection

A

Acute ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

1027
Q

Presents with vague, progressive symptoms such as hypotension, weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting and weight loss

A

Chronic ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY (Addison disease)

1028
Q

Caused by progressive renal damage:
Autoimmune destruction
Tuberculosis
Metastatic carcinoma

A

Chronic ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY (Addison disease)

1029
Q
  1. Formed by the conversion of tyrosine
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1030
Q
  1. Best known catecholamines: epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1031
Q
  1. Synthesized and stored by the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1032
Q
  1. End products of catecholamine metabolism:
    a. Homovanillic acid
    b. Vanillylmandelic acid
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1033
Q
  1. Increased breakdown of triglycerides
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1034
Q
  1. Enhanced synthesis of glucose from amino acids
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1035
Q
  1. Enhanced breakdown of liver glycogen
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1036
Q
  1. Decrease in protein synthesis
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1037
Q
  1. Increase in blood glucose levels
A

CATECHOLAMINES

1038
Q

Colorimetric assay for total metanephrines

A

Pisano Method

1039
Q

Does not distinguish between metanephrine and normetanephrine but gives the total of the two components

A

Pisano Method

1040
Q

Involves extraction followed by colorimetric reaction

A

Pisano Method

1041
Q

Conversion to vanillin (absorbance maximum 360 nm) is accomplished through periodate oxidation

A

Pisano Method

1042
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

DECREASED CATECHOLAMINE

1043
Q

Diabetes: long-term

A

DECREASED CATECHOLAMINE

1044
Q

Pheochromocytoma
Neuroblastoma
Essential hypertension
Biabric adesis
Cardiac disease
Burns
Septicemia
Depression

A

INCREASED CATECHOLAMINE

1045
Q

• Catecholamine-producing tumor arising from chromaffin tissue; rare (<0.1% of hypertensive patients)

A

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

1046
Q

Clinical features are due to episodic release of catecholamines (episodic hypertension, headaches, palpitations, tachycardia, sweating)

A

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

1047
Q

Most sensitive screening test: measuring both total plasma catecholamines and urine metanephrines

A

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

1048
Q

• Treatment is adrenalectomy

A

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

1049
Q

Development of female reproductive organs & secondary sex characteristics.

A

Estrogens

1050
Q

Regulation of menstrual cycle.

A

Estrogens

1051
Q

Maintenance of pregnancy

A

Estrogens

1052
Q

is major estrogen produced by ovaries; most potent estrogen.

A

Estradiol (E2)

1053
Q

Also produced in adrenal cortex.

A

Estrogens

1054
Q

Preparation of uterus for ovum implantation, maintenance of pregnancy

A

Progesterone

1055
Q

Also produced by placenta. Metabolite is pregnanediol

A

Progesterone

1056
Q

Useful in infertility studies & to assess placental function.

A

Progesterone

1057
Q

No hormonal activity

A

Estrogen (estriol)

1058
Q

Used to monitor fetal growth & development.

A

Estrogen (estriol)

1059
Q

Progesterone production by corpus luteum during early pregnancy.

A

HCG

1060
Q

Development of fetal gonads

A

HCG

1061
Q

Used to detect pregnancy, gestational trophoblastic disease (e.g., hydatidiform mole), testicular tumor, & other HCG-producing tumors.

A

HCG

1062
Q

Estrogen & progesterone production by corpus luteum.

A

Human placental lactogen (HPL)

1063
Q

Development of mammary glands

A

Human placental lactogen (HPL)

1064
Q

Used to assess placental function.

A

Human placental lactogen (HPL)

1065
Q

Development of male reproductive organs & secondary sex characteristics

A

Testosterone

1066
Q

Also produced in adrenal cortex.

A

Testosterone

1067
Q

: Most abundant estrogen in post-menopausal women

A

Estrone (E1)

1068
Q

: Most potent; most abundant in pre-menopausal women

A

Estradiol (E2)

1069
Q

: metabolite of estradiol; estrogen found in maternal women; major estrogen secreted by placenta

A

Estriol (E3)

1070
Q

: metabolite of estradiol; estrogen found in maternal women; major estrogen secreted by placenta

A

Estriol (E3)

1071
Q

: metabolite of estradiol; estrogen found in maternal women; major estrogen secreted by placenta

A

Estriol (E3)

1072
Q

Visual pigments in the retina; regulation of gene expression and cell differentiation (B-carotene is an antioxidant)

A

Retinol, ß-carotene

1073
Q

Night blindness, xerophthalmia; keratinization of skin

A

Retinol, ß-carotene

1074
Q

Maintenance of calcium balance; enhances intestinal absorption of Ca and mobilizes bone mineral; regulation of gene expression and cell differentiation

A

Calciferol

1075
Q

Rickets = poor mineralization of bone; osteomalacia = bone demineralization

A

Calciferol

1076
Q

Antioxidant, especially in cell membranes; roles in cell signaling

A

Tocopherols, tocotrienols

1077
Q

Extremely rare-serious neurologic dysfunction

A

Tocopherols, tocotrienols

1078
Q

Coenzyme in formation of y-carboxyglutamate in enzymes of blood clotting and bone matrix

A

Phylloquinone; menaquinones

1079
Q

Impaired blood clotting, hemorrhagic disease

A

Phylloquinone; menaquinones

1080
Q

Coenzyme in pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenases, and transketolase; regulates Cl channel in nerve conduction

A

Thiamin

1081
Q

Peripheral nerve damage (beriberi) or central nervous system lesions (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome)

A

Thiamin

1082
Q

Coenzyme in oxidation and reduction reactions (FAD and
FMN); prosthetic group of flavoproteins

A

Riboflavin

1083
Q

Lesions of corner of mouth, lips, and tongue, seborrheic dermatitis

A

Riboflavin

1084
Q

Coenzyme in oxidation and reduction reactions, functional part of NAD and NADP; role in intracellular calcium regulation and cell signaling

A

Nicotinic acid, nicotinamide

1085
Q

Pellagra —photosensitive dermatitis, depressive psychosis

A

Nicotinic acid, nicotinamide

1086
Q

Coenzyme in transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids and glycogen phosphorylase; modulation of steroid hormone action

A

Pyridoxine, pyridoxal, pyridoxamine

1087
Q

Disorders of amino acid metabolism, convulsions

A

Pyridoxine, pyridoxal, pyridoxamine

1088
Q

Coenzyme in transfer of one-carbon fragments

A

Folic acid

1089
Q

Megaloblastic anemia

A

Folic acid

1090
Q

Coenzyme in transfer of one-carbon fragments and metabolism of folic acid

A

Cobalamin

1091
Q

Pernicious anemia = megaloblastic anemia
with degeneration of the spinal cord

A

Cobalamin

1092
Q

Functional part of CoA and acyl carrier protein: fatty acid synthesis and metabolism

A

Pantothenic acid

1093
Q

Peripheral nerve damage (nutritional melalgia or “burning foot syndrome”)

A

Pantothenic acid

1094
Q

Coenzyme in carboxylation reactions in gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis; role in regulation of cell cycle

A

Biotin

1095
Q

Impaired fat and carbohydrate metabolism, dermatitis

A

Biotin

1096
Q

Coenzyme in hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis; antioxidant; enhances absorption of iron

A

Ascorbic acid

1097
Q

Scurvy—impaired wound healing, loss of dental cement, subcutaneo

A

Ascorbic acid

1098
Q

Structural function

A

Calcium, magnesium, phosphate

1099
Q

Involved in membrane function: principal cations of extracellular-and intracellular fluids, respectively

A

Sodium, potassium

1100
Q

Function as prosthetic groups in enzymes

A

Cobalt, copper, iron, molybde-num, selenium, zinc

1101
Q

Regulatory role or role in hormone action

A

Calcium, chromium, iodine, magnesium, manganese, sodium, potassium

1102
Q

Known to be essential, but function unknown

A

Silicon, vanadium, nickel, tin

1103
Q

Have effects in the body, but essentiality is not established

A

Fluoride, lithium

1104
Q

Without known nutritional function but toxic in excess

A

Aluminum, arsenic, antimony, boron, bromine, cadmium, ce-sium, germanium, lead, mercury, silver, strontium