Review Flashcards

1
Q

Where are pregnanglionic neurons found? Are the axons myelinated? What is the neurotransmitter?

A

CNS; myelinated; Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are postganglionic neurons found? Are the axons myelinated? What is(are) the neurotransmitter(s)?

A

peripheral ganglia; not myelinated; Ach in parasympathetic, Norepinephrine in sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the cell body of each sympathetic preganglionic neuron lie?

A

intermedeiolateral horn of the spinal cord (T1-L2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Preganglionic fiber can synapse with postgangionic neurons upward or downward in the ___ ___

A

paravertebral chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pregangionic fiber can pass for variable distances through the chain and then through one of the sympathetic nerves to synapse in what?

A

a peripheral sympathetic ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers pass through the ___ rami, are type ___ fibers, make up about ___% of the fibers in the average nerve and control what?

A

gray; C; 8; control blood vessels, sweat glands, and piloerector muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the splanchnic nerve:
T5-T9
synapses in celiac ganglion

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the splanchnic nerve:
T10-T11
synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion

A

lesser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the splanchnic nerve:
T12
Synapses in the aorticorenal ganglion

A

least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does the alarm or stress response occur?

A

when there is a mass discharge of the entire sympathetic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Increased arterial pressure; rerouting of blood flow to active muscles; increased rates of cellular metabolism; increased blood glucose concentration; increased glycolysis in liver and muscle; increased muscle strength; increased mental activity; and increased blood coagulation rate are all characteristics of alarm or stress response. true or false?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are in the ___nerve

A

vagus (CN 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most preganglionic fibers pass all the way to the organ it is innervating. true or false?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers are located where? what do they use as their neurotransmitter?

A

in the wall of the organ; Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve? Where does it carry function to?

A

carries general sensation of taste from posterior one-third of the tongue

carries parasympathetics in preganglionics from inferior salivary nucleus to otic ganglion

carries parasympathetics in postganglionics to parotid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the synthesis of norepinephrine

A

hydroxylation of tyrosine to dopa
decarboxylation of dopa to dopamine
transport of dopamine into the vesicles
hydroxylation of dopamine to norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the adrenal medulla ___% of the norepinephrine is methylated to form epinephrine

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the way norepinephrine can be removed from synaptic cleft

A

reuptake, diffusion, destruction of monamine oxidase, destruction by COMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are monoamine oxidase and COMT found?

A

monoamine oxidase: nerve endings

COMT: all tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Norepinephrine/epinephrine is active for only a few seconds when secreted directly into ___ but when secreted into ___ it remains active until destroyed by COMT

A

tissues; blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the type of acetylcholine receptor:
muscarine is a poison from toadstools
found on all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons

A

muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the type of acetylcholine receptor:
found in autonomic ganglia at synapses between preganlgionic and postganglionic neurons
present in neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles

A

nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The following characteristics describe which adrenergic receptor?
cardioacceleration
increased myocardial strength
lipolysis

A

Beta1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
The following characteristics describe which adrenergic receptor?
vasodilation
intestinal relaxation
uterus relaxation
bronchodilation
calorigenesis
glycogenesis
bladder wall relaxation
A

Beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The following characteristics describe which adrenergic receptor?
thermogenesis

A

Beta3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the action of Reserpine?

A

blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the action of Guanethidine?

A

blocks release of norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the action of Phenoxybenzamine/phenotalmine?

A

block sympathetic alpha receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the action of Propranolol?

A

blocks sympathetic Beta1 and Beta2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the action of Metoprolol?

A

blocks mostly sympathetic Beta1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the action of Hexamethonium?

A

blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is sympathetic effect on glands?

A

causes secretion of large amounts of sweat: cholinergic to most sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the parasympathetic effect on glands?

A

strongly stimulates lacrimal, nasal, salivary and many GI glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Primary spermatocytes complete the first half of meiosis and become what?

A

secondary spermatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Secondary spermatocytes complete the second half of meiosis and become what?

A

spermatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Spermatids undergo differentiation to become what?

A

mature sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In regards to spermiogensis, excess cytoplasm sloughs off and forms what?

A

residual body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sperm cells are stored in ___ until ejaculated

A

epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sperm must remain in epididymis for a minimum of __ to ___ hours in order to gain motility

A

18-24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or false? passage through the epididymis requires several days

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Seminal vesicles are paired structures behind the prostate. Each vesicle is a loculated tube lined with a secretory epithelium that secrets a mucoid material containing what?

A

fructose, citric acid, additional nutrients, prostaglandins, fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

During emission and ejaculation, contents of vesicles are emptied into ejaculatory ducts containing ___. Contents make up ___% of total volume of semen

A

sperm; 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

___ provides energy for sperm

A

fructose

44
Q

____ make cervical mucous more receptive to sperm movement and may cause retro-peristalstic contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes

A

prostaglandins

45
Q

Testosterone is formed by what cells?

A

interstitial cells of leydig

46
Q

After testosterone is secreted __% is loosely bound with albumin or tightly bound with beta globulin

A

97

47
Q

Testosterone circulates in blood for how long?

A

30 minutes to several hours

48
Q

Testosterone levels are high in the fetus, decrease at birth, increase again as a newborn but then disappear thought childhood until puberty. After puberty, testosterone levels plateau and slowly decline throughout old age. true or false?

A

true

49
Q

GnRH or LH-releasing hormone exists as a ___ AA peptide

A

10

50
Q

GnRH is produced by neurons located where?

A

in arcuate nuclei of hypothalamus

51
Q

GnRH is transported to AP via what system?

A

hypothalamic-hypophyseal

52
Q

GnRH stimulates AP to produce what?

A

LH and FSH

53
Q

Inhibin is secreted by ___ cells

A

Sertoli

54
Q

What is the function of inhibin?

A

inhibits secretion of FSH by AP

55
Q

Oogonia are surrounded by a single layer of nonterminal ___ cells

A

granulosa

56
Q

The oogonium plus granolas cells is called what?

A

primordial follicle

57
Q

The ovum is a ___ ___

A

primary oocyte

58
Q

The primary oocyte begins process of meiosis but becomes arrested ruing what stage?

A

diplotene stage of prophase I

59
Q

Most of the primary oocytes will become ___ before birth

A

atretic

60
Q

After birth, only about ___ primary oocytes remain out of an initial number of oogonia cells of about 7 million

A

500,000

61
Q

Beginning at puberty, a primary oocyte will complete the first stage of meiosis to become what?

A

a secondary oocyte + polar body

62
Q

Describe the levels of estradiol and progesterone throughout the menstrual cycle

A

Estradiol is high, progesterone low before ovulation

After ovulation, estradiol decreases and progesterone increases

63
Q

Concentrations of both ___ and ___ increase slightly during first few days of cycle

A

FSH and LH

note: FSH increase is slightly higher

64
Q

What are the two ovarian hormones?

A

estrogen and proesterone

65
Q

throughout childhood, granulosa cells surrounding primordial follicle do what?

A

provide nourishment to ovum, secrete oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state

66
Q

Spindle-shaped cells around follicles form multiple layers around each follicle. What is this structure called?

A

theca

67
Q

Early growth of follicle is stimulated mostly by ___

A

FSH

68
Q

Cells in the theca internal become epithelioid and develop the ability to secrete ___ and ____

A

estrogen and progesterone

69
Q

The theca external will become the protective capsule of the developing follicle. true or false?

A

true

70
Q

Granulosa cells secrete a follicular fluid containing a high concentration of what? What does it cause to appear?

A

estrogen; antrum

71
Q

Granulosa cells are dominant in producing estrogen over theca cells because…?

A

they have receptor for FSH which allows for conversion of androgens to estrogens

72
Q

Completion of meiosis I is prior to release of primary oocyte form ovary. true or false?

A

true

73
Q

Beginning of meiosis II occurs after fertilization. true or false?

A

false; prior

74
Q

The fertilized oocyte is surrounded by ___ + _____

A

corona radiata; zona pellucida

75
Q

corona radiate consists of ___ granulosa cells

A

100+

76
Q

Ciliated epithelium of fimbriae allow entry into the fallopian tube. They are activated by ___ from ovaries and beat toward ____

A

estrogen; ostium

77
Q

Fertilization takes place in the ___ of the fallopian tube

A

ampulla

78
Q

Sperm transport is aided by contractions of uterus and fallopian tubes which are caused by ___ from male seminal fluid and ___ from PP

A

prostaglandins; oxytocin

79
Q

Sperm penetration of barriers surrounding oocyte is caused by release of ___ from acrosome and ___ ___ which penetrates zone pellucida

A

hyaluronidase; zona lysin

80
Q

Ferilized ovum travels for ___ to ___ days down fallopian tube

A

3-5

81
Q

Progesterone is produced by the ___ ___

A

corpus luteum

82
Q

Progesterone causes relaxation of uterus to allow what?

A

entry of blastocyst into uterine lining

83
Q

In regards to the blastocyst, and the first two cleavages, cell division is ___

A

equal

84
Q

After several cleavages of the blastocyst, two distinct cell populations begin to appear. Describe these populations

A

one population consists of may smaller outer cells surrounding a large single inner cell

85
Q

The outer, smaller cells divide more rapidly than the larger, inner cells and form the ____

A

trophoblast

86
Q

The inner cell mass of the trophoblast will give rise to what?

A

embryo, yolk sac, amnion, and allantoic stalk

87
Q

The tertiary vili will tap into the maternal blood in the trophoblastic ____

A

lacunae

88
Q

The blood vessels within the tertiary vili will eventually dump into vessels running through the ___ ___

A

allantoic stalk

note: this is the umbilical cord

89
Q

The chorion plus the portion of the uterine endometrium with the trophoblastic lacunae is collectively called the ____

A

placenta

90
Q

____ causes endometrial cells to become enlarged and store large quantities of glycogen, proteins, lipids and minerals during latter half of menstrual cycle. These cells are now referred to as ___ cells

A

progesterone; decidual

91
Q

Decidual cells provide nutrients to early embryo for first week after implantation and continue to provide some nutrients for up to how long?

A

8 weeks after implantation

92
Q

What is the PO2 of mother

A

50 mm Hg

93
Q

What is the PO2 of fetus

A

30 mm Hg

94
Q

What are the reasons why adequate oxygenation can occur with such a low pressure gradient?

A

fetal hemoglobin, fetal blood hemoglobin concentration is about 50% greater than maternal, bohr effect

95
Q

What is the bohr effect?

A

shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right in response to increases in blood CO2 and hydrogen ions enhances release of oxygen from blood

96
Q

Due to the bohr effect fetal blood becomes more ___ while maternal blood becomes more ____

A

alkaline; acidic

97
Q

What is the double bohr effect?

A

the bohr shift operates in one direction in the maternal blood and in the other direction in the fetal blood

98
Q

carbon dioxide diffusion is a function of the placenta. PCO2 of fetal blood = __ to ___ X higher than maternal blood

A

2-3

99
Q

Diffusion of foodstuffs is a function of the placenta. facilitated diffusion of glucose occurs via ___ cells. slower diffusion of __ __ into fetal blood

A

trophoblast; fatty acid

100
Q

Name the following hormone:
secreted by the syncytial trophoblast cells into maternal fluids; measurable secretion 8-9 days after ovulation; maximal secretion during 10th - 12th week of pregnancy; lower levels secreted 16th-20th weeks

A

human chorionic gonadotropin

101
Q

What are the functions of human chorionic gonadotropin?

A

prevents involution of corpus luteum; causes CL to increase secretion of progesterone and estrogens; exerts interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus which results in production of testosterone until birth

102
Q

Estrogens are secreted by ___ cells of placenta

A

synctiotrophoblast

103
Q

Toward end of pregnancy, secretion level of estrogen is ___X mother’s normal level

A

30

104
Q

placental estrogens are formed entirely from androgenic steroid compounds. where are these steroid compounds formed?

A

formed in mother’s and fetal adrenal glands

note: converted by trophoblast cells into estradiol, eastern, and estriol

105
Q

Prolactin is secreted by what? what does it promote? when does it have its full effect?

A

AP; milk secretion; after birth

106
Q

Describe colostrum. When is it secreted?

A

similar to milk without fat; secreted just before and after parturition