Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Congressional taxing and spending power

A

1) May tax and spend for general welfare
2) Uphold tax/spend if any conceivable relationship to govt purpose
3) May condition such grants of money

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2
Q

Best constitutional justification for Congress spending money?

A

Best answer is always taxing and spending.

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3
Q

Rules for CC (federal)

A

Congress has power to regulate interstate commerce. This plays in 2 ways:

1) Always a winning pick when looking for a basis for a law.
2) If Congress delegates to states the power to legislate in commerce, always uphold the law.

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4
Q

Rules for CC (state)

A

State can’t place undue burden or impermissible restraint on commerce. Balance benefits of statute and burden on commerce.

1) Constit challenge on basis of CC is always a possible challenge
2) Particular types of legislation that always violate CC: state can’t protect local economic interests, can’t totally bar exports of local resources, can’t unduly restrict imports unless dangerous.

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5
Q

When is there preemption of state law?

A

If Congress passes statute and preempted field, state legislation is unconstit. Preemption when:

1) Congress says so
2) Court determines intent of Congress was to preempt the field.
* *If purpose of fed and state laws are different, conclude there was no preemption on MBE.

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6
Q

What is test for standing?

A

1) Injury or threat of injury
2) D is cause of injury
3) If P wins, injury will be resolved

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7
Q

What to remember w/ respect to advisory opinions?

A

1) fed courts can’t issue advisory opinions. no exceptions.
2) congress can’t authorize courts to write advisory opinions.
3) state courts may be able to issue advisory opinions.
4) how can you tell you’re looking at advisory opinion? fed ct decision subject to review by another branch of govt.

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8
Q

When may there be 3d party standing?

A

Seller of goods or provider of services may sue if she has suffered harm and customer’s rights are being interfered with in a way that is linked w/ seller’s harm.

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9
Q

Full faith and credit

A

judgment in state 1 must be given FFC in state 2 if:

1) state 1 had jur
2) state 1 judgment on merits
3) state 1 judgment is final

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10
Q

EPC applies when

A

state is treating 2 groups differently and all groups w/in same state.

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11
Q

If non-govt entity is being sued under constitutional claim

A

Look for substantial nexus between non-govt D and govt such that non-govt entity engages in govt action:

1) licensing or receipt of money or land is never enough to be a substantial connection to govt on MBE.
2) once you’ve concluded no govt action, answer saying constitution doesn’t apply wins.

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12
Q

What is the difference between EPC in federal and state contexts?

A

There is no EPC in 5th Am that applies to federal govt, but federal govt applies 5th Am DPC to prohibit discriminatory action by federal govt.

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13
Q

If EPC and 1st Am appear to be violated, what’s the rule of thumb?

A

Use 1st Am to ID best constitutional challenge because state is less likely to challenge successfully.

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14
Q

Free exercise v. establishment clause

A

Free exercise: law applicable to everyone that was not intended to interfere w/ religion can be applied to a person even if it requires conduct contrary to the tenets of A’s religion.
Establishment: Does govt action endorse religion? Lemon test–1) there is secular purpose for law, 2) effect of law can’t advance or inhibit a religion, AND 3) can’t have excessive govt entanglement w/ religion.

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15
Q

Privileges and immunities clause of 14th Am

A

We know this has something to do with interstate travel, but court hasn’t told us what this means. SO this can never be the right answer on the MBE.

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16
Q

What are the always wrong answers?

A

1) 14th Am privileges and immunities clause
2) Congress may not delegate to an admin agency–not a valid claim since 1930.
3) Federal stat unconstitutional because 10th Am reserves subject matter to states.
4) Congress has power to legislate for general welfare.
5) Congress has power to act under police power.
6) Federal stat unconstitutional under 14th Am.
7) P does/doesn’t prevail because she has a right not a privilege. Language is antiquated.
8) Ex post facto clause applied to non-criminal statute
9) State statute unconst because it places burden on commerce.
10) Nec & Proper w/o including other power this relates to.
11) Dismissing lawsuit as political Q
12) Invalidating legislation under contracts clause
13) Prez violates duty to see law faithfully executed.

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17
Q

What is the only time to pick quasi K as an answer?

A

1) No formal agreement between parties AND 2) unjust enrichment.

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18
Q

What are the battle of forms rules?

A

In Art. 2 Ks:

1) If offeree accepts offer and at same time makes a material alteration, terms of offer control and changes don’t apply.
2) If offeree accepts and makes non-material change, non-material change is included in K UNLESS offeror timely objects.
3) What is a material alteration? One that substantially affects economic risks, benefits, liabilities, or remedies.

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19
Q

What if there’s a violation of perfect tender?

A

In Art. 2:
1) Accept goods and pay K price
2) Buyer can timely reject goods and sue for damages
3) Buyer may accept in part and reject in part.
BUT if there’s a notice of accommodation, treat delivery as counteroffer that buyer can accept or reject but cannot sue under K.

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20
Q

What is the rule with surety agreements?

A

Must be in writing to be enforceable, but if promisor stands to benefit in answering for someone else’s debt, then it gets out of SOF. This is the main purpose exception.

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21
Q

K modification rules?

A

At CL, need new consideration.

Art. 2: only care about GF. BUT* be careful about SOF.

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22
Q

When do 3d party beneficiary rights vest?

A

3d party learns of agreement and one of the following:

1) assents
2) relies
3) sues under the K

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23
Q

What is the 10 day exception to SOF?

A

Between two merchants, if one party memorializes an oral agreement in writing, the other party has 10 days to object or the memorialization stands.

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24
Q

All Ks are assignable or delegable in writing or orally EXCEPT

A

1) long term requirements Ks OR

2) unique personal services Ks

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25
Q

When are liquidated damages allowed?

A

1) At time of entering K, damages are difficult to ascertain.
2) Provision itself is a reasonable forecast of compensatory damages not a punishment.

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26
Q

What is the standard seller remedy under UCC?

A

K price - resale price = remedy.

BUT if volume seller, remedy = lost profits.

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27
Q

Specific intent crimes

A

1) Property offenses (larceny, robbery, etc.)
2) Incohate crimes
3) First degree murder
4) Attempt no matter what the underlying offense is.

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28
Q

What does attempt require?

A

1) intent
2) overt act
* Merger applies to attempt*

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29
Q

What are defenses to specific intent crimes?

A

1) voluntary intoxication

2) any mistake of fact (even if unreasonable)

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30
Q

What are the malice crimes?

A

1) Arson

2) Murder

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31
Q

What are the general intent crimes?

A

All crimes that don’t involve malice or intent. Only reasonable mistakes of fact are a defense.

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32
Q

Five elements of crime

A

1) actus reus
2) mens rea
3) concurrence of 1 + 2
4) causation
5) harm
* Negating an element of crime is a better argument for D than arguing for a defense.*

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33
Q

Murder types

A

1) Intentional: specific intent
2) Intent to inflict serious bodily injury: murder at CL
3) Felony murder: unintentional killing during commission or attempted commission of inherently dangerous felony i.e. BARRK–burglary, arson, robbery, rape, kidnapping
4) Depraved heart/involuntary manslaughter: depraved heart = recklessness showing unjustifiably high risk to human life; involuntary manslaughter = criminal negligence. Line is blurry. If people are present or should be present, then depraved heart.

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34
Q

Recklessness

A

1) Consciously disregards a substantial or unjustifiable risk that a prohibited result will follow
2) Deviation is a gross deviation from what a reasonable person would do.

35
Q

What is mistake of law defense?

A

No defense even if reasonable.

36
Q

Solication

A

Asking someone else to commit a crime. A crime is committed in the asking.
Merger: when crime is committed, crime of solicitation merges into the completed crime

37
Q

Conspiracy

A

1) Need specific intent a) to enter agreement and b) commit an act
2) An overt act, but mere preparation suffices
3) 2+ agree to commit a crime
* NO MERGER*

38
Q

What is the withdrawal defense?

A

No absolution of conspiracy, but absolves of all future crimes.

1) Affirmative act notifying all members of conspiracy AND
2) Done in time for members to abandon their plans AND
3) Some jurs require conspirator to go to police, but NOT ON MBE unless they give statute.

39
Q

Self-defense

A

A person w/o fault may use force that reasonable appears necessary under the circumstances to protect self from unreasonable use of force on him.

40
Q

Search and seizure/4th Am

A

“reasonable expectation of privacy” in place searched and item seized; need standing
*No exclusionary rule in grand jury proceedings

41
Q

Permissible surveillance (including arial) and the types of property

A

1) Person’s home: w/o warrant highest expectation of privacy, 4th AM protection. Can only use naked eye search.
2) Business or factory: lesser expectation of privacy. Special lenses, photo equ is okay.
3) Open fields: any undeveloped outside curtilage. No 4th Am protection.

42
Q

Exceptions to search warrant requirement in search and seizure law

A

1) Consent
2) SITA: search incident to lawful arrest–may search passenger compartment if person arrested was in a car and PC that evidence of the crime committed is in the compartment
3) hot pursuit
4) Exigent circumstance
5) automobile: this is the only way police can search trunk if there is PC to believe contraband is in the trunk
6) Plain view

43
Q

What is the Blockburger test?

A

2 crimes aren’t the same offense if each requires proof of additional element that other doesn’t require even if same facts must be proven for each. EX: okay under Blockburger

1) A, B, C must be proved
2) A, B, X must be proved.

44
Q

Two step approach to torts Qs

A

1) Who is P, D and tort theory of law suit? If call doesn’t tell theory, 95% of the time it’s intentional torts, negligence, or products SL.
2) What rules apply when this kind of P is suing this kind of D?

45
Q

Battery elements

A

1) Act by D
2) Intended to cause bodily contact w/ person
3) That results in bodily contact that is either harmful or offensive
* *Non-emergency operation by doctor not of P’s choice is an offensive touching.**

46
Q

When does transferred intent apply?

A

1) D intends to cause tort on A but really causes harm on B.

2) D intends to commit tort 1 on A, but actually commits tort 2 on A.

47
Q

Assault elements

A

1) Act
2) Intended to cause immediate apprehension of harmful or offensive contact
3) That results in reasonable apprehension of that contact

48
Q

False imprisonment elements

A

1) act
2) w/o legal authority
3) intended to confine V involuntarily to bounded area
4) resulting in that confinement
* *may recover damages for humiliation.

49
Q

Defense of property

A

Reasonable non-deadly force in defense of property. This is a defense to assault and false imprisonment.
Allow if A reasonably believes B is a shoplifter, restrains for reasonable time, and in a reasonable manner.

50
Q

What are damages in conversion cases?

A

P entitled to FMV of property at time of conversion, but D gets to keep property.

51
Q

Trespass to land elements

A

1) Act done
2) Intent to enter land: need some sort of knowing
3) Resulting in invasion of land of another

52
Q

Defense of necessity

A

Defense to trespass to land, trespass to chattels, and conversion. Two kinds:

1) Public necessity: prevents harm to public at large. Gives D a complete and total defense.
2) Private necessity: prevents harm to D or small group of people. D not held to have committed tort but must pay for damage caused to P’s property.

53
Q

Infliction of emotional distress (2 kinds)

A

1) Intentional IED requires outrageous conduct by D, intent or recklessness to cause severe emotional distress, causation, and damage i.e. severe emotional distress. Assume intentional infliction unless told otherwise.
2) Negligent IED requires P to suffer some physical injury in conjunction w/ distress.

54
Q

Negligence elements

A

1) Duty
2) Breach of duty–lack of reasonable care under circumstances.
3) Causation
4) Damage

55
Q

What are the two conflicting rules w/ trespassers on land and dangerous conditions on the land?

A

1) In suit based on negligence, owner of land owes no duty to trespassers w/ respect to injuries caused by dangerous condition on land.
2) Deadly force can never be used to protect property alone i.e. no force capable of causing death.

56
Q

Violations of statute in negligence cases i.e. negligence per se–when does it apply?

A

When D violated statute, sometimes P can show D violated terms of statute rather than showing breach of duty. Allowed when:

1) P is in group of people statute was designed to protect
2) Harm caused by statutory violation was the harm statute was designed to protect.
* *Usually a statutory violation on MBE isn’t negligence per se. BUT P can still win in regular negligence.

57
Q

Rescues

A

1) No duty to lend assistance to someone else to prevent harm i.e. no duty to rescue.
2) If you attempt to rescue, there’s a duty to act reasonably in rescue efforts.

58
Q

Special standards of care apply to certain people

A

1) Children–like age, edu, and exp
2) Major physical handicaps
3) Professionals: skill and knowl of member of the profession in good standing. If prof has special knowl, he must exercise that special knowledge not held by other members of the profession.
4) Owners of land
5) Common carriers: high degree of care. Slight negligence = problem.
6) Violators of statutes

59
Q

Standards of care for owners and occupiers of land

A

1) Trespasser: no duty for injury caused by condition on land.
2) Known trespassers: if owner knows or has reason to know of trespasser, must warn about concealed artificial conditions known to owner that are likely to cause death/serious injury.
3) Child trespasser: reasonable care under circumstances to prevent harm caused by dangerous artificial conditions on property.
4) Licensee: social guest and workers are licensees. Duty is to warn of concealed dangerous (artificial or natural) conditions known to owner.
5) Invitee: customers and their kids are invitees i.e. owner profits. Duty to warn of concealed dangerous conditions that owner knows or should know of. Must inspect.

60
Q

Comparative negligence

A

Jury must compare negligence of P and D and work things out in damages.

1) Modified comparative negligence: P can’t recover if over 50% at fault.
2) Pure comparative negligence: P can recover from negligence D no matter how negligent P was. APPLY THIS IF Q doesn’t specify.

61
Q

Strict liability for products

A

1) P must show D is a commercial supplier of product: manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, and Hertz, but not a one time seller.
2) Product was in a defective AND unreasonably dangerous condition when D sold or placed in stream of commerce.
3) D doesn’t have to be reasonable for the defective condition.
4) Defect caused harm

62
Q

Defense for strict liability of products

A

1) Misuse of product by P unless D could foresee the misuse.

2) Assumption of risk by P

63
Q

What are not defenses for SL

A

1) D is incredibly careful
2) Contributory negligence by P
3) Misuse of product if misuse foreseeable
4) P didn’t purchase from D

64
Q

SL for ultra-hazardous activities

A

1) activity involves a risk of serious harm
2) activity can’t be conducted w/ complete and total safety no matter how must care used
3) activity not commonly engaged in in this community
4) activity is the cause of the damage in the case

65
Q

CL defamation elements

A

1) Defamatory statement by D
2) defamatory statement about P
3) Publication to 3d person
4) P shows damage as a result
BUT if P is public figure and statement relates to public matter, P must also prove:
5) Malice on D’s part: D knows or was reckless in making false statement
6) Statement was in fact false.

66
Q

Nuisance elements

A

Substantial and unreasonable interference w/ the use and enjoyment of land.

67
Q

Rules for refreshing recollection

A

1) Can use anything to do this.

2) If use a document to refresh, opposing party gets to see it and they can introduce it as evidence w/o objection.

68
Q

Character evidence: 5 rules in a criminal case

A

1) P may not present evidence of D’s bad character if purpose is to show he probably acted in conformity w/ that character and committed the crime charged.
2) D is allowed to present evidence of relevant good character evidence to show he acted in conformity w/ that character. Rep or opinion.
3) If D presents evidence of good character, D has opened the door, and P may present evidence of D’s bad character. Rep or opinion.
4) Prior bad acts may be admissible to show: motive, intent, no mistake, instrumentality, common scheme.
5) If D testifies, character trait of truthfulness is automatically at issue.

69
Q

Character evidence: 3 rules in a civil case

A

1) No evidence of character trait of party if purpose is to show that party acted in conformity w/ character during event that gave rise to litigation.
2) If not introduced for 1, rule prohibiting character evidence won’t keep it out i.e. character evidence will be allowed in negligent entrustment and defamation cases.
3) If a party testifies, they automatically place character for truthfulness at issue.

70
Q

Ways to impeach W

A

1) prior inconsistent statements: may be shown through extrinsic evidence. LIMITS: not if inconsistency is on a minor point; W must be given opportunity to comment on prior inconsistent statement at some point.
2) bias: W inclined to favor side W testified for.
3) prior criminal convictions: 1) any prior conviction involving dishonesty or false statement can ALWAYS be used; 2) any other felony can be used to impeach unless judge finds too prejudicial.
4) prior bad acts: evidence of specific acts of misconduct that reflect unfavorably on W’s truthfulness. only during cross exam, no extrinsic evidence allowed.
5) reputation for untruthfulness
6) contradiction: evidence that contradicts W’s testimony. Can always try to get W to contradict self, but extrinsic evidence not allowed for minor points.

71
Q

What is hearsay?

A

statement other than one made by W while testifying offered into evidence for purpose of proving the truth of the matter asserted.

72
Q

Statements always admissible non-hearsay

A

1) verbal act that by itself changes legal rights (i.e. accepting an offer)
2) statements to show knowledge on part of listener when knowledge is a relevant issue in the case
3) prior inconsistent statement offered to impeach

73
Q

Statements that aren’t hearsay even if offered for matter asserted IF* there’s a W on the stand

A

1) Prior ID of a person made by W in current case
2) Statement by party opponent i.e. admissions
3) Prior sworn statements

74
Q

nine hearsay exceptions

A

1) present sense impression
2) excited utterance
3) statement showing state of mind or physical condition of speaker
4) made for purpose of medical treatment
5) recorded recollection
6) business records
7) former testimony
8) dying declarations
9) statements against interest
* * 7-9 require declarant to be unavailable.

75
Q

What is an admission?

A

Statement by party (or employee speaking in scope of employment) to action made at any previous time offered into evidence by opposing party and relevant. Admissions are NONHEARSAY.

76
Q

When is prior inconsistent statement admissible for substantive evidence as well as impeachment?

A

1) given under oath at trial or other legal proceeding

2) prior inconsistent statement qualifies for an exception under the hearsay rule

77
Q

Business records special rules

A

1) Person who makes the record doesn’t need first hand knowledge as long as it comes from someone else in the business
2) If doc qualifies as business record, it’s admissible to prove what is in AND what is not int he record.

78
Q

What is the Hillman doctrine for future purpose?

A

Out of court statement of future plans is admissible to show a state of mind that makes it more likely A carried out the intent.

79
Q

How do you authenticate an item?

A

Enough additional evidence sufficient to support a finding that item is what proponent says it is.

80
Q

Fixtures on residential property

A

Court looks at

1) nature of chattel: heirloom v. garbage disposal
2) Intent to remove or leave chattel
3) most important how much damage will be caused if chattel removed

81
Q

Fixtures on commercial property

A

Trade-fixtures doctrine: commercial tenant prior to lease expiring may remove all trade fixtures from property.

82
Q

Covenant of seisin

A

I own the property. Leads to the two other present covenants: covenant of transfer and covenant against encumbrances.

83
Q

Future covenants that run w/ land

A

1) Quiet enjoyment: indemnifies grantees of subsequent claims of title brought by 3d parties
2) Warranty: basically the same as 1.
3) Further assurances: necessary measures to perfect grantee’s title.

84
Q

Water rights

A

Majority rule: riparian doctrine. If you own land that abuts a body of water, domestic (natural) use trumps commercial and agricultural use.
Minority rules: if you were the first there, your use takes precedent.