review 2019 Flashcards

exam 1

1
Q

What is the maxillary nerve and what type of fibers is it?

Which foramen will it cross through?

A

It is the V2, and it mostly sensory. There is some piggy back of parasympathetic and sympathetic that will climb up with the zygomatic nerve until reaching the V1– opthalamic division which will supply to the lacrimal gland ANS

V2 passes through the rotundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inferior alveolar nerve supplies sensation to the

A

mandibular teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what passes through the optic canal

A

CN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What passes through the superior orbital fissure

A

CN III, IV, VI and V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what passes through the internal acoustic meatus

A

CN VII and VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what passes through the jugular foramen

A

CN IX, X, and XI

Posterior meningeal a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what passes through the foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal a. and meningeal br. of V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what passes through the foramen ovale

A

CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what passes through the incisive foramen

A

greater palatine nasopalatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what passes through the stylomastoid foramen

A

motor fibers CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where does the temporalis tendon attaches?

A

coronoid process on the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where does the sphenomandibular ligament attaches

A

lingula on the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where does the lateral pterygoid attaches

A

condylar process on the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where does the masseter attaches

A

ramus and neck of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

occlusal plane

A

C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

angle of mandible

A

C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hyoid bone

A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

thyroid cartilage

A

C4/C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cricoid cartilage

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bones of the neurocranium

A

8:

  1. frontal
  2. parietal (2)
  3. occipital
  4. temporal (2)
  5. sphenoid
    6 ethmoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

from the pterygopalatine fossa to the middle cranial fossa pass through the [2]

A
  1. forament rotundum

2. vidian canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

from the pterygopalatine fossa to the infratemporal fossa pass through the

A

pterygomaxillary fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

from the pterygopalatine fossa to the nasal cavity pass through the

A

sphenopalatine foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

from the pterygopalatine fossa to the orbit pass through the

A

inferior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
from the pterygopalatine fossa to the palate fossa pass through the
descending palatine canal
26
from the pterygopalatine fossa to the nasopharynx pass through the
pharyngeal canal
27
prevents hyperflexion of the cervical column
posterior longitudinal ligament
28
prevents hyper extension of the cervical column
anterior longitudinal ligament
29
bilateral fracture through the pedicles of C2
hangman's fracture
30
compression fracture of C1 anterior and/or posterior arch lateral masses split and transverse tears
jefferson fracture
31
tip of the spinous process C6-T1 shears off
clay shoveler's fracture
32
nerve supply to the sternomastoid
motor: accessory nerve proprioceptive: C2-C3
33
nerve point posterior to the sternocleidomastoid is made up off
1. lesser ocipital 2. tranverse cervical 3. suprascapular 4. greater auricular 5. supraclavicular
34
sensation to neck, lower jar, ear are supplied by
cervical plexus
35
sensation to posterior portion of scalp and neck supplied by
dorsal rami of cervical nerves
36
The __________ is a branch of the inferior alveolar nerve (of CN V3) which innervates mylohyoid and anterior belly of digastric.
nerve to mylohyoid
37
ansa cervicalis supplies the _____. which is the exception?
infrahyoid muscles Thyrohyoid is supplied by a C1 branch that travels with the hypoglossal nerve CN XII
38
infrahyoid muscles
- sternohyoid - omohyoid - sternohyoid - thyrohyoid
39
Muscles in the suboccipital region(rectus capitus posterior, obliquius capitus, splenius capitus), are supplied by the _________ of cervical spinal nerves, including the _____________
Muscles in the suboccipital region(rectus capitus posterior, obliquius capitus, splenius capitus), are supplied by the dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves, including the greater occipital nerve
40
what is the pyramidal lobe?
lower remnant of the thyroglossal duct
41
what artery supplies to the thyroid gland
thyroid ima artery
42
why does a cervical sinus or fistula cyst develops? where does this typically occurs?
when the 2nd – 4th pharyngeal clefts aren’t obliterated by the overgrowth of the 2nd pharyngeal arch. They typically occur anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
43
reflex arc
slows heart rate below adequate CO when carotid sinuses are stimulated
44
which nerve is found close to the thyroid?
recurrent laryngeal
45
what is cut when emergecny procedure is done during a choking situation
cricothyroid membrane
46
epidural hematoma most usually caused by a rupture of the
middle meningeal artery
47
subdural hermorrhage is due to rupture of the
cerebral veins (bridging veins)
48
subarachnoid hemorrhage is due to the rupture of the ____ what type of tx. is done?
cerebral arteries Tx.: ventriculoperitoneal shunt
49
berry aneurysm where does blood accumulate?
rupture of the circle of willis (most likely the anterior communicating artery) blood fills up the subarachnoid space
50
CSF leaking into the nasal cavity through the ________ what is this ocndition called?
through the cribiform plate condition called rhinorrhea
51
basal skull fracture
leads to fracture of the cribiform plate---> rhinorrhea
52
how does the CSF emptied into the superior sagittal sinus?
via arachnoid granulations
53
what CN pass through cavernous sinus
CN 3, 4, 6 and V1 and V2
54
blow out fracture affects which muscles? what happens to the eye?
affects inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles and lead the eye to be fixed in a depressed position
55
medial blowout fracture affects the
ethmoid bone
56
compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary tumor can cause loss of
peripheral vision first
57
which is the end artery that supplies the inner part of the retina and when occluded will result in total blindness in that eye
central artery
58
increased intracranial pressure leads to the swelling of the _______ what is this condition called?
swelling of the optic disk and this condition is called papilledema
59
how do you get a pure evelation of the eye? what about depression?
the superior rectus moves the eye up and in, the inferior oblique moves the eye up and out – the in and out motions cancel, producing a pure elevation depression requires action of both the inferior rectus and superior oblique
60
explain the blink reflex
In this case, the afferent (sensory) nerve is the nasociliary nerve of V1, and the efferent (motor) nerve is the facial nerve – CN VII The Blink Reflex may also be initiated by sound (CN VIII) or, bright light (CN II)
61
bell's palsy affects which nerve? is sensation also affected?
CN 7 nope
62
terminal br. of the opthalmic artery? where does the opthalmic artery originate from?
opthalamic artery orginates from internal carotid the supraorbital artery is the terminal br.
63
Horner's syndrome
sympathetic trunk or superior cervical ganglion has been damaged
64
symptoms are indicative of: - constricted pupil, - ptosis, - vasodilation - absence of sweating.
Horners syndrome
65
where does the sympathetic chain lies?
behind carotid sheath
66
what is this condition? 1) all extraocular muscles affected except superior oblique & lateral rectus 2) pupil dilation (loss of parasympathetics to constrictor pupillae ) 3) ptosis (loss of LPS)
left oculomotor nerve palsy
67
pupillary light reflex tests for
CN II and CN III (parasympathetic under CN III)
68
how does cleft lip results?
from failure of intermaxillary prominence (fusion of medial nasal processes) to fuse with maxillary swelling
69
primary palate formed by
intermaxillary segment of medial nasal processes
70
secondaru palate formed from
palatine shelves from maxillae grow inward to fuse in midline
71
bone formation in appendicualr and axial skeleton
endochondral ossification
72
flat bones of skull derived from condesation of mesenchymal tissue and originally from _____ what type of bone development?
originally from neural crest through intramembranous ossification
73
small mandible due to
abnormal development of first pharyngeal arch
74
Why does sensory and motor innervation come from different cranial nerves?
Organizing Principle
75
CN to Arch pairing: ``` Arch 1 Arch 2 Arch 3 Arch 4 Arch 6 ```
``` Arch 1--> CN V Arch 2--> CN VII Arch 3--> CN IX Arch 4--> CN X Arch 6--> CN X ```
76
why does a branchial cleft cyst arise?
failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft
77
first cleft forms the
external acoustic meatus
78
first pouch forms the
middle ear cavity
79
second pouch forms the
palatine tonsillar bed
80
third pouch forms the
inferior parathyroid and thymus
81
fourth pouch forms the
superior parathyroids
82
these are derivatives of what? - some CN - adrenal medulla - melanocytes - dorsal root and chain ganglia
neural crest
83
what are muscles of the tongue formed from?
occipital somites
84
Which joint is gynglymo-arthrodial-diarthrosis type of joint?
TMJ
85
what happens if the jaw is opened to why?
mandible may displace anteriorly to the articular eminences
86
which muscles when weakened will cause the mandible to deviate
lateral and medial pterygoid
87
blood supply to the infratemporal fossa comes from the
maxillary artery
88
which nerve supplies sensation to the TMJ and skin over the temporalis muscle and upper part of the ear
auricotemporal nerve
89
which sinus cannot drain into the nasal cavity alone by gravity?
maxillary
90
nasolacrimal duct drains into
inferior meatus
91
sphenoid sinus drains into
sphenoethmoidal recess
92
does the SCM receives innervation from CN XI before the nerve crosses the posterior triangle?
YASSSSSSS
93
Nerve point is made up off
1. tranverse cervical 2. lesser occipital 3. supraclavicular 4. Greater Auricular
94
Is there a C1 dermatome in the neck and head?
NOPEEEEE
95
deep petrosal nerves are post-ganglionic sympathethic fibers that had synapsed in the
superior cervical ganglion
96
which muscle closes the eye?
orbicularis oculi