Review Flashcards

1
Q

Normal range of beats per minute for adults?

A

60-100 per minute

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2
Q

What’s pulse deficit?

A

Difference between radial and apical pulse when taken at the same time

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3
Q

How is the radial pulse taken?

A

Taken on the wrist

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4
Q

How’s the apical pulse taken?

A

Taken with a stethoscope

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5
Q

What is dysnea?

A

Difficulty breathing

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6
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Difficulty breathing while laying supine

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7
Q

What is apnea?

A

Absence of breathing for periods of time

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8
Q

What’s the normal adult range for breaths per minute?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

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9
Q

True or False: CNA’s can adjust oxygen flow

A

FALSE! Not in scope of practice

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10
Q

True or False: CNA’s cannot turn the oxygen on/off or move tubing from concentrator to portable

A

FALSE! CNAs can turn the machine on or off, they cannot however adjust the flow rate

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11
Q

What is the normal range for oxygen levels for adults?

A

95%-100%

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12
Q

What is hypoxia

A

low oxygen level

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13
Q

What does blood pressure measure?

A

Measures the force of blood as it pushes against the walls of arteries

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14
Q

The top number; The pressure of the blood when the heart contracts and pumps blood into the arteries; the point where the greatest pressure is put on the arteries

A

Systolic pressure

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15
Q

The bottom number; The pressure of the blood between contractions of the heart, when the heart relaxes and the pressure on the arteries decreases

A

Diastolic pressure

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16
Q

What is orthostatic (postural hypotension)?

A

Low blood pressure occurring when standing from a sitting or lying position

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17
Q

Normal ranges for systolic and diastolic pressure?

A

Systolic: below 120
Diastolic: below 80

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18
Q

What are baseline vitals?

A

Body temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, and pain

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19
Q

Microorganisms that can cause disease?

A

Pathogens

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20
Q

An infection acquired in a healthcare facility?

A

Nosocomial—- aka healthcare-associated infections

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21
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Causative agent
Reservoir of agent
Portal of exit
route of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host

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22
Q

What are the routes of transmission?

A

Contact transmission
Droplet
Airborne
Vector-borne

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23
Q

Processes and procedures used to maintain a clean environment and prevent the spread of infection?

A

Medical asepsis

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24
Q

What is Standard Precaution?

A

Every patient is treated as if they are potentially infectious

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25
Q

What are 2 common causes of burns?

A

Smoking and hot liquids

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25
Q

RACE? (fire safety)

A

Remove patients
Activate alarm
Contain the fire
Extinguish the fire

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26
Q

PASS? (fire safety)

A

Pull the pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze handle
Sweep

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27
Q

What determines how much hospitals are paid for each hospital stay based on specific illnesses or procedures?

A

Diagnosis-related groups

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28
Q

What is an acute illness?

A

An illness that comes on quickly and last a short amount of time

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29
Q

What is a chronic illness?

A

An illness that develops slowly over time and lasts a long time

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30
Q

Subacute?

A

When patient is too sick to go home but not sick enough for the hospital

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31
Q

What is ambulation?

A

Walking

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32
Q

Supine

A

Flat back

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33
Q

Lateral

A

Laying on side

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34
Q

Sims’

A

Partly laying on side and partly prone

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35
Q

Prone

A

Flat on stomach

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36
Q

Trendelenburg

A

Diagonal with head down, feet up

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37
Q

Reverse Trendelenburg

A

Head up, feet down

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38
Q

Fowler’s and Semi-Fowler’s

A

Sitting up

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39
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs? (Top to bottom)

A

Self-actualization
Self-esteem
Belongingness and love
Safety needs
Physiological needs

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40
Q

What is objective data?

A

It is what you observe. Info gathered using senses

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41
Q

What is subjective data?

A

It is when the patient explains what they are experiencing

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42
Q

OBRA

A

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

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43
Q

HIPPA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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44
Q

What does geriatrics refer to?

A

It refers to the problem, disease, and care for the elderly

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45
Q

What does a decrease in estrogen lead to?

A

Osteoporosis

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46
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Muscle wasting; “if you don’t use it, you lose it!”

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47
Q

What is the first symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Short-term memory

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48
Q

What does CVA stand for?

A

Cerebrovascular accident aka stroke

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49
Q

What does CHF stand for?

A

Congestive heart failure

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50
Q

What is the most common type of dementia for elderly?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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51
Q

What does AMA stand for?

A

Against medical advice

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52
Q

Failure to provide reasonably expected nursing assistant care, which causes harm to a patient is known as….

A

Negligence

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53
Q

True or False: CNAs can’t be found guilty of malpractice.

A

TRUE!

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54
Q

An individual who acts as a neutral mediator to advocate, investigate, and resolve complaints is known as…..

A

Ombudsman

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55
Q

What is an incident?

A

Unusual events such as accidents

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56
Q

BQA

A

Bureau of Quality Assurance

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57
Q

Bed sores are also known as…..

A

Decubitus ulcer

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58
Q

What are some causes of bed sores?

A

Pressure, moisture, friction, and shearing

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59
Q

What is the most common location for decubitus ulcers?

A

Tail bone

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60
Q

What blocks pain reception in the brain and also loss feeling in the entire body?

A

General anesthesia

61
Q

What blocks the reception of pain only in the area to be operated on?

A

Local anesthesia

62
Q

What is emesis?

A

Vomiting

63
Q

What does NPO stand for?

A

Nothing by mouth

64
Q

What does c/o mean?

A

Complain

65
Q

What does q2h stand for?

A

Every 2 hours

66
Q

What are the 4 types of baths?

A

Complete bed bath
Partial
Tub bath
Shower

67
Q

What does AMA stand for?

A

Against medical advice

68
Q

Who performs terminal cleanings?

A

Housekeeping

69
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

70
Q

What is the process called when a healthy body works to maintain internal stability?

A

Homeostasis

71
Q

What is an abnormal change in organ or organ system that produces symptoms called?

A

Disease

72
Q

What does HIV stand for?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus

73
Q

What does AIDS stand for?

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

74
Q

Which body system exchanges O2 into blood and CO2 out of the body?

A

Respiratory system

75
Q

What are the 7 warning signs of cancer? (CAUTION)

A

Change
A sore
Unusual bleeding
Thickening
Indigestion
Obvious
Nagging

76
Q

What is COPD?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

77
Q

What does HOB stand for?

A

Head of bed

78
Q

Transport nutrient in the body and get rid of waste is the function of which system?

A

Circulatory system

79
Q

What does CHF stand for?

A

Congestive heart failure

80
Q

What does SOB stand for?

A

Shortness of breath

81
Q

What does PVD stand for?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

82
Q

Chronic narrowing, blockage or spasms in blood vessels, causing signs and symptoms of pain, numbness, and discoloration is known as……

A

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

83
Q

What does s/s stand for?

A

Signs and symptoms

84
Q

What is I & O?

A

Intake and outtake of fluids only

85
Q

NAS stands for?

A

No added salt

86
Q

What is included in the gastrointestinal system?

A

Mouth and esophagus
Digestive and GI systems

87
Q

What is included in the circulatory system?

A

Heart and blood vessels
Cardiovascular system

88
Q

What is included in the respiratory system?

A

Nose and mouth

89
Q

What does the prefix trachy- mean?

A

Fast

90
Q

What does the prefix brady- mean?

A

Slow

91
Q

Digestion and transportation of nutrients and fluids is the function of which system?

A

Gastrointestinal system

92
Q

What is emesis?

A

Vomiting

93
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Difficulty swallowing

94
Q

What is the function of the urinary system?

A

Excrete waste, help maintain fluid balance and blood pressure

95
Q

What are the 2 types of dialysis?

A

Peritoneal and heme

96
Q

What is the function of the endocrine system?

A

Secrete and excrete hormones and other chemicals

97
Q

A disease which pancreas doesn’t secrete enough insulin, resulting in high amounts of glucose in the blood is called….

A

Diabetes mellitus

98
Q

What are the 2 types of diabetes?

A

Type 1 and type 2

99
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A

Occurs during childhood

100
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

Occurs during adulthood

101
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

Low blood sugar

102
Q

What is the normal blood level for adults?

A

60-120

103
Q

What is hyperglycemia?

A

Too much glucose in blood

104
Q

True or False: CNAs can take blood sugar levels.

A

TRUE

105
Q

What does NCS stand for?

A

No concentrted sweets

106
Q

The integumentary system includes…..

A

The skin

107
Q

The musculoskeletal system includes…..

A

Muscle and bones

108
Q

What is the function of the musculoskeletal system?

A

Movement of the body

109
Q

Muscle wasting is called….

A

Atrophy

110
Q

Permanant shortening of muscles due to inactivity is called…

A

Contractures

111
Q

Inflammation of a joint is called…

A

Arthritis

112
Q

Osteoporosis is….

A

The loss of bone density

113
Q

What does PWB stand for?

A

Partial weight bearing

114
Q

What does NWB stand for?

A

No weight bearing

115
Q

What does FWB stand for?

A

Full weight bearing

116
Q

What is the function of the nervous system?

A

Controls and coordinates all body functions

117
Q

The urinary system includes…

A

right & left kidneys, right & left ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

118
Q

CPR

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

119
Q

What does CAB stand for? (hint CPR)

A

Compression
Airway
Breathing

120
Q

True or False: You can choke on liquid.

A

FALSE

121
Q

What are the 2 general types of seizures?

A

Grand mal and petite mal

122
Q

CVA is also known as….

A

Stroke

123
Q

Occurs when organs or tissues don’t receive adequate blood supply is called

A

Shock

124
Q

A fluid inserted into the rectum and lower colon through a tube to create the urge to defecate is called a(n)

A

Enema

125
Q

What are the 3 types of diets?

A

General diet
Therapeutic diet
Liquid diet

126
Q

Changes in diet based on the condition of the client is what type of diet?

A

Therapeutic

127
Q

What are the 2 types of liquid diets?

A

Clear
Full

128
Q

Clear liquid is when you _____ see thru it

A

CAN
examples: juice, jello, broth, and tea

129
Q

Full liquid is when you _____ see thru it

A

CAN’T
examples: pudding, milk, and yogurt

130
Q

A G tube is known as a

A

Gastrostomy tube

131
Q

A NG tube is known as a

A

Nasogastric tube

132
Q

What does TPN stand for?

A

Total parenteral nutrition

133
Q

Difficulty swallowing is called

A

Dysphasia

134
Q

Return and maintain is called

A

Restorative

135
Q

Regain the highest possible state of function is called

A

Rehabilitation

136
Q

q2h stands for?

A

Every 2 hours

137
Q

T.I.D stands for

A

3 times a day

138
Q

Large bowel, formed stool –>

A

Colostomy

139
Q

Small bowel, liquid stool –>

A

Ileostomy

140
Q

A tube inserted through the urethra and into the bladder so urine can drain is called

A

Urinary Catheter

141
Q

Most common form of dementia is

A

Alzheimer’s disease

142
Q

What does CAUTION stand for? (s/s for cancer)

A

Change in bowel of bladder habits
A sore that doesn’t heal
Unusual bleeding or discharge; severe anemia
Thickening or lumps
Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
Obvious changes
Nagging cough or hoarseness

143
Q

COPD stands for

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

144
Q

What does FAST stand for? (s/s for stoke)

A

Face droop
Arm weakness
Speech slurred, dysphagia
T-Note time

145
Q

What are the 5 types of defense mechanisms?

A

Repression
Suppression
Projection
Displacement
Compensation

146
Q

What are the 3 types of specimen collection?

A

Urine
Stool
Sputum

147
Q

Heat treatments _______ the blood vessels.

A

Dilates

148
Q

Cold treatments ______ the blood vessels.

A

Constricts

149
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A

Acceptance
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
(not in order)

150
Q

What are the 9 body systems?

A

Respiratory
Circulatory
Gastrointestinal
Urinary
Endocrine
Reproductive
Integumentary
Musculoskeletal
Nervous

151
Q

3 types of paralysis

A

Hemiplegia
Paraplegia
Quadriplegia