Reticular formation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Reticular Formation?

A

An ill-defined diffuse network of neurons signaling via the medulla, pons, and midbrain.

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2
Q

What types of neurons surround the Reticular Formation?

A

Motor, sensory, and visceral (autonomic) neurons.

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3
Q

What are the characteristics of dendrites in the Reticular Formation?

A

Long, straight, dorsal-ventral.

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4
Q

What is the structure of axons in the Reticular Formation?

A

Very long, bifurcated into descending and ascending, with numerous collateral branches.

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5
Q

What is the function of the Locus coeruleus?

A

Contains norepinephrine-secreting neurons.

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6
Q

What are the three subdivisions of catecholamines?

A
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
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7
Q

What is the precursor for catecholamines?

A

Tyrosine.

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8
Q

What are the functions of the Reticular Formation?

A
  • Alertness
  • Sleep process
  • Inhibit pain
  • Regulate muscle tone and movement
  • Regulate vital signs against heart and lung
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9
Q

What are the three functional zones of the Reticular Formation?

A
  • Lateral zone
  • Median (raphe) zone
  • Medial zone
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10
Q

What is the role of the Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)?

A

Essential for regulating arousal, consciousness, and attention.

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11
Q

How does the Parvocellular nucleus contribute to ARAS?

A

Processes signals from various sources and releases glutamate.

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12
Q

What neurotransmitter does the Pedunculopontine nucleus release?

A

Acetylcholine (Ach)., glutamate, GABA

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13
Q

What is the first step in the ARAS process?

A

Sensory input from the lateral zone.

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14
Q

What happens in Step 2 of ARAS?

A

Connection to the medial zone (arousal center).

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15
Q

What does the medial zone activate in ARAS?

A

The thalamus.

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16
Q

What is the final step of ARAS that leads to behavioral arousal?

A

Cortical response and activation of cortical neurons.

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17
Q
A
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18
Q

What are the four pathways involved in maintaining alertness?

A
  • Noradrenergic pathway (Locus coeruleus)
  • Serotonergic pathway (Raphe nucleus)
  • Histaminergic pathway (Hypothalamus)
  • Orexin pathway (Hypothalamus)
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19
Q

What is the role of the noradrenergic pathway?

A

Sends signals to locus coeruleus to release norepinephrine, maintaining alertness.

20
Q

What is the function of the serotonergic pathway?

A

Parvocellular neurons send signals to the median zone (raphe nucleus), which releases serotonin to promote alertness.

21
Q

What does the histaminergic pathway do?

A

Releases histamine from the tuberomammillary nucleus to promote alertness.

22
Q

What is the role of the orexin pathway?

A

Involved in wakefulness and preventing sudden sleep.

23
Q

What tools are used to assess consciousness?

A
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  • Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
24
Q

What does a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 8 or below indicate?

A

Severe impairment of consciousness.

25
Q

How does sleep differ from coma?

A

Sleep is a state of unconsciousness that can be aroused by stimuli; coma is unconsciousness that cannot be aroused.

26
Q

What are the stages of sleep?

A
  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III
  • REM sleep (paradoxical sleep)
27
Q

What happens to deep sleep as the night progresses?

A

Less deep sleep is recurred as the night goes on.

28
Q

What is the nature of sleep?

A

It is a cyclical phenomenon with initial awake periods, non-rapid eye movement sleep, and rapid eye movement sleep.

29
Q

Fill in the blank: The medial preoptic area and the _______ nucleus are involved in regulating the sleep cycle.

A

[suprachiasmatic]

30
Q

What is the duration of a typical sleep cycle?

A

90-100 minutes for non-REM and 10-15 minutes for REM sleep.

31
Q

True or False: Sleep is considered a passive phenomenon.

32
Q

What are the characteristics of deep sleep?

A

Associated with slow wave activity and is restorative.

34
Q

What system inhibits pain transmission?

A

Descending Pain Control System

This system is involved in modulating pain signals before they reach the brain.

35
Q

What areas of the brain are involved in regulating muscle tone and movement?

A

Area 3,1,2

These areas are part of the somatosensory cortex involved in processing sensory information related to muscle control.

36
Q

What are the two types of reticulospinal tracts?

A
  • Medial reticulospinal tract (MRT)
  • Lateral reticulospinal tract (LRT)

These tracts originate from the reticular formation and influence motor control.

37
Q

Where does the medial reticulospinal tract (MRT) originate?

A

Pons RF (ipsilateral)

MRT primarily influences extensor muscles.

38
Q

What is the function of the lateral reticulospinal tract (LRT)?

A

Modulates flexor muscles

LRT also originates from the reticular formation and affects anterior horn cells in the spinal cord.

39
Q

Which part of the brain participates in lateral gaze?

A

Paramedian pontine reticular formation (DPRF)

DPRF is crucial for coordinating eye movements.

40
Q

What is the role of the medullary reticular formation?

A

Regulation of vital visceral responses

It plays a key role in cardiovascular and respiratory centers.

41
Q

What centers are regulated by the medulla and pons reticular formation?

A
  • Cardiovascular center
  • Respiratory center

These centers are essential for maintaining homeostasis in vital functions.

42
Q

What is the connection between the reticular formation and lower motor neurons?

A

Hippothalamus & Brainstem

The reticular formation interacts with these areas to influence motor control.

43
Q

What nucleus is involved in controlling medial eye movements?

A

Oculomotor nucleus

This nucleus works with the paramedian pontine reticular formation.

44
Q

Fill in the blank: The medial reticulospinal tract primarily affects _______.

45
Q

True or False: The lateral reticulospinal tract primarily affects extensor muscles.

A

False

The lateral reticulospinal tract primarily modulates flexor muscles.