Restriction Endonucleases and Recombinant DNA Technology. Flashcards

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1
Q

Define a bacteriophage?

A

Viruses that affect bacteria.

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2
Q

Define a clone?

A

A group of cells that contain the exact same recombinant DNA sequence.

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3
Q

Define a cloning vector?

A

A DNA molecule that is capable of replicating inside a host cell.

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4
Q

Define competent cells?

A

Cells that are capable of having DNA added to their genome.

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5
Q

Define contigs?

A

DNA strands that have been cleaved to produce overlapping sequences.

I.e. they have not been cleaved at all of their restriction sites.

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6
Q

Define COS sites?

A

These are cohesion sites and they are another name for sticky ends.

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7
Q

Define an endonuclease?

A

Enzymes that cut phosphodiester bonds in the middle of a DNA molecule.

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8
Q

Define an exonuclease?

A

Enzymes that cut phosphodiester bonds at the ends of a DNA molecule.

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9
Q

Define a nuclease?

A

An enzyme that cleaves phosphodiester bonds in a nucleotide chain.

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10
Q

Define an oligonucleotide?

A

A polynucleotide whose molecules contain a small number of molecules.

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11
Q

Define phage 𝞬?

A

A particular bacteriophage.

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12
Q

Define phage induction?

A

The process that bacteriophages use to integrate their genome into a bacterial cells genome.

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13
Q

Define DNA recombinant technology?

A

When DNA sequences from many sources are bought together synthetically to create a new sequence of DNA that is not found naturally.

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14
Q

What molecules does DNA recombinant technology heavily rely on?

A

The use of recombinant DNA molecules.

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15
Q

Define restriction endonuclease’s?

A

Enzymes that recognise specific base pair sequences and cleave the DNA at that sequence.

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16
Q

Define a restriction site?

A

The site on DNA where endonuclease enzymes cleave the 2 strands.

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17
Q

What sequences of DNA usually make up restriction sites?

A

Short palindromic sequences.

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18
Q

Define the process of screening?

A

The process of searching for a specific DNA sequence in a DNA library.

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19
Q

Define a DNA vector?

A

A piece of DNA that is capable of independent growth.

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20
Q

DNA vectors are often what kinds of DNA?

A

Bacterial plasmids or viral phages.

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21
Q

Cloning the ability to manipulate what?

A

DNA that is then capable of reproducing itself.

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22
Q

How are bacterial plasmids used for recombinant processes?

A

By inserting plasmids into bacteria, this gets the genetic information in the plasmids translated into proteins.

E.g. insulin manufacture.

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23
Q

A plasmids self replicating?

A

Yes, they will divide every time binary fission occurs.

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24
Q

Can plasmids be intergrated into a bacterial genome?

A

Yes.

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25
Q

How do bacteriophages infect bacteria cells?

A

By injecting their viral genome into the cell.

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26
Q

How does the bacterial cell make viral proteins?

A

Viral DNA codes for the host cell machinery to make viral proteins that can be assembled into more viruses.

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27
Q

What shape is the DNA that is injected into bacteria by bacteriophages?

A

It is linear and contains a 5 prime and a 3 prime overhang at each end.

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28
Q

What are the 2 overhangs on a linear strand of viral DNA used for after it has been injected into a bacterial cell?

A

They are complimentary and form bonds to form a piece of DNA that is circular in shape.

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29
Q

How does the circular viral DNA incorporate itself into the viral genome?

A

It bimnds one of its own sequences of DNA to a complimentary sequence on the bacterial DNA.

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30
Q

What is the complimentary sequence between the viral DNA and the bacterial DNA known as?

A

The ATT site.

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31
Q

What happens once the ATT site on viral DNA has bound to the bacterial DNA?

A

The ATT site opens up and allows the viral DNA to become integrated to the bacterial genome.

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32
Q

What did scientists use to study bacteriophage’s?

A

They took an E.coli cell and infected it with a lambda phage.

The lambda phage replicated and eventually lysed the cell, releasing a load of baby viruses.

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33
Q

What happened when scientists were studying bacteriophage’s after the lambda phage had lysed the bacterial cell?

A

The baby viruses were used to infect K-12 cells.

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34
Q

What were the baby viruses called after the lambda phage had lysed the bacterial cell when scientists were studying bacteriophage’s?

A

Lambda-C viruses.

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35
Q

What happened during the study of bacteriophage’s after the lamda-C viruses had been used to infect K-12 cells?

A

The viral process only occurred in very rare cases, meaning that the K-12 cells were mainly unharmed.

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36
Q

Why did the viral process not occur in the K-12 cells during the study of bacteriophage’s?

A

The K-12 cells could recognise and destroy foreign DNA.

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37
Q

How could the K-12 cells recognise foreign DNA during the study of bacteriophage’s?

A

Their DNA is methylated, allowing them to differentiate between their own DNA and foreign unmethylated DNA.

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38
Q

How did lambda-C viruses infect some of the K-12 cells during the study of bacteriophage’s?

A

They modified their own DNA by methylating it.

This meant that the K-12 cell could no longer tell the difference between its own DNA and the phage DNA.

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39
Q

What enzymes do K-12 bacteria contain that helps them to distinguish between their own DNA and foreign DNA?

A

Endonuclease’s and methylase’s.

A methylase will methylate restriction sites.

The endonuclease will recognise these restriction sites and will cleave them if they are not methylated.

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40
Q

When does the methyl-transferase in a K-12 bacterial cell methylate bacteria?

A

After a restriction enzyme called ECO-R1 has cleaved the bacterial DNA at a specific site.

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41
Q

What are the sites in K-12 bacterial DNA that are cleaved by the restriction enzyme ECO-R1 so they can be methylated?

A

Palindromic sequences.

These sequences read the same on each strand.

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42
Q

What kind of methylase will methylate the palindromic sequences on K-12 bacteria?

A

An ECO-R1 methylase.

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43
Q

What is the enzyme that will re-attach the 2 bacterial strands after methylation has occurred in K-12 bacteria?

A

ECO-R1.

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44
Q

Why will palindromic sequences re-attach easily?

A

Because they form sticky ends.

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45
Q

How does the endonuclease in a K-12 bacterial cell protect the bacteria cell against viral invasion?

A

It scans the DNA within the genome and cleaves any un-methylated sequences.

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46
Q

What kind of viral DNA will not be recognised by the endonuclease in the K-12 bacterial cell?

A

When a virus modifies its own DNA to give the same methylation pattern that is on the host DNA.

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47
Q

The process that bacteria use to protect their DNA through methylation is known as what?

A

As bacterial restriction and modification.

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48
Q

Which scientists discovered bacterial restriction and modification?

A

Meselson and Yuan.

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49
Q

How did Meselson and Yuan discover bacterial restriction and modification?

A

They purified a bacterial enzyme that cleaved lambda-C phage DNA into reproducible pieces.

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50
Q

What did Meselson and Yuan name the bacterial enzyme that cleaved lambda-C phage DNA into reproducible pieces

A

A restriction endonuclease.

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51
Q

How does a restriction endonculease in bacteria recongnise bacterial DNA?

A

Via methylation, which bacteria do in a species specific manner.

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52
Q

How do the daughter strands of bacterial DNA become methylated after cell division?

A

After division, the parent strand remains methylated and the daughter strand will quickly become methylated.

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53
Q

What kind of molecules are restriction endonuclease enzyme?

A

Dimers.

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54
Q

What are restriction endonuclease enzymes often used as tools for?

A

For cloning and other recombinant techniques.

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55
Q

What are the 3 major types of restriction endonuclease?

A

Type 1.

Type 2.

Type 3.

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56
Q

How common are type-1 endonculease’s?

A

Less common than the type 2 endonuclease and more common than the type 3.

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57
Q

How do type-1 endonculease’s cut DNA strands?

A

They cut both DNA strands at a random location which is far from the recognition site.

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58
Q

Are type-1 endonculease’s often used in recombinant technology?

A

No.

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59
Q

What are the most common types of endonculease?

A

Type-2.

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60
Q

What are the most frequently used endonuclease’s in recombinant technology?

A

Type-2.

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61
Q

How do type-2 endonculease’s cut DNA strands?

A

They cut both DNA strands at specific locations which are usually palindromic and around 4-8 base pairs long.

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62
Q

Will type-2 endonculease’s create sticky ends when they cut the DNA strands?

A

Yes.

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63
Q

What are the rarest types of endonculease?

A

Type-3.

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64
Q

Are type-3 endonculease’s often used in recombinant technology?

A

No.

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65
Q

How do type-3 endonculease’s cut DNA strands?

A

They cut a single DNA strand that is around 25 base pairs downstream of the recognition site.

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66
Q

Why are type-1 and type-3 endonuclease’s rarely used in recombinant technology?

A

As they are said to be promiscuous, meaning that they cause random cleavage patterns.

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67
Q

Which endonulcease’s are said to be the basic tools of cloning?

A

The type 2’, as they will only cleave at specific sites.

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68
Q

How is a restriction endonuclease named?

A

The first 3 letters are named after the organism that they were found in.

The 4th letter represents the strain of endonuclease.

The letters are followed by a number to indicate the order of discovery of endonuclease’s in that organism.

E.g. ECO-R1 was found in E.coli and it was the first restriction endonuclease to be found in E.coli.

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69
Q

What do the recognition sites for type-2 endonculease’s tend to be?

A

Around 6 base pairs and they are palindromic.

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70
Q

How will a palindromic sequence read on each strand?

A

They will read exactly the same in the 5 to 3 direction on both strands.

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71
Q

What was does an endonuclease read a DNA strand?

A

In the 5 to 3 direction.

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72
Q

What is the most common feature on a DNA strand that has been spliced by a type 2 endonuclease?

A

To create sticky ends, where there is an overhang on each strand.

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73
Q

Why do type II endonuclease’s often create sticky ends on each strand?

A

Because the overhangs are complimentary menaing that the 2 strands will get back together easily.

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74
Q

Describe what happens when blunt ends are formed by a restrioction endonuclease?

A

Blunt ends are created when neither strand has an overhang and these strands are very difficult to re-join.

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75
Q

How do researchers predict the probability of getting the right nucleotides for a recognition sequence that reads 5-CCGG-3?

A

The probability would be 1/4 that the 1st nucleotide is a C.

This multiplied by 1/4 that the 2nd nucleotide is a C.

This is multiplied by 1/4 that the 3rd nucleotide is a G.

This is multiplied by 1/4 that the 4th nucleotide is a G.

Probability of a 5-CCGG-3 match occurring is 1/4 * 1/4 * 1/4 * 1/4 = 1/256.

This means that a recognition site of 4 base pairs is likely to occur every 256 base pairs.

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76
Q

How does the amount of base pairs in a recognition site affect the number of nucleotides in between each site?

A

The more nucleotides in the recognition site means more base pairs between each site.

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77
Q

Which enzyme joins the nucleotides together after they have been cut by a restriction endonculease?

A

DNA ligase catalyses the formation of a phosphodiester bond so that nucleotides can be joined together.

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78
Q

How does DNA ligase form a phosphodiester bond between the 2 nucleotides?

A

By joining the 5-prime phosphate on one nucleotide with a 3-prime hydroxyl group on another.

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79
Q

What kind of ends will DNA ligase find easier to bind together?

A

DNA that has sticky ends or large overhangs rather than with DNA strands that have blunt ends.

80
Q

Is DNA able to splice together DNA from different organisms?

A

Yes.

As long as both strands have sticky ends.

81
Q

Why are DNA strand with blunt ends difficult for DNA ligase to join back together?

A

As there are no complimentary overhangs.

82
Q

What enzymes will scientists add to a blunt ends to makle them more likely to join together?

A

2 enzymes called dTTP and terminal de-oxynucleotidyl transferase are added to blunt end.

2 enzymes called dATP and de-oxynucleotidyl transferase are added to the other blunt end.

83
Q

How do the 4 enzymes that are added to blunt ends make them more likely to join back together?

A

The dTTP enzyme adds thymine residues to the the 5 prime end of its strand.

The dATP enzyme adds adenine residues to the the 5 prime end of its strand.

These A’s and T’s are complimentary to each other and can be joined together by a DNA ligase.

84
Q

How is a foreign piece of DNA inserted into a restriction site?

A

DNA ligase can add any piece of DNA to a restriction site as long as their sticky ends match up.

85
Q

What are the basic steps of inserting aforeign piece of DNA into a restriction site?

A

Open the restriction site using a restriciton endoculease.

Remove the foreign DNA using the same endonculease.

Use DNA ligase to insert the foreign DNA by matching the sticky ends.

86
Q

How must the foreign DNA be instered into the bacterial DNA?

A

In the correct orientation so that the DNA can be read in the correct direction.

87
Q

What item will help to make sure that the correct orientation is achieved?

A

Restriction maps.

88
Q

What does restriction mapping help scientists to do?

A

To create maps of cleavage sites within a DNA molecule.

89
Q

What is a restriction map a description of?

A

All the locations on a gene that restriction enzymes can bind to.

90
Q

What will restriction endonuclease’s do when they come into contact with a DNA molecule?

A

They will cut the DNA molecule into different segments which are made up of different amounts of base pairs.

91
Q

Why will scientists often add 2 different restriction enzymes to a DNA strand?

A

To divide it into different segments that are made up of different amounts of base pairs.

92
Q

How are the base pairs that are cleaved by restriction endonuclease’s sorted into an order of size?

A

Via gel electrophoresis.

93
Q

How do scientists figure out which fragments of a DNA strand were cut by a 2nd enzyme in a DNA strand of 200 BP if enzyme 1 cuts 2 segments of 20 and 60 base pairs?

A

Total DNA strand = 200 base pairs.

Enzyme 1 = 2 segments of 20 and 60 base pairs.

200-80 = 120.

Therefore the segements cut by enzyme 2 will add up to 120.

94
Q

What is step 1 of molecular cloning?

A

The desired DNA fragments are created by digesting DNA with restriction endonucleases.

95
Q

What is step 2 of molecular cloning after the desired DNA fragmnets have been created?

A

The cloning vector that the desired DNA will be placed in is digested with the same restriction endonuclease’s.

96
Q

What is step 3 of molecular cloning after the cloning vector has been created?

A

The desired DNA fragment is ligated into the vector.

97
Q

What is step 4 of molecular cloning after the desired DNA fragment is ligated into the vector?

A

The vector and DNA fragment complex are inserted into the host cell.

98
Q

What is step 5 of molecular cloning after recombinant DNA molecule has been inserted into a host cell?

A

The recombinant DNA will replicate itself and this produces many copies (clones) in daughter cells.

99
Q

What is step 6 of molecular cloning after the recombinant DNA has been cloned into daughter cells?

A

The recombinant DNA can be recovered from the colony of cells and it can then be analysed.

100
Q

What are the 4 important features that each cloning vector must have?

A

Self replication.

A multiple cloning site.

Selectable markers.

Recovery of recombinant DNA.

101
Q

How must cloning vectors be able to self repicate?

A

Before and after the insertion of foreign DNA.

102
Q

What is the multiple cloning site that must be in a cloning vector?

A

It consists of a number of unique restriction sites that are located in the same area and nowhere else in the cell.

103
Q

What are the selectable markers that must be in a cloning vector?

A

It will encode for a protein that will be selected for by the cell.

104
Q

What is a good example of a selectable marker in a cloning vector?

A

A protein that codes for antibiotic resistance to a certain drug.

If the cell is grown in the presence of this drug then it has got to select the coning vector or it will die.

105
Q

What organisms are plasmids usually used as cloning vectors for?

A

For bacteria.

106
Q

What is the most common cloning vector?

A

Plasmids.

107
Q

What is the major limitation of using a plasmid as a cloning vector?

A

They can only fit a limited amount of DNA inside them.

108
Q

What are 2 features that plasmids must have if they are able to be used as a cloning vector?

A

Thye must contain an ORI and be able to replicate autonomously.

109
Q

What is the function of a reporter gene in a recombinant plasmid?

A

It will signal whether a cell has taken up the plasmid.

110
Q

How can we use an antibiotic to determine whether a bacterial cell has taken up a plasmid?

A

A plasmid contains antibiotic resistance and the bacterial cell is grown on a solution that contains the antibiotic.

If the cell has taken up the plasmid then it will be able to grow on the media.

111
Q

What is a common gene that is used as a reporter gene in a recombinant plasmid?

A

The LAC-Z gene which helps bacteria to metabolise lactose.

112
Q

Where will the restriction site be located if the LAC-Z gene is the reporter gene?

A

In the middle of the LAC-Z gene.

113
Q

Why is the restriction site located in the middle of the LAC-Z gene if the LAC-Z gene is acting as a reporter gene?

A

The foreign DNA will bind to the restriction site and de-activate the LAC-Z gene.

114
Q

How does the de-activation of the LAC-Z gene by the foreign DNA allow the LAC-Z gene to act as a reporter gene?

A

A plasmid that contains the gene of interest will not have a functional LAC-operon.

This means that the bacteria that take up the foreign DNA will form white colonies instead of blue colonies.

115
Q

What kind of nutrient is used in the growth media if the LAC-Z gene is being used as a reporter gene?

A

X-GAL which contains a type of galactose that turns blue when cleaved.

This means that the bacteria with a functional LAC-Z gene will turn blue. Those that

116
Q

Why will some plasmids not take up the foreign DNA after being cleaved with an endonuclease?

A

Because the restriction sites in the LAC-Z gene have sticky ends.

These ends can get back together before the foreign DNA is able to insert itself in the plasmid.

117
Q

What are competent bacterial cells?

A

Altered bacterial cells that allow recombinant DNA to pass through the plasma membrane.

118
Q

How are the cell walls of E.coli altered when tyring to make the cells competent?

A

Through the use of a salt such as calcium chloride or rubidium chloride.

This causes the cell wall to become more permeable.

119
Q

When is the foreign DNA introduced to an E.coli cell that is becoming a comptent cell?

A

Once the plasmid has been mixed with the salt.

120
Q

What step occurs after introducing foreign DNA to a recently salted ecoli cell that is becoming competent?

A

To perform heat shock, where the cell and foreign DNA are heated to around 40 degrees.

121
Q

How does heat shock induce competency in an E.coli cell?

A

It allows the membrane to expand and the DNA can enter the cell.

The bacterial cells can then be spread on to nutrient agar and form a colony on the plate.

122
Q

What are 2 other common forms of cloning vectors that can be used instead of plasmids?

A

Bacteriophage 𝛌.

Artificial chromosomes.

123
Q

What is a mjor advantage of using bacteriophage 𝛌 as a vector instead of using a plasmid?

A

Bacteriophage 𝛌 can hold much larger piece’s of recombinant DNA than a plasmid.

124
Q

What is commonly prepared through the use of bacteriophage 𝛌 as a cloning vector?

A

The preparation of genomic and cDNA libraries.

125
Q

Why can bacteriophage 𝛌 hold a large recombinant gene?

A

Around 20 KB are removed the phage’s dispensable region which creates space for the new DNA.

126
Q

What is the dispensable region of a bacteriophage

A

A region of phage DNA that is not involved in the lytic cycle.

127
Q

Cloning vectors that are inserted into the dispensable region of a phage are grown where?

A

These vectors can only be grown in the lab.

128
Q

What will happen once the recombinant DNA has been inserted into bacteriphage 𝛌?

A

The bacteriophage injects the DNA into a bacterial cell and the bacterial cell will make the desired product.

129
Q

What is the first step of using bacteriophage 𝛌 as a vector?

A

To remove the dispensable region and to form recombinant sequences from the DNA of interest.

130
Q

How must the dispnesable region of a bacteriophage and the DNA containing the gene of interest be broken up?

A

The same restriction endonuclease must be used for both processes.

131
Q

Which recombinant sequence is placed into bacteriophage 𝛌?

A

The recombinant sequence that contains the gene of interest.

132
Q

How will a bacteriophage that contains recombinant DNA infect bacterial cells on an agar plate?

A

Via transduction.

133
Q

What happens to the bacterial cells once they have been infected by a phage containing recombinant DNA?

A

The virus will replicate and eventually lyse the bacterial cell.

134
Q

How can a colony that has been infected by a bacteriophage be visibly identified on an agar plate?

A

Infected colonies form clear plaques on an agar plate as there are no more cells growing there due to lysis.

135
Q

What is found on the plaques created by bacteriophage 𝛌 in a cell culture?

A

Many baby viruses that contain the DNA of interest.

This means the amounts of the gene of interest has been amplified by viral replication inside the bacterial cell.

136
Q

Why are artificial chromosomes used as cloning vectors?

A

As they can store extremely large sequences of DNA.

137
Q

What purposes are artificial chromosomes used as cloning vectors for?

A

For mapping and analysing eukaryotic genomes such as in the human genome project.

For investigating genes that are located next to each other.

138
Q

Where do the artificial chromosomes that are used as cloning vectors usually come from?

A

From yeast (YAC, yeast artificial chromosome).

From bacteria (BAC, bacterial artificial chromosome).

139
Q

How much genetic data can artificial chromosomes hold?

A

Over 300 KB of inserted DNA.

140
Q

What are BACs made from?

A

A bacterial plasmid.

141
Q

What 2 features are always included on a BAC?

A

Recombinant DNA.

A fertility factor (F factor) which allows for lateral gene transfer.

142
Q

What advantage does the F factor give to bacteria who have the plamsid?

A

The F factor allows bacteria to share the plasmid with other bacteria who do not have the plasmid.

143
Q

How much foreign DNA can BACs hold?

A

Around 350 KB.

144
Q

What shapes are YACs before they are digested by a restriction endonuclease?

A

Circular.

145
Q

What shapes are YACs after they are digested by a restriction endonuclease?

A

Linear.

146
Q

What is the name of the ORI in a YAC?

A

ARS (autonomously replicating sequence).

147
Q

What 4 features do YACs contain?

A

An ARS (autonomously replicating sequence).

A centromere.

Telomeres.

Selectable markers located on each arm.

148
Q

What are the selectable markers that are usually found on YACs?

A

URA-3 which encodes for the biosynthesis of uracil.

TRP-1 which encodes for the biosynthesis of tryptophan.

149
Q

Where is the gene of interest inserted into a YAC?

A

On each side of the selectable markers.

150
Q

How are reporter genes used in YACs?

A

The gene of interest is inserted into yeast cells that cannot form tryptophan or uracil.

The yeast cells are grown on a selective medium that does not contain tryptophan or uracil.

This means that only the cells that have taken up the YAC will be able to survive on this medium.

151
Q

The choice of a cloning vector usually comes down to what?

A

How much DNA the scientist is looking to add to the vector.

152
Q

The storage of DNA in vectors allows for what to be created?

A

DNA libraries.

153
Q

How can an organisms entire genome be stored in a DNA library?

A

A collection of vectors can contain all of an organisms DNA.

154
Q

How are cloning vectors stored in a DNA library?

A

In freezers and then the DNA of interest can be analysed at a later date.

155
Q

How is each recombinant within a vector analysed?

A

Each recombinant can be copied and placed in an individual cell to be analysed.

156
Q

What are the 2 kinds of DNA libraries?

A

DNA libraries that contain genomic DNA.

cDNA libraries that only contain genes that are expressed.

157
Q

How will most genetic libraries store their genes of interest?

A

In such a way that the fragments will overlap and combine with each other.

158
Q

Why are overlapping fragments stored in DNA libraries?

A

To allow scientists to form long sequences of DNA from the vectors in different plasmids.

This allows them to see how these sequences interact with each other.

159
Q

What are the overlapping sequences that are used in gene libraries known as?

A

Partial digestions or contigs.

160
Q

Has the DNA in partial digestions or contigs been broken up at every restriction site?

A

No, this creates the overlaps.

161
Q

How is DNA sorted within a genomic library?

A

It is sorted into the order of the size of the DNA fragment.

162
Q

How will DNA fragments move through an electrophoresis gel?

A

Small fragments will move quickly and will move futher through the gel than larger fragments.

163
Q

Electrophoresis can sort what kind of DNA fragments into an order of size?

A

Electrophoresis can sort fragments between 100 BP and 50,000 BP into an order of size.

164
Q

How is DNA normally viewed after electrophoresis has occurred?

A

Under UV light.

165
Q

What is DNA stained with before it undergoes electrophoresis which allows it to show up under UV light?

A

Ethidium bromide.

166
Q

What part of a gene is used to make a cDNA library?

A

The mRNA from the gene.

167
Q

How is the mRNA from a gene examined?

A

When tissue that contains cells that express the gene is isolated from the body.

The mRNA is removed from the tissue and examined.

168
Q

How is the mRNA removed from a tissue sample when creating a cDNA library?

A

By attaching a nucleotide linker that contains a bead of thymine residues to the poly-A tail.

The thymine and adenine residues form complimentary bonds and the mRNA can be removed.

169
Q

What enzyme will create DNA from the mRNA of interest during the creation of a cDNA library?

A

Reverse transcriptase.

This allows us to see what strand of DNA codes for a particular RNA strand.

170
Q

What kind of primer is used for the reverse transcriptase enzyme during the formation of a cDNA library?

A

A poly-T strand.

171
Q

How many strands of DNA will reverse trascrpitase synthesise from a mRNA strand?

A

A single strand of DN which is always the coding strand (CDNA) and is covalently bound to the RNA strand.

172
Q

What feature will reverse transcriptase form on the DNA that it synthesises?

A

A small fragment of DNA on the 3 prime end of the non-coding strand which is known as a Klenow fragment.

173
Q

What use does the Klenow fragment have on a piece of DNA that has been synthesised by reverse transcriptase?

A

It serves as a primer for DNA polymerase.

174
Q

What happens to the DNA/RNA complex after the DNA has been synthesised by a reverse transcriptase enzyme?

A

A digestion enzyme removes the RNA strand.

This allows DNA polymerase to bind to the Klenow fragment and synthesise the non-coding strand.

175
Q

How is the Klenow fragment removed from a DNA molecule that has been synthesised from a piece of mRNA?

A

An S1-nuclease enzyme removes the Klenow fragment to form double stranded cDNA.

176
Q

What molecules are used to help find a particular sequence of DNA in a DNA library?

A

A particular probe that is complimentary to the desired DNA fragment.

177
Q

What is the process of searching for a particular fragment of DNA within a library known as?

A

Screening.

178
Q

How can a probe indicate that is has matched up with a DNA fragment of interest?

A

It has a radioactive label or fluorescent marker that highlights the location of the desired fragment.

179
Q

What are heterologous probes?

A

They are formed from a known gene and used to find an unknown gene.

E.g. if a gene from a dog is isolated, we can use that gene on a heterologous probe to see if the same gene is found in other organisms.

180
Q

Do heterologous probes have to be completely complimentary?

A

They do not have to be completely complimentary, but they must have a high degree of complementarity.

181
Q

What are homologous probes?

A

Probes that contain a sequence that is exactly complimentary to the sequence of interest.

182
Q

What are degenerate probes?

A

Probes that contain a protein sequence that is used to identify a gene.

183
Q

How is a degenerate probe assembled?

A

Edmans degradation removes each terminal amino acid from a polypeptide.

The triplet code for each amino acid is identified and the probes contain every combination of the possible triplet codes.

184
Q

What are EST probes?

A

Probes that are made up of partial DNA sequences from cDNA libraries.

185
Q

What are the partial sequences on an EST probe?

A

They contain the 5 prime or 3 prime end of the desired DNA and a small sequence of the protein coding region.

186
Q

What are the 4 methods of labelling probes?

A

Random priming.

In vitro transcription.

Klenow fill in.

Oligonucleotides.

187
Q

What is the random priming method of labelling a probe?

A

It involves adding radioactive nucleotides along the length of a fragment of DNA.

188
Q

How are the radioactive nucleotides added to a random priming probe label?

A

The DNA is denatured to form single strands and a number of hexamers are added to one strand.

189
Q

What are the names of the hexamers that are added to the single DNA strand by DNA polymerase I during the formation of a priming probe label?

A

Radioactive dNTPs known as DATP, DTTP, DGTP, DCTP.

190
Q

How does in vitro transcription act as a probe label?

A

A sequence of radioactive nucleotides are complimentary to the desired DNA strand.

191
Q

How is the RNA labelled during the formation of an in vitro transcription probe?

A

The RNA is labelled while it is being transcribed from a cDNA template.

192
Q

How is an in vitro transcription probe label synthesised?

A

By the host cell machinery.

193
Q

What is a Klenow fill in probe label?

A

A restriction endonuclease digests a short segment on the 3-prime ends of both DNA strands creating 5 prime overhangs.

The Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I fills in the short sequences at the 3 prime end using radioactive nucleotides.

194
Q

How are oligonucleotide probe labels formed?

A

By adding an ATP molecule that has a radioactive gamma phosphate to the 5 prime end of a probe.

This is done via the use of the enzyme T4 polynucleotide kinase.

195
Q

How is DNA library screening carried out?

A

The bacteria that contain the gene library are plated.

Some of the bacterial colonies are transferred to a membrane.

These colonies undergo cracking which exposes de-natured DNA.

The denatured DNA can be hybridised with a radioactive probe.

If the probe hybridise’s with the DNA then double stranded DNA molecules will be visible after X ray.

The radioactive strand makes up one strand and the original strand makes up the other.