Resto Rudman Flashcards

1
Q
during anoperative procedure, the rubber dam clamp repeatedly dislodges. this maybe caused by
I. improper clamp selection
II. dullness of the clamp jaws
III. clamp improperly positioned
IV. hoes punched too closely together on rubber dam
V. use of heavy weight rubber dam
 the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, II, III
c. I, III, V
d. II, III, IV 
e. all of the above
A

a.

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2
Q

in establishing cavity form from class II amalgam, it is IMPORTANT to
I. limit the isthmus width to 1/4 the intercuspal distance whenever possible
II. consider the depth rather than width in order to prevent fracture of the filling material
III. use pins to protect the large amalgam restoration from fracture
IV. have 90 degree junction of tooth and amalgam at the cavosurface are
V have a slight rounding of internal line angles to relieve stress areas in the tooth
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, II, IV, V
d. I, III, IV, V
e. II, III, IV, V

A

c

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3
Q
Instruments that might logically be used for placing gingival bevels on inlay preparations are
I.  small diamond disks
II. fine, tapered diamond stones
III. margin trimmers 
IV. enamel hatchets
V. tapered carbine burs
the correct anser is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, V
e. II, IV, V
A

d.

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4
Q

the use of composite resin for class I restorations is generlly recommended because its clinical performance is inferior to amalgam with espect to

a. creep
b. fracture
c. occlusal wear
d. marginal breakdown
e. decay

A

c.

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5
Q

the use of stainless steel pins in amalgam restorations has become widesprread. it compressive stregnht of the restoration is increased significantly, the increase results

a. from condensation techniques rather than the number of pins used
b. when the number of pins is greater than four
c. because pins markedly increase the compressive strength characteristic of amalgam
d. because pins markedly increase the tensile strength characteristic of amalgam
e. from the strenght of the stainless steel in the pins

A

a.

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6
Q

in the practic of preventive dentistry, PRIMARY prevention refers to those measures taken to

a. prevent the development of disease in the primary dentition
b. prevent ds before evidence of its occurrence is detected
c. prevent incipient disease from progressing to destructive activity
d. focus priority on those practices which minimize the loss of teeth
e. ensure emphasis on prevention in all dental treatent at any time

A

b.

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7
Q

occlusal clearance for a porcelain fused to metal restoration should be about ____mm o the occlusal surface of a maxillary first premolar

a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0
e. 2.5

A

d.

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8
Q

a patient telephned that she broke off a big piece of her upper left back tooth. an emergencyoffice visit between patients revealed that the facial portion of the maxillary second molar was sheared off level with the gingival tissue. a MOD inlay in that tooth was loaase and it was removed. No pulp exposure was evident, but the tooht was sensitive. the patien cannot be seen again for two weeks. the treatment at ths time would be to

a. smooth the rough edges and reappoint
b. place a zinc phosphate cement temporary restoration
c. place a ZOE cement temporary restortion
d. cement on a metal band or shell with reinforced ZOE cement
e. dismiss the pateint without further iintervention until the next scheduled visit ehich eould provide sufficient time for the obviously involve treatment

A

d.

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9
Q

the factor in the design of the abutment preparation for a partial denture hich must be determined BEFORE initiating treatment of the abutment teeth is the

a. locatio of the rest or clasps
b. numer of teeth to be replaced by the partial denture
c. cusp inclined to be used in selecting the replacement teeth
d. composition of the denture material which is supported by the edentulous areas
e. all of the above

A

a.

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10
Q

a cavity prepared for a powered gold restoraions on the proximal surface of an anterior tooth ALWAYS

a. includes the contact are
b. extends beneath the creast of the gingival tissue
c. contains a 2- planed lingual wall and a 2- planed facial wall
d. end in the fcial embrasure to facilitate the finishing and maintenace of the margins
e. has enmel walls which meet the surface of the tooth by following the general direction of the enamel rods

A

e.

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11
Q

the incomplete sating of a die into an interocclusal record will result in

a. excessive occlusal contact of the casting
b. insufficient occlusal contact of thte casting
c. normal occlusal contact if soft wax is used on the occlual
d. distortion of the inteocclusal record
e. no occusal contact

A

a.

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12
Q

the MOST frequent complaint of pain after placement of an amalgam restoration is related to

a. cold
b. heat
c. swees
d. galvanic shock
d. biting pressure

A

a.

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13
Q

of the ff materials, the MOST likely to cause an adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a deep cavity prepared is

a. silver amalgam
b. silicate cement
c. calcium hydroxide
d. ZOE
e. zinc phosphate cement

A

b.

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14
Q

cuspal reduction DECREASES

a. retention form
b. resistance form
c. convenience form
d. pulpal invlvement
e. withdraw form

A

a.

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15
Q

a composite resin, compared with poly (methyl methacrylate) has

a. a lowercoefficient of thermal expansion
b. greatter compressive strength
c. greater stiffness
d. lower polymerization shrinkage
e. all of the above

A

e.

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16
Q

an endodontically treatedmaxillary central incisor with moderate sized mesial and distal compsite resin restorations involving the facial surface and a heavy occlusion would BEST be trteated by restoring it with

a. post-retained porcelain metal full crown
b. post- retained jacket croown
c. composite resin
d. 3/4 gold crown
e. none of the above

A

a.

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17
Q

the 8percent racemic epinephrinw- containing cord for tissue packing may prove HAZARDOUS for some patients because of its
. local caustic action upon the gingival tissue
b. vasoconstriction action systemically
c. propensity for allergic response
d. astringent action locally
e. none of the above

A

b

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18
Q

the location oof the gingival margin in the preparation of proximal cavities is influenced by hte
I. need for retention of a cast restoration
II. amount of gingival recession
III. need to extend gingivally to clear the contact area
IV. convenieve form of the cavity
the correct aswer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. II, III
d. II, IV
e. III, IV

A

b.

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19
Q

functions of the dental pulp include all of the ff EXCEPT

a. support
b. sensory
c. circulatory
d. dentin repair
e. gingivitis

A

d.

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20
Q

another name for dental plaque is

a. sordes
b. dextran
c. microcosm
d. materia alba
e. polysaccharide

A

c.

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21
Q

pit and fissure cries is USUALLY characterized by cones of decay that

a. are apex to base at the D-E junction
b. are base to base at the D-E junction
c. are apex to apex at the D-E junction
d. have no general pattern at the D-E junction
e. are unrecognizable

A

b.

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22
Q

if acidogenic bacteria are to produce caries, it is REQUIRED that they

a. are aerobic
b. produce phosphoric acid
c. colonize on the tooth surface
d. grow and reproduce in acid environment
e. reproduce on the tooth surface

A

c.

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23
Q

inflammation of the pulp is MOST often associsted with

a. trauma
b. galvanism
c. occlusion
d. dental caries
e. gingivitis

A

d.

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24
Q

an expanded function dental auxillary has demonstrated to you tht he can regularly complete a prcedure at an acceptable quality level. unless specifically requested to aid in a procedure , you should.

a. contine to evaluate all tretment rendered by the auxillary
b. occasionally spot evaluate procedures as a quality control
c. evaluate each patient only after total patient treatment has been completed
d. occasionally spot evaluate pateints only after total patient treatment has been comleted
e. evluate the treatment rendered at the net recall appointment in order to benefit fully from the service of an expanded - function auzillary

A

a.

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25
Q

the generl direction of th enamel rods at any particular locatio on the crown of a permnent tooth maybe the MOST accurately described to be

a. perpndicular to the pulp surface
b. parallel to the dentin tubules
c. perpendicular to the dentini-enamel jnction
d. perpendiculr to a tangent at the external surface of the enamel
e. perpendicular to the dentin tubules

A

d.

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26
Q

in restoring the distal surface of mandibular first molar, how should the distal marginal ridge be restored in relation to the mesial marginal ridge of mandibular second molar provided the maxillary molars are ideally shaped and aligned?

a. lower
b. higher
c. same height
d. marginal ridge are urelated

A

c

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27
Q
a split tooth wil frequently display which of the ff symptms and signs?
I. no radiographic evidence
II. moderate pain, transient in nture
III. sensitivity to pressure
IV. thermal sensitivity
the corrrect answer is
a. I,II
b. II, III
c. III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
A

e.

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28
Q

a 3/4 crown cating is made fpor the mandibular left second premolar. it does not sit upon the die completely and appears open at all margins. which of the ff could cause this problem?
a. a suck-back or void on the inner surface of the casting a the sprue are
b. a bubble in the die at the lingual cusp aread due to entrpment o fir while pouring stone into the impressions
c. investment incompletely removed from the casting
IV. a bubble of gold on the casting
V. removal of a bubble stone and a bit of the dies ( the bubble was formed by stne flowing into a void in the impression)
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, III, IV, V
d. II, III, IV, V
e. II, III, V

A

d.

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29
Q

of the ff , the PRINCIPAL objective of interproximal wedging when placing a restoration is to

a. obtain the desired separation of the teeth
b. mark the gingival extent of the restoration
c. control gingival hemorrhage
d. depress the gingivl tissue
e. increase the pulp

A

a.

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30
Q

on the basis of present knowledge, dental caries is accepted as

a. noncommunicable insofar as humans are concerned
b. definitely communicabe in both animals and humans
c. communicable in laboratory animals, and possibly in humans
d. noncommunicable in laboratory animals, but possibly in humans
e. hereditary in all mammals

A

c.

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31
Q

in planning the locationfor placemnt of pins for a pin-retained amalgam, one should provide for

a. atleast 3mm of pin extension into the amalgam
b. parallelism of the pins if more than one is used
c. a pin in the central dentin area of each cusp to be rerstored
d. 1mm of dentin between the pin and the DEJ
e. at least 3mm of pin extension into the dentin

A

d.

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32
Q

the PROPER position for a dental assistant at the chairside of a right handed operato to assure visibility and uccesssibility to the operating field is at the ____ 0’clock position and ___ the operator.

a. 11; the same height as
b. 3; approximately 4 inches higher than
c. 3; the same height as
d. 11; aprroximately 4 inches higher than
e. 10; approximately 3 inches higher than

A

b.

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33
Q

one of the advantages of a cas gold inlay is

a. highy pleasing esthetic qualities
b. superior caries inhibitory qualities
c. allowance for a cementing medium to be used
d. capabillity of restoring anatomic form
e. that it prevents further decay

A

d.

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34
Q

which is the MOST effective means of reducing dental caries in a community by using topical fluoride?

a. fluoridaton of the community watersupply
b. routine topical fluoride application to all children in the public schools
c. routine topical fluoride applicaion by local dentist and dental auxiliaries
d. giving each family with children floride tablets to be dissolved in the childrens drinking water
e. giving each family with children floride drops to be placed in he childrens drinking water

A

b.

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35
Q

what happens to the surface hardenss of gold foil during condensation?. it
a. is increased
. is decreased
c. remains altered
d. either increases or decrease depending upon the size of condenser point used
e. iether increases or decrease depnding upon the force applied to the condenser

A

a.

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36
Q

what is ACCEPTABLE procedure to follow when a pin channel perforates the external surface of the tooth an all other factors are favorable?

a. periodontal involvement will mean the eventual loss of the tooth, so extract it now
b. clean the hole and place a ZOE type cement; under nocircumstances can this hole be used for placing a pin
c. a pin maybe placed in this hole if copalite and zinc phosphate cement are used
d. if no other hole can be placed nearby , a pin maybe placed in this channel provided there is no extension beyond the surface of the tooth
e. it is not possible to place a pin extending into the periodontal tissue, so the question is not applicable.

A

d.

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37
Q

when using the acid etch technique with composite resin solution used to etch enamel is

a. 50 percent silicophosphoric acid
b. 75 percent phosphoric acid in water
c. 25 percent hydrofluric acid in a buffer
d. 50 percent phosphoric acid in water
e. 30 percent hydrochloric acid in salt water

A

d.

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38
Q

in an occlusal caviy prepared for amalgam , facial and lingua lwalls which slightly converge occlusally (5 degrees er wall) would NOT create weak enamel margins bacause

a. enamel rods forming the margins would still be full length and supported on dnetin
b. the amalgam will support the enamel at the mrgins
c. enmel rods forming the margins need not be full length
d. dentin need not bee supporting the rods forming the enamel margins
e. tomes’ fibers would be strengthened

A

a.

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39
Q

the shaped of a cavity preparation that BST resist displcement of the restoration in any direction is called ____ form.

a. outline
b. resistance
c. retention
d. convenience
e. restraining

A

c,

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40
Q

a factor which can MINIMIZE the need for extensive removal of sound tooth substance for prevention of secondary caries is

a. hardness of the enamel
b. shallow pits and fissures
c. general health of the patient
d. low susceptibility to caries
e. strength of the molars

A

D.

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41
Q

one of the claims for the superiority of composite resin restorations over silicate cement restorations isthat resin restorations

a. prevent galvanic action
b. arepractically insoluble in oral fluids
c. adapt to the walls of the cavity better
d. have a higher coefficient of hermal expansion
e. prevent bacterial infection

A

b.

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42
Q

if pulp exposure is anticipated , final removal of carious tooth structure is accomplished after the

a. final outline form of the cavity has been established
b. resistance and retention form has been established
c. rubber dam has been placed
e. cavity has been sterilized
e. none of the above

A

c.

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43
Q

finishing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface angle of class II cavity preparation for amalgam is

a. contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam
b. provided by a steep cavosurface bevel of the enamel margin
c. unnecessary since the ramaining tooth structure is strong
d. provided by planing the cavosurface area to remove enamel prisms not supported by dentin
e. not recommended

A

d.

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44
Q

pulp capping is an indicated procedure when there is

a. an accidental mechanical exposure in a clean , dry, field
b. no hemorrhage from the exposure
c. pain response t cold
d. a large exposure
e. all of the above

A

a.

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45
Q

an ACCEPTABLE medicament for treating sensitive eroded areas in anterior teeth is

a. phenol
b. precipitated silver nitrate
c. eugenol or other essential oils
d. a paste composed of sodium fluoride , kaolin and glycerin
e. a ten percent stannous fluoride solution

A

d.

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46
Q

what is the MINIMAL oclusal clearance in a preparation for a porcelain-fused-to- metal restoration?

a. 0.5mm
b. .0mm
c. 1.5mm
d. 2.0mm
e. 2.5mm

A

c.

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47
Q

wich of the ff procedures should be accomplished after an inlay is cemented permnently and before the cement has set?

a. remove oclusal interferances
b. deepen the occlusal sluiceways
c. polish the inlay with sand paper disks
d. burnsh all margins for final adaptation
e. complete the polishing by use of rubber cups and fine abrasive

A

d.

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48
Q

a decrease in which of he ff properties of aliva is ikely to cause a decrease in caries activity?

a. ``pH
b. flow
c. viscosity
d. mineral conent
e. buffering capacity

A

c.

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49
Q

which of the ff materials has fluoride incorporated into it by the use of fluorideflux in its manufacture?

a. Zinc silicophoshate cement
b. Zinc phosphate cement
c. Polycarboxylate cement
d. BIS-GMA cement
e. EBA- alumnina cement

A

a.

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50
Q

which of the ff conclusions is CORRECT, if, after six weeks, a pulp cpped tooth is asymptomatic?

a. the pulp capping was a complete success
b. the lack of advrse symptoms maybe temporary innature and detrimental chage may occur at a later time
c. rparative deni formation at the exposure site is complete
d. the adjacent odonoblasts have proliferated to ocver the site of exposure
e. the pulp capping was a complete failure

A

b.

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51
Q

after a thorough examination , a teen-aged pateint is found to have numerous carious lesions. most of the proximal surfaces of the molars and the premolars are carious to the extent that much of the occlusal enamel appears to be undermined. of the ff courses of treatment, which would be the WISEST to follow?

a. restore all teethas rapidly as possible, using silver amalgam
b. place pteint on a prevention regime and delay treatmet until the effectiveness of home care is evaluated
c. restore all teeth with gold inlays to utilize the stregnth of this material
d. excavate all carious lesions and place intermediary restorative ZOE before coletinga ttreatent plan
e. retore all teeth as slowly as possible ,using silver amalgam

A

d.

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52
Q

caries activity can be epected to increase in the mouth of

a. n expectnt mother
b. a lactating mother
c. a xerostomatic
d. a rachitic
e. ll of the above

A

c.

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53
Q

the dietary carbohydrate MOST likely involvedin the etiology of dental caries in man is

a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. dextrn
d. polysaccharide
e. that produced by strp mutans

A

b.

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54
Q

foremost in the general planning of a patient s dental care is the

a. restoration of all carious lesions
b. comfort and heslth of thepatint
c. establishment of an adequate home care regime
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b.

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55
Q

the potential for marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the GREATEST extent with

a. amalga alloy
b. silicate cement
c. unfilled resin
d. composite resin
e. direct filing gld

A

c.

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56
Q

marginal leakage of an amalgam restoration is

a. related to the new phases formed
b. decreased as the restoration ages
c. severe thorought the life of the restoration
d. less after initial placement than at six months
e. increased as the restoration ages

A

b.

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57
Q

dentl wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible after fabrication in order to minimize change in the shape caused by

a. reduce flow
b. drying out of the wax
c. relaxation of internal stress
d. continued expansion of the wax
e. incresed flow

A

c.

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58
Q
which of th ff is NOT a factor in the extension of the lingual wall of a maxillary class III cavity prepared for direct filing gold?
a. aesthetics
b occlusion
c. access for condensation
d. anatomic form of marginal ridge
e. none of the above
A

a.

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59
Q

which of the ff agents may be used on dentin as a cavity medicament because it does not irritate the dental pulp?

a. silver nitrate
b. phenol
c. prednisoloe
d. alcohol
e. chloroform
f. ethyl chloride

A

c.

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60
Q

which of he ffis the WEAKEST phase of he set amalgam?

a. beta -2
b. gamma
c. gamma-1
d. gamma-2
e. beta-1

A

d.

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61
Q

in working as a team , the osition of the chariside assistnt should be

a. lower than the dentist to facilitate visibility
b. t the same height as the dentist because they are working as a team
c. higher than the dentist for proper access and visibility to th patients oral cavity
d. varied, depending upon where the dentist is working
e. none of the above

A

c.

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62
Q

an accurate diagosis for dental caries can be made without theuse of dental radiograph when

a. only premolar teeth are present
b. the patient is pregnant
c. only decidious teeth arre present
d. all posterior proximal surfaces have previously been restored
e. any of the above
e. none of the above

A

f.

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63
Q

in restoring a claa II cavity , an onlay is indicaed whenthe

a. need for extra retention exists
b. patient has a high caries index
c. opposing tooth has full coverage
d. dentinal support of the cusps is questionable
e. tooth is erupting but has not reached functional occusion
f. all ofthe above
g. none of the above

A

d.

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64
Q

on a rubberdm replacement which isolated the six maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist observe an unusual amount of wrinkling of the rubber dam between the teeth. this wrinkling is the result of

a. punching the holes too small
b. punching the holes too far apart
c. unching the holes too close together
d. crowding and overlaping of the anterior teeth
e. teeth with broad contacts inisogingivally

A

b.

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65
Q

a posterior tooth under heavy occlusl oad has cusps undermined with caries. the restorative material of choice would be

a. cst gold
b. silver malgam
c. comosite resin
d. dirent filing gold
e. pure resin

A

a.

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66
Q

primary prevention of dental caries includes each of the following activities EXCEPT

a. planning the patients diet
b. prophylactic odontomy
c. topical application of a fluoride
d. extending cavity preparation to prevent recurrence
e. none of the above

A

d.

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67
Q
plpal irritation wold not be expected from any restorative material provided the minimal thickness of the material was
. 0.2mm
b. 0.5mm
c. 1.0mm
d. 2.0mm
e. 3.0mm
A

d.

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68
Q

which of the ff types of base materials must NOT be placed in contatc with polymethyl methacrylate because it may inhibit the polymerization of the resin?

a. germicidal
b. zinc phosphate cemen
c. ZOE cements
d. calcium hydroxide distitilled water paste
e. all of the above

A

c.

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69
Q

which of the ff statements is TRUE regarding chemical adhesion in clinical restorative materials?

a. resin exhibit cheical adhesive properties to hard tooth structure in the mouth
b. cheical adhesion to hard tooth tissue under oral conditions does not exist
c. recent techniques of acid etching of enamel have produced chemical adhesion ti enamel in the mouth
d. chemical adhesion is demonstrated in clinical peformance of polycarboxylatecement

A

d.

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70
Q

which of the ff statements describe composite resins?
I. they can be placed and finished at the same appoinment
II. they are more color stable than unfilled direct filling resins
III. tehy are similar to amalgam with respect to coefficient of thermal expansion
IV. the finished surface tends to be somewhat rough
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III
e. II, III, IV
f. all of the above

A

c.

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71
Q
a young patient receive endodontic theray on the maxillary left central incisor.  the tooth now is indicated for anesthetic pin-retained restoration as an interim treatment. which of the ff kinds of pins should be used?
I. self threading pins
II. friction locked pins
III. serrated cemented pins
IV. self shearing pins
V. non- serrated cemented pins
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, V
c. II, III
d. II, V
e. III, IV
f.  III, V
A

A.

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72
Q
use of a rubber dam is MOST indicated for which of the ff procedures?
I. removal of carious dentin from deep lesions
II. pulp capping
III. placement of direct fillin gold
IV. removal of an old amalgam resoration
V. opening into the pul chamber to drain an acute periapical abscess
the correect answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, V
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, V
e.IV, V
A

a.

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73
Q
which of the ff aid in the diagnosis of the incipient  proximal carious lesion?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
the correct answer is
a. I. II. III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, V
d. II, IV, V
e. III. IV. V
f. all of the above
A

f.

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74
Q

the anterior determinant of occlusion is the

a. horizontal and vertical overlap relation of anterior teeth
b. horizontal overlap relation of anterio teeth only
c. vertical overlap in relation to anterior teeth only
d. cuspal inclination in degrees
e. cuspal declination in degrees

A

a.

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75
Q
in the preparation of a cavity for  restoration with composite resin, all cavosurface angles should be
a. well-rounded
b. right angles
c,.  acute angles
d. obtuse angles
e. even
A

b.

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76
Q

a FREQUENT cause of interdentl papillae protruding from beneath the rubber dam is

a. edematous gingival tissues
b. holes placed toot far apart
c. using a light weight dam
d. holes placed too close together
e. not using individual ligation of each tooth

A

d.

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77
Q

following removal of the gingival retraction , a small preparation for a hydrocolloid impression, a small amount of bleeding from the tissue at the preparations site is prepared. the correct procedure to follow at this point is to

a. procees with the impression because the material is prepared
b. utilize a fulgurationg current on the electrosurgical unit to control bleeding, then proceed
c. place an over-contoured temporary restoration to force th etissue away , and dismiss the patient for impression at the next appointment
d. control bleeding, repack the tissues, and poceed with the impression
e. none of the above

A

d.

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78
Q

the use of the functional occlusal registration presupposes that

a. the teeth to be restored and excluded
b. the opposing teeth are in need of major restoration
c. it is impossible to make use of an anatomic registration
d. the opposing teeth are in harmony with the remainig dentition
e. the opposing teeth are in need of minor restoration

A

d.

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79
Q

when placing a matrix band for a class !! amalgam restoration , the gingivo-occlusal width of the band should be trimmed

a. below th emarginal ridge height
b. to be equal to the marginal ridge height
c. to be at least 1mm greater than the expected
d. above the marginal ridge height
e. not at all; its dimensions should remain as they made by the manufacturer

A

c.

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80
Q

the prpose of prednisolone in conjuction with operative procedures is to

a. reduce the tendency for an acutee inflammatory response within th pulp
b. promote healing of the irritated pulp tissue
c. serve as an obtundent
d. delay healing of the irritated pulp tissue
e. all of the above

A

a.

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81
Q

two adjacent cavities involving the contact maybe prepared and resolved with composite resin at one appointment bacause

a. the chances of maintaining contact are greatly enhanced
b. they can be packed with one mix
c. this conserves operating time
d. placement and finishing can be completed at the same appointment
e. all of the above

A

d.

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82
Q

the property with MOST closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is

a. elastic limit
b. ultimate strength
c. percentage elongation
d. modulus of resilience
e. modulus of elasticity

A

c

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83
Q

different micro-structure has been described for each form of pure gold; gold foil, mat gold, and grnular or powdered gold. it has been demostrated at the microscopic level that

a. void paces remain in any compacted gold
b. gold foil is more porous than any other form of gold
c. crystalline golds are packed densely more readyly than gold foil
d. proper compaction can remove all voids from the commercially - available direct filling golds
e. gold foil is less porous than any other form of gold

A

a.

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84
Q

the form of of a clas !! cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration includes:
I. extending thecavity to the line angles of the tooth and beyond
II. extending the cavity proximally to clear contact with the adjacent tooth
III. beveling all enamel walls
IV. removing unsupported enamel along the gingival wall
V. rounding the axio-pulpal line angle
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, V
d. II, IV, V
e. III, IV, V
f. all of the above

A

d.

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85
Q
lack of proximal cntact of class II inlay restoration usually results in;
I. poor marginal fit
II. gingival irritation
III. sensitivity oto therma changes
IV. food impaction
V. a cleaner interproximal space
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. II, III, IV
c. II, IV
d. IV only
e. V only
A

c.

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86
Q
direct functions of the mature dental pulp include
I. enamel formation
II. formation of dentin structure
III. to furnish nerve and blood suply of teeth
IV. cementum formation
V periodoantal ligament formation
 the correct answer is
a. I, II, V
b. II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. II, III, V
e. III, IV, V
f. all of the above
A

b.

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87
Q

for MOST effective cutting an long usefullness of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be

a. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth
b. rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth
c. placed in contact with the tooth before starting
d. rotating rapidly before entering into the oral caviy
e. placed in contact with the tooth after starting

A

b.

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88
Q

the GREATEST percentage of tooth loss in the first two decdes of life (except natural loss decidous teeth) is due to

a. periodontal disease
b. treated dental caries
c. untreated dental caries
d. trauma to teeth from accidents
e. none of the above

A

c.

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89
Q

for a 12-year-old, the treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular lateral incisor involving the mesioincisal angle but not the pulp is

a. etching and placement of a resin restoration
b. a lingual dovetail inlay
c. a pin- retained metallic restoration
d. a porcelain-fused- to- metal crown
e. none of the above

A

a.

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90
Q

one of the BEST materials for sedation of the dental pulp is

a. cavity varnish
b. calcium hydroxide
c. ZOE
d. zinc silicophosphate cement
e. a proprietary product of sterilized dentin powder and distilled water

A

c.

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91
Q

during preparation of a cast gold restoraton , the tooth tissue which is weakened by the cavity preparation and subjected to damage by the forces of mastication must be

a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration
b. strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core
c. protected by restoring to full coverage of the tooth
d. beveld, and the patient remainded not to exert undue force on the tooth
e. weakened by the use of cement or an amalgam core

A

a.

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92
Q

a male pateint has a fractured distoincisal angle on a maxillary lateral incisor had been restored previously with silicatecement. the remaining tooth tissue between the restoration and the mesioincisal angle contains little bulk and is of doubtful strength. the aptient desire a restoration which will provide the longest period of service. the material and restoration of choice is

a. a 3/4 cast gold crown
b. compacted gold with pin
c. an MID composite resin with pins etched technique
d. an MID cast gol pin- ledge restoration
e. a porcelain fused to metal full crown

A

e.

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93
Q

if caries prone animals were fed cariogenic diets by stomach tubes, their caries activity woud be

a. the same as it would have been if they had eaten the food
b. more than if they had eaten the food
c. less than if they had eaten the food
d. essentially stopped
e. essentialy prolonged

A

d.

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94
Q

direct filling gold is heated prior to its condesation for the purpose of

a. re- estblishing its adhesive properties
b. volatilizig surface contaminants
c. re- crystallizing
d. sterilization
e. annealing
f. softening

A

b.

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95
Q

a patient has nonspecific pain in the permanent maxillary first molar which ha occurence periodontically since he was hit in the chin. examination reveals an apparently healthy tooth both clinically and radographically ith a conservative MOD inlay. examination of the preparation and casting shows a quality casing. the MOST probable cause of the pain is

a. maxillary sinusitis
b. a mesio-distal fracture of the tooth
c. a facio-lingual fracture of the tooth
d. leakage anf therefore, chemical irritation due to faulty cementation of the inlay
e. none of the above

A

b

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96
Q
a CHIEF  clinical advantage  of the improved ZOE cements over zinc phosphate cement for cementaion of cast restorations is
a. lower solubility 
b. lower film thickness
c. less pulpal irritation
d. higher compressive strenght 
e, adhesion to tooth substancete
A

c.

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97
Q

class II cavitie prepared for cast gold differ from those prepaed for amalgam in

a. principles of proximal extension
b. principles of resistance form
c. use of hand cutting instruments
d. use of bevels
e. both A and B above

A

d.

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98
Q

the MOST retentive pin technique is the

a. thread-mate system
b. friction lock system
c. cemented system
d. all of the above
e. none of the baove

A

a.

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99
Q

the retention for any class V restoratio is placed

a. in mesial and distal areas
b. in occlusal and gingival areas
c. at hte expense of the axial wall
d. in all except the facial walls
e. in all except the mesial and distal areas

A

b.

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100
Q

in porcelain -fused-to- metal restorations, the MOST commonly used lloys have a base of

a. tin
b. gold
c. nickel
d. silver
e. platinum
f. palladium

A

b.

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101
Q

a patient complains of sensitivity in a mandibular premolar. a well- condensed class V amalgam restoration was placed in that tooth five months previously , with no discomfort for the first four moths. Since then, it has become increasingly sensitive. the problem probably relates to

a. marginal lekage
b. fractured restoration
c. irreversible pulpal damage
d. toothbrush abrasion
e. none of the above

A

c.

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102
Q

a cavity repared for a powdered gold restoration on the proximal surface of an naterior tooth always

a. includes the contact areas
b. extends beneth the crest of ethe gingival tissue
c. contains a 2-planed lingual wall and a -planed facial wall
d. ends in the facial embrasure to facilitate finifhing and maintenenace of the margins
e. has enamel walls which meet the surface of the ooth by following the general direction of the enamel rods

A

e.

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103
Q

periodontal surgery has exposed 3mm of the cemental root surface. pre-existing coronal class V restoration which formerly extended to the cervial line must now be placed because of recurrect caries. the design for this replacement requires that the

a. gingival margin be extended to the new location of the gingivl sulcus
b. gingival margin be extended to sound tooth structure
c. cervical line be placed in the restoration as it originally appeared o this surface of the tooth
d. surface of the restoration be over contoured to protect the newly positioned gingivl attachment
e. nne of the above

A

b.

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104
Q

a reason for replacing silicate cement and unfilled resin restoration in the distal surfaces of maxillary canines is that the restorations

a. discolor and are not esthetic
b. will ot maintain the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth
c. cannot be placed to established contact
d. cannot be properly finished in this area and thus will cause gingival irritation
e. can be placed to established contact

A

b.

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105
Q

a patient has a toothached. radiograph show a deep carious lesion. there is no detectable pulpal exposure upon excavation of decay. the BEST tretment at this time is

a. direct pulp cap
b. root canal therpy
c. a permanent resoration after placing a suitable base
d. placement of a zinc phosphate cement temporary restoration
e. placement of two coats of cavity varnish and an amalgam restoration

A

c.

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106
Q

mechanical separators used in class III direct filling gold procedures should routinely be stabilized to:
I. minimize trauma to the gingival tissues
II. afford oppurtunity for greater amount of separation
III. provide more rigid resistance to the forces of condensation
IV. provide iniform support during instrumentation
the correct answer is
a. I, II,
b. I, II, III
c. I, III
d. I, III, IV
e. II, IV
f. all of the above

A

d.

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107
Q

during restorstive provcedure is posterior teeth, consideration must be given to the gingivl embrasure. the gingivl tissue is a teenger
I. fils the gingival embrasure
II. is pyramidal when viewed in a faciolingiual cross section
III. is “col” shaped (facial and lingual peaks of tissue)
IV. fills a space smaller than the occlusal embrasue
the correect answer is
a. I only
b. I, II, III
c. I, III
d. I, III, IV
e. III only

A

c.

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108
Q
the thermal insulating capacity of a cement base is principally related to
I. thickness of the base placed
II. density of he base placed
III. thermal conductivity of the set base
IV. coefficient of thermal expansion of the set base
V. powder/liquid ratio of the cement mix
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, III, V
A

a.

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109
Q

one of the claimes for the superiority of composite resin restoration over silicate cement restoration is that the resin restoration

a. produce galvanic action
b. are practically insoluble in oral fluids
c. adapt to the walls of the cavity better
d. have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion
e. expedite galvanic action

A

b.

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110
Q

untreated dental caries may cause

a. pain
b. gingivitis
c. dietary deficiency
d. occlusal interference
e. all of he above
f. only A and D above

A

e.

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111
Q

cohesion of direct filling gold at room temperature is an example of the principle of

a. wedging
b. annealing
c. adaptability
d. atomic attraction
e. differentiation

A

d.

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112
Q

a 14 year old patient has a proximl cavity of posterior tooth. there are no missing teeth. oral hygience and tooth relationship areexcellent. the cavity preparation can be limited to the involved proximal surface if

a. x-ray examination of the proximal area of the affected tooth reveals that the crious process has not reached the dentinoenamel junction
b. the facial and lingual cavosurface margins of the cavity preparation can be extended to self cleansing areas
c. the carious lesion does not undermine the enamel at the marginal ridge
d. the carious lesion does not involve the conact area
e. none of the above

A

e.

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113
Q

hand utting instruments classified as angle formers are used MOST frequently in an

a. class III cavity prepared for a composite resin restoration
b. MO cavity in molar prepared for an inlay
c. class III cavity prepared for direrct filling gold
d. class II cavity prepared for amalgam
e. class I cavity prepared for amalgam

A

c.

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114
Q

the high copper amalgam dispersion -type allys are characterized by
I. low creep
II. little or no gamma phase present in set amalgam
III. little or no gamma 2 phase present in set amalgam
IV. Less marginal breakdown
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, II
d. I, IV
I, II, III, IV

A

C

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115
Q
a clinical amalgam restoration which contains 57% mercury would be likely to exhibit
I. marginal breakdown or marginal fractue
II. gross delayed expansion
III. no unusual behavior
IV. surface deterioration
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II, IV
c. I, II
d. I, IV
e. III only
A

d.

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116
Q
agents used to polish an amalgam restoration should be moistened to reduce
I.producing of heat
II scarring of the restoration
III.cutting sction of the abrasive
IV. the effects of dehydrtion
V. the potential for widening the interface between the restoration and the tooth
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, III
d. I, IV
e. II, III, V
f.  II, IV
g. all o f the above
A

a.

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117
Q

the dangers of the use of air as a coolant while cutting with ultra high speed are that it may
I. allow the cutting to proceed too quickly
b. cool the pulp below the danger point
III. dehydrate the tooth
IV. cause the tooth to be hypersensitive
V. draw the odontoblast into the dentinal tubules
the correct answer is
a. I, III, V
II, III
II, IV, V
III, IV, V
IV, V
all of the above

A

d.

118
Q

separation of the teeth prior to cavity preparation is intended to be a permannet change in the relation of adjacent proximal surfae in the case of
I. replacement a partially dissolved silicate cement filling which is still in contact with the adjacent tooth
II. access for a direct filling goldrestoration for an incipient carious lesion
III. direct wax-up procedures for class II inlays
IV. mesial drift of the tooth to be treated , as a result of the longstanding proximal carious lesion
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I. III, IV
c. I, IV
d. II, III
e. all of the above

A

c.

119
Q

when working with a chairside dental assistant,which of the ff adjuncts to dental therapy could MOST readily be eliminated?
I.the mouth morror, because direct vision can always be used
II. the rubberdam, because oral evacuation is a standard procedure with dental assistant
III. the cuspidor, because the need to rinse is not so great
IV the ite block, because thedental assistant is responsible for keeping the patients mouth open
the correct answer is
a. I,III
b. II,III,IV
c. IIIonly
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

c.

120
Q
the solubility of zinc phosphate cement is markedly influenced by
I. powder/ liquid ratio
II. diet and oral flora of the patient
III.brand of the mterial
IV. age of the patient
A

a

121
Q
dental caries incidence may be epected to increase if a patient
I. increase in between meal eating
II. becomes pregnant
III. moves from massachusetts  to texas 
IV. begins eating honey daily
V.  has a removble partial denture placed
VI.gets married
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, IV, V 
d. I, IV, VI
e. II only
f. II, IV
g. all of the above
A

c

122
Q
proper facial and lingul cavity extensions for an MOD amalgam restoration are determined by
I. occlusion 
II. areas of immunity
III. extent of caries 
IV. tooth position in the arch
V. accessibility of the margins for finishig
the correct answer is
a.  I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II III, IV
d. I, III, IV, V
e. II, III, IV, V
f. III, IV, V
g. all of the above
A

d.

123
Q
a large carious lesion on the distal surface of a maxillary central incisor involving the incisal angle is a
I. class I lesion
II. class II lesion
III. class III lesion
IV. pit and fissure lesion
V. smooth surface lesion
the correct answer is
a.  I only
b. II or V
c. III or V
d. IV only
e. V only
A

e.

124
Q

during a patients dental visit, the priority consideration is

a. a complete examination
b. full mouth radiographs
c. diagnosis and treatment plan
d. determination of chief complain
e. periodontal index and prophyaxis
f. determination of patients motivation for dental care

A

d.

125
Q

a casting is maintained in position on the tooth during chewing load PRIMARILY by virtue of

a. cement seal
b. retension nd resisitance form
c. sharp cavosurface angles
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b.

126
Q

a patient returned to the office one week after a tooth was restored and complained of anintermittent, vague pain in the same quadrant. the thermal reaction test produced a quick, sharp contraction pain which passed away immediately . the electric pulp test produced more response than normal. the condition describedprobanbl is

a. hyperemia
b. acute pulpitis
c. chronic pulpitis
d. chronic inflammation
e. acute inflammation

A

a.

127
Q

the MOST effective means of providing maximum protection against caries activity for a great number of people isthrough

a. plaque control programs
b. scool dental helth programs
c. meticulous toothbrushing ang flossing
d. topicl application of olution of fluoride
e. fluridation of the communitys drinking water
f. a community program using pit and fissure sealants

A

e.

128
Q

an incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located

a. at the contact area
b. facial to the contact area
c. lingual to the contact are
d. gingival to the contact area
e. occlusal to the contact area

A

d.

129
Q

when considering the acid etch composite resin technique etching of the enamel with acid enhancees retention by
I. creating a chemical bond between tooth and restorative material
II. allowing a mechanical bond between tooth and restorative material
III. cleansing the surface of debris
the CORRECT answer is
a. I only
b. I, III
c. II only
d. II, III
e. none of the above

A

d.

130
Q
acid etching procedures with a resin system help in
I. retaining the resin
II. improving the color matching
III. preventing thermal exchange
IV. preventing microleakage
V. providing a clean enmel surface for the resin
the correct answer is
a.  I, II, III
b.  I, II, V
c. I, IV, V
d.  II, IV, V
e.  all of the above
A

c.

131
Q
resistance to proximal displacement in the ideal class II restoration is provided by
I. the adjacent tooth
II. occlusal dovetail
III. converging proximal wall
IV retention groove i the proximoaxial line angles
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I,  II,IV
c. I, III
d. II, III
e. II, IV
f. III, IV
A

e.

132
Q

an amalgam restoration was placed in a premolar. the preparation contained large, deep, retentive undercuts in the dentinal line angles. about one month after insertion of this restoration , the patient experienced definite pain in the region of this tooth. the MOST probable cause of theis pain is

a. undetected pulp exposure
b. excessive delyed expansion of the amalgam
c. moisture contamination of the amlgam only after condensation
d. moisture containation of the amalgam before and after condensation
e. the fact that, although the amalgam was over triturated and insufficient amount of mercury was expressed from it durig condensation

A

a.a.

133
Q

the outline form of a cavity preparation is the

a. shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated
b. shape and form the preparation assumes after the retention form has been completed
c. shape or form of the preparation of the surface of te tooth
d. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after the carious dentin has been removed
e. next step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after the resistance form has been established

A

c.

134
Q

the first procedure in fitting a gold inlay casting to tooth is to

a. adjust the occlusion
b. adjust the contact areas
c. adapt accessible margins
d. set the casting with mallet force
e. none of the above

A

b.

135
Q

a 39 -year- old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. the only defects are deep-stained grooves in the posterior teeth. the explorer cathches in teh grooves, but there is no evidence of softness. the treatment of choice is

a. application of a topical fluoride compound
b. cyanoacrylate pit and fissure sealant
c. BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealant
d. conservative class 1 amalgam
e. prophyactic odontomy
f. no treament

A

f.

136
Q

the setting time of polysulfide rubber impression material is accelerated by

a. a slow addition and mixing of the accelerator paste
b. incrreasing the amount of material used
c. raising both temperature and humidity
d. adding several drops of oleic acid
e. decreasing the amount of base material iused

A

c.

137
Q

treatmet including excavating a deep, carious lesion in a sensitive tooth, leaving a small amount of decayed detin in the deepet area and restoring the toth temporariy with zoe is ccalled

a. indirect pulp capping
b. direct pulp capping
c. sub-base treatment
d. semi-permanent treatment
e. permanend treatment

A

a.

138
Q

assuming the community wateer fluoridation is ot available , the MOST effective means of decresing caries for a specific 5-year old child is probably

a. topical application for 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride twice a year
b. topical application for 8% stannous fluoride twice a year
c. daily us of a fluoride containing toothpste
d. sodium fluoride tablets, 2.2mg daily
e. weekly use of a fluoride containing toothpaste

A

d.

139
Q

an MO amalgam restoration is more resistant to fracture if

a. pins are placed in the dentin of the cavity preparation
b. an occlusal qdovetail is present
c. the unsupported enmel at hte gingivo-cavosurface margin is planed
d. the axiopulpal line angle is beveled
e. the axiopulpal line angle is reduced

A

d.

140
Q

dental plaque is belived to adhere to the teeth because

a. levans are gummy
b. dextrans are insoluble and sicky
c. it grow into surface irreularities
d. the bactria secrete a lipoprotein cementing substance
e. none of the above

A

b.

141
Q

after inlay cavity preparation, which of the ff would be MOST appropraite to expose margins for an elastic imrpression?
I. surgical intervention
II. packing ith cord impregnted with alum or epinephrine
III. packing with cord impregnated with Zincchlorode
IV. packing with ZOE
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c.II, III
d. II, IV
e. III, IV

A

a.

142
Q

in which of the ff waysis the cast gold inlay superio to an amlgam restoration?
I. between adaption to cavity walls
II. lower thermal conductivity
III. better capacity to withstand masticatory forces
IV. more accurate positioning of contact area
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. II, IV
d. III, IV
e. all of the above

A

d.

143
Q

the initial acidity of a zinc phosphate cement restoration may elicit a traumatic pulpal response if
I. only a thin layer of dentin is left between the cement and the pulp
II. a very thin mix of cement is used
III. the tooth has already had traumatic ijury
IV. no cavity varnish is used
IV. the correct answer is
a. I, III, IV
b. I, IV
c. II only
d. any ofthe above

A

d.

144
Q
restorative materials acceptable for use in the distal of canines include
I. amalgam
II. gold foil
III. composite resin
IV. silicae or acrylic resin
V. gold casting
the correct answer is
a.  I, II, III
b. I, II, V
c. II, IV
d. III, V
e. all of the above
A

b.

145
Q
the danger of the use of air as a coolant while cutting with ultra high speed are that it may
I. allow the cuttig to proceed too quickly
II. cool the pulp below the danger point
III. dehydrate  the tooth
IV. cause the tooth to be hypersensitive
V. draw the odontoblast into the dentinal tubules
the correct answeris
a. I, III, V
b. II, III
c. II, IV, V
d. III, IV, V
e. IV, V
f. all of the above
A

d.

146
Q
the gingival margins of a gold inlay preparation are generally beveled because this
I. protects the margins
II. helps to seal margins
III. allows for a better impression
IV. facilitates finishing
the correct answer is
a. I,II,III
b.  I, III, IV
c.I only
d. II, III, IV
e. II only
f.  all of the above
A

f.

147
Q

the outline form of a cavity preparation is the

a. shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated
b. shape or form the preparation assumes after the retention form has been completed
c. shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth
d. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after th carious dentin has been removed
e. next step to be accmoplished in cavity preparation after the resistance form has been established

A

c.

148
Q

chemicomechanical loss of tooth tissue is termed

a. erosion
b. brasion
c. attrition
d. decalcification
e. deminiralization

A

a.

149
Q

elastic impressionmaterials, such as reversible hydrocolloid or rubber base, require proper soft tissue management. effective tissue displacement can be accomplished by

a. the frimness of tge tray material
b. injection of he material into the gingival sulcus
c. placement of chemical-impregnated cords into the gingval sulcus
d. electosugical means

A

c.

150
Q

a patient has a hypersensitive tooth. examintion reveals a obviously leaking gutta percha temporay restoration which , when removed, discloses a good cavity preparation of average depth with no carious debris and no pulpal exposure. suspecting a possible hypermic pulp , a dentist should place an anodyne dressing of

a. ZOE
b. ZOE preceded by varnish
c. calcium hydroxide lining followed by zinc phosphate cement
d. anoher gutta percha temporary filling which seals the cavity

A

a.

151
Q

in class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold on a manidibular cannes, retntion form is correctly established by

a. undercutting with 33 1/2 inverted cone but in all poit angles at the expense of the aial wall
b. accentuating the incisoaxial and gingivoaxial line angles
c. undercutting the distoaxial and mesioaxial line angles
d. the use of a monoangle hoe on the axial wall

A

b.

152
Q
the transsibility , direct  or indirec  of dental caries has demonstrated to occur from
I. human to human
II. animals to aimals
III. humans to animals
IV. animals to humans
V. bacteria to bacteria
the correct answer is
a. I,II,III
b. I,II
c. II only
d II, III
e. II, III,IV
f. III, IV, V
g. all of the above
A

d.

153
Q
the properties which are  of greatest  concern in lutting agents are
I. solubility
II. stregnth
III. solubility 
IV. film thickness
V. therman l conductivity
the correct asnwer is
a.  I,V
b. II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. all
A

c.

154
Q

topical fluoride application of 1.23 percent acidulated phosphate fluoride two times per year may reduce dental caries of children
I. to the same degree as community water fluoridation
II. to the same degree as 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement
III. less than community water fluoridation
IV. less than 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement
V. more than community water fluoridation
VI. more than 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. I, VI
d. II, III
e. II, V
f. III, IV
g. III, VI
h. IV. V

A

f.

155
Q

an 11 year old girl fractures the mesio-incisal angle of a central incisor. there is superficil dentinal involvement, but no pulpal involvement and only slight temperature sensitivity.the treament of choice would be to

a. splint central incisor would be to
b. etch th eincisal angle and restore it with resin
c. smooth the rough edges of the fracture only
d. bein root canal therapy
e. place ZOE in a celluloid crown form

A

b.

156
Q

the permanent teeth which exhibit the HIGHEST incidence of dental carious involvement are the

a. maxillary first molars
b. maillary secondpremolars
c. mandibulr incisors
d. mandibular second premolars

A

a.

157
Q

for an endodontically ttreated posterior tooth, the gold onlay is generally the restoration of choice because

a. it makes a much more esthetic restoration
b. there is less likelihood of recurrence of caris
c. the increased acess permits better mrginal adaptation
d. retention of the restoration is increased
e. maximum protection is afforded to the weakened waals of the tooth

A

e.

158
Q

when deep caries has been excavated and the cavity is close to the pulp , it is acceptable to

a. coat the entire area with cavity varnish and then palce a liner of calciumhydroxide followed by a zinc phosphate base
b. place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a coating of cavity varnish over the entire cavity followed by a zinc phospate base
c. place a linearof calcium hydroxide followed by a coat of cavity varnish followed by a liner of calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement
d. coat the deep excavation with prednisolone followed by a coat of cavity varnish followed by a liner of calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement
e. place a base of phosphate cement followed by the restoration

A

b

159
Q

the optimal amount of fluoride for public drinking water of most commuties is ____ppm.

a. 0.7
b. 0.8
c. 1.0
d. 2.0
e. 4.0

A

c.

160
Q

preparations of class I cavities for the reception of amalgam , direct filling gold and the gold inlay have in common

a. divergence of the bccal and lingual walls occlusally
b. divergence of the mesial and distal walls occlusally
c. convergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally
d. undercutting the mesial and distal walls

A

b.

161
Q

in the restoration of the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, periodontal involvement is MOST likely to develop when there is

a. insufficient contact
b. a flat marginal ridge
c. failure to polish the proximal surface
d. overextenson faciolingually of the cavity
e. underextension cervically of the gingival wall

A

a.

162
Q

a FREQUENT cause of interdental papillae protruding from beneath the rubber dam is

a. edematous gingival tissues
b. holes placed too far apart
c. using lightweight dam
d. holes placed too close together
e. not using individual ligation of each tooth

A

d.

163
Q

a 26year old female pateint has an incipient class III lesion on the distal of a canine. which is the restorative material of choice?

a. amalga
b. cast gold
c. direct filling gold
d. silicate cement
e. composite resin

A

c.

164
Q

an accurate dental diagnosis can be made without the use of dental radiograpgh in which of he ff circumstances?

a. all posterior teeth are missing
b. the patient is pregnant
c. only decidous teeth aree present
d. all posterior proximal surfaces havepeviously been restored
e. any of the above
f. none of the above

A

f.

165
Q

minute traces if which of the ff will render a gold alloy brittle?

a. zinc
b. copper
c. mercury
d. palladium

A

c.

166
Q

the functioally generated occlusal regstration in the indirect gold inlay technique is which of the ff?

a. centric relation
b. vertical dimension
c. anatomic egistration
d. static registration of dynamic occlusion

A

d.

167
Q
hich material has had fluorides incorporated into it by the use of a fluoride flux in its manufacture?  \_\_\_\_ cement.
a,. zinc silicophosphate
b. zinc phosphate
c. polycarboxylate
d. BIS-GMA
e.  EBA- alumina
A

a.

168
Q

which of the ff teethis MOST likely to benefit from occlusal sealant placement?

a. maxillary first premolar
b. maxillary first mola
c. maxillary second molar
d. mandibular second premolar
e. mandibular canine

A

b.

169
Q

streptococcus mutans is considered to be a PRINCIPAL etiologic agent of caries because it produces organic acids and it

a. forms a gelatinous matrix
b. metabolizes substrate from saliva
c. derives energy from the enamel constituents
d. lives symbotically with lactobaccilus acidophilus
e. none of the above

A

a.

170
Q

which of the ff properties is MOST characteristic of currently avalable cement base?

a. adhesiveness
b. high ductility
c. high edge strength
d. low coefficient of thermal conductivity
e. high coefficient of thermal conductivity

A

d.

171
Q

the MOST desirable finished surface for a composite resin can be provided by

a. white stones
b. hand instruments
c. aluminum oxide disks
d. carbine finishing burs
e. diamond finishing burs

A

c.

172
Q

in a class III composite preparation, retention points should be placed

a. in the axial wall
b. entirely in dentin
c. at the dentinoenamel junction
d. at the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not the axial wall
e. partialy in dentin

A

d.

173
Q

whenever pssible, a syringe should be used for placing composite resin because

a. the need for etching procedures is eliminated
b. the need for applying enamel bonding agent is eliminated
c. the possibility of trapping air in a restoration is minimized
e. a syringe allows for less amount of composite material to be mixed
e. none of the above

A

c.

174
Q

class V cavities arefound in

a. premolars and molars only
b. proximal surfaces of premolars and molars
c. pits in ingual surfaces of maxillary incisors
d. the occlusal 2/3 of the facial and ligual surfaces of the molars
e. the gingival 1/3 of facial and lingual surfacesof anterior and posterior teeth

A

e.

175
Q

direct filling gold is heated prior to condensation to
a. soften he gold
balter its crystal stucture
c. drive off moisture and volatile compounds that have been placed on its surface
d. eliminate corrosive compounds that hve accumulated on its surface
e. all of the above

A

c.

176
Q

which of the ff is MOST related to turbulence of molten gold in the casting process?

a. venting
b. volume of metal
c. placement of sprue
d. suck back porosity
e. position in the ring

A

c.

177
Q

the rate at which carious destruction of dentin progresses tends to be slower in older adults than in young persons because of the

a. change of pH of saliva with aging
b. increase in intertubular organic content
c. generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging
d. decrease in sugar consumption of olderadults
e. sll of the above

A

c.

178
Q

the proper zone of a gas-air blowpie flame used for melting casting gold alloy is

a. the reducing zone
b. the oxidizing zone
c. the zone closest to the nozzle
d. a combination of oxidizing and reducing zones
e. none of the above

A

a

179
Q

inlay wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible after fabrication in order to MINIMIZE changes in shae caused by

a. drying of the wax
b. reducing in temperature
c. volatilization of wax components
d. continued expansion of the wax
e. relaxtion of internal stresses

A

e.

180
Q

mercuy vaporization in an amalgam restorative procedure utilizing well-sealed premeasured capsules is MOST likely to occur during

a. mulling
b. carving
c. trituration
d. condensation
e. high speed evacuation

A

d.

181
Q

restoration of a cusp using dental amalgam requires that

a. all the enamel be removed from the cusp to provide bulk of amalgam
b. only the enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
c. atleast 2mm of the cusp be removed to provide retention form
d. atleast 2mm of the cusp be removed to provide resistance form
e. a reverse bevel be provided on thecusp to provide retention form

A

d.

182
Q

the strength of dental investments for gold alloy is dependent upon the amount of

a. silica
b. carbon
c. gympsum
d. alumina
e. porcelain

A

c.

183
Q

the property that MOST closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is

a. elastic limit
b. ultimate strenght
c. percentage elongation
d. modulus resilience
e. modulus of elasticity

A

c.

184
Q

creep of a metal indicates that the metal

a. lacks edge strenght
b. has excessive flexibility
c. has insufficient retention
d. will deform under static load
e. has insufficient crushing strength

A

d.

185
Q

cavity varnish is indicatedfor the use under amalgam restorations to

a. prevent galvanic currents from reaching the pulp
b. improve the marginal seal of the restoration
c. seal the dentinal tubules completely
d. act as n effective thermal insulator

A

b.

186
Q

the most important considerations for pulp protection in restorative technique is

a. an adequate protective base
b. coplete removal of caries
c. thickness of the remaining dentin
d. proper sealing of the remaining dentin
e. color of the remaining dentin

A

c.

187
Q

when a liquid wets a solid completely, the contact angle between the liquid and the solid is ___.

a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 135
e. 32

A

a.

188
Q

most likely to cause damage to the gingival papillae would be ____ rubber dam.

a. punching holes that are too small in
b. punching holes that are too far apart in
c. punching the holes that are too close together in
d. failure to lubricate before placement of
e. punching holes that are too large in

A

c.

189
Q

for an onlay preparation ,which of the ff is the MOST effective means for verifying adequatte occlusal clearance?

a. wax bite chew-in
b. proper depth cuts
c. visual inspection
d. articulating paper
e. none of the above

A

a.

190
Q

a restorative material that has a high proportional limit compared with n with lower proportional limit, invariably has?

a. geater ductility
b. greater toughness
c. a higher modulu of elasticity
d. more resistance to permanent deformation
e. less resistance to permanent deformation

A

d.

191
Q

contact areas between mxillary premolars are NORMALLY found on the ___ of the proimal surface.

a. facial half
b. lingual half
c. central part
d. mesial half
e. distolingul half

A

a.

192
Q

which of the ff properties of dental materilsis time -dependent?

a. creep
b. resilience
c. elastic limit
d. ultimate strength

A

a.

193
Q

when two teeth have class III lesions adjacent to each other, the operator sholuld prepare the ___ lesion first and fill the __ one first

a. smaller ; smaller
b. larger : larger
c. smaller : larger
d. larger : smaller
e. the order makes no difference

A

d.

194
Q

when deep caries has been excavated and the cavity is close to the pulp, the recommended procedure is to _____ a zinc phosphate cement base.

a. precede the restoration with
b. coat the entire area with cavity varnish , place a linear of calcium hydroxide followed by
c. place a linear of calcium hydroxide, coat the entire area with cavity varnish followed by
d. place a linear of calcium hydroxide, coat the entire area with cavity varnish, followed by a liner of calcium hydroxide and
e. coat the deep excavation with prednisolone, coat the entire area with cavity varnish followed by a liner of calium hydroxide and

A

c.

195
Q

___ is the discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration.

a. mercury
b. a sulfide
c. gamma-2
d. copper oxide
e. ferrous oxide

A

b.

196
Q

in a restorative problem involving all teeth in the mouth, the protrusive condyar path inclination has its PRIMARY influence on

a. incisal guidance
b. anterior teth only
c. mesial incline of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps
d. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps
e. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and lingual inclines of mandibular cusps

A

c.

197
Q

one month after polishing a class V amalgam on a mandibular right first molar, the gingival tissue was receded apically from the gingival margin of the restoration. the dentist should suspect
a . periodontitis
b. marginal gingivitis
c. allergic response betwen tissue andmetal
d. irreversible tissue change relted to finishing
e. reversible tissue change relatedto finishing

A

d.

198
Q

in mixing zinc phosphate cement, which clinical variable has the GREATEST effect on the strength of the cement?

a. spatulation time
b. liquid-powder ratio
c. temperature of the mixing slab
d. number and size of owder increments
e. quality of phosphorus used

A

b.

199
Q

which of the ff isthe functionally generated occlusal registation in an indirect gold casting technique?

a. centric relation
b. anatomic registration
c. registrtion of the envelope of occlusion
d. static registration of dynamic occlusion
e. none of the above

A

d.

200
Q

the position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier class V directt filling gold restoration should be

a. in a easily cleansable area
b. perpendicular to the gingival margin
c. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
d. just past the extent of the carious lesion
e. at the respective line angles of the tooth

A

e.

201
Q

when preparing a pin hole for a pin retained amalgam restoration, the spiral drill tip enters a vital pulp chamber. the next step is to

a. temporize the tooth
b. perform endodontic therapy
c. apply calcium hydroxide in the pin channel and proceed
d. coat the tip of the pin with calcium hydroxide, insert the pin just up to the pulp and then place the restoration
e. apply zinc phosphate to the pin channel and proceed

A

c.

202
Q

proper retention form in a class v cavity prerared for
direct filling gold is dependent upon
a. the relationship of mesial and distal walls
b. acute mesioaxial and distoaxial line angles
c. anf angulation of the gingivoaxial and occlusoaxial line angles
d. an acute gingivoaxial angles together with an obuse angle formed between axial and occlusal walls
e. an obtuse gingivoaxial angle together with an acute angle formed between axial and occlusal walls

A

c.

203
Q

an indispensable facto in the etiology of dental caries is

a. pH of saliva
b. poor oral hygience
c. salivary amylase activity
d. malformation of tooth structure
e. activity of oral microorganism

A

e.

204
Q

the only area where cavosurface margin or wall junctions of an onlay cavity are never beveled or planed is where the

a. pulpal wall meets the axial wall
b. gingival wall meets the proximal external planes
c. external planesof the proximal portion join the occlusal of the preparation
d. gingival wall meets he axial wall
e. none of the above

A

e.

205
Q

which of the ff factors contribute the GREATEST amount of the retention to the onlay restoration?

a. nearparallel to axial walls
b. flat pulpal and gingival walls
c. cusp reduction and contrabevels
d. proximal cavosurface margin bevels
e. divergent axial walls

A

a.

206
Q

an MO amalgam restoration is mre resistant to fracture if

a. an occlusal dovetail is present
b. the axiopulpal line angle is beveled or rounded
c. pins are placed in the dentin of the cavity preparation
d. the unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed
e. the gingival walls are flat

A

b.

207
Q

the outline form of a cavity preparation is the

a. shape or form of the preprtion after carious dentin has been excavated
b. shape or form the preparation assumes after retention form has been completed
c. shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth
d. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after carious dentin has been removed
e. next step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after resistance form has been established

A

c.

208
Q

the composnent common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bands is

a. inorganic filler
b. benzoyl methyl ether
c. poly (methyl methcrylate)
d. bisphenol A- glycidyl methacrylate
e. none of the above

A

d.

209
Q

which of the ff is MOST likely to cause necrosis of the sulcular epithelium and the adjacent layer of connective tissue when impregnated into string used for tissue retraction?

a. epinephrine
b. zinc chloride
c. aluminum sulfate
d. aluminum chloride
e. calcium hydroxide

A

b.

210
Q

local anesthetics aid in reducing flow of saliva during operative procedures by

a. blocking cholinergic nerve endings
b. blocking innervation to major salivary glands
c. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
d. reducing senstivity and anxiety during tooth preparation
e. increasing sensitivity during tooth prepration

A

d.

211
Q

to provide proper deflection patterns for ffod during mastication that willl minimize the potential for gingival irritation , the contact area between premolars is positioned to create

a. a wide facial and narrow ligual embrasure
b. a wide lingual and narrow facial embrasure
c. equal embrasure on both the facial and the lingual
d. an embrasure that deends on whether the maxillary or the mandibular arch is being considered
e. none of the above

A

b.

212
Q

it is preferable to prepare narrow cavities rather than wide cavities in order to

a. reduce operating time
b. conserve tooth strength
c. avoid underminign the enamel
d. avoid overheating the pulpal tissues
e. expend tooth strength

A

b.

213
Q

the gingival cavosurface margin of a class II inlay in a patient with gingival recession should terminate

a. at the cervical line
b. under the free gingival margin
c. at the crest of the gingival papillae
d. gingival to the cntact area and gingival to the lesion
e. anywhere except gingival to the lesion

A

d.

214
Q

most detimental to the strength of a posterior tooth in a cavity preparation in an INCREASE in

a. axial depth
b. pulpal depth
c. gingival depth
d. faciolingual width
e. mesiodistal dimension of the cavity

A

d.

215
Q

preparations of class I cavities for the reception of amalgam, direct filling gold and gold inlay have in common ___walls.

a. undercutting mesial and distal
b. occlusal divergence of mesial and distal
c. occlusal divergence of facial and lingual
d. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual
e. occlusal divergence of facial and distal

A

b.

216
Q

which of the ff agents maybe used on dentin as a cavity medicament because it does not irritate the dental pulp?

a. alcohol
b. calcium hydroxide
c. ethyl chloride
d. silver nitrate
e. none of the above

A

e.

217
Q

a patient returns to the office once week after a tooth was restorred and complains of an intermittent, vague pain in the same quadrant. the thermal reaction test produces a quick sharp pain that passes away immediately. the electric pulp test produces more response than normal. the condition described PROBABLY is

a. acute pulpitis
b. acute periodontitis
c. cervical hypersensitivity
d. hyperemia of the pulp
e. irreversible tissue change

A

d.

218
Q

which of the ff agents maybe used on dentin as a cavity medicamet because it does nt irritate the dental pulp?

a. alcohol
b. calcium hydroxide
c. ethyl chloride
d. silver nitrate
e. none of the above

A

e.

219
Q

which of the ff hand instruments is the MOST applicatble for placing the retention grooves in the distal box of a class II amalgam preparation on a mandibular left second premolar?

a. 10-7- 14
b. 15-8-3
c. 15-8-14
d. 13-80-8-14
e. 13- 95-8-14

A

d.

220
Q

the bevel on the cavosuface angle of an onlay preparation permits closer adaptation of the gold margin structure because the

a. thin margin of gold can be drawn over pronouced margin deficiencies to eliminate the defect
b. wax pattern can be more accurately carved to the margins of the prepaation
c. wax margins are less likely to distort when the pattern is invested
d. thinner magin of the gold overlying the bevel is more adaptable
e. thicker margin of the gold overlying the bevel is more adaptable

A

d.

221
Q

on a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades result in ___ efficient cutting and a ___ surface.

a. less ; smoother
b. less ; roughter
c. more ; smoother
d. more; roughter
e. less ; smoother or a roughter

A

a.

222
Q

the rotary instrument that provides the roughtest tooth surface after use is a

a. 3/8 inch fine garnet disk at slow speed
b. crosscut tapered fissure bur at slow speed
c. plane tapered fissure bur at high speed
d. 12-flutted carbine fissure bur at high speed
e. 14- flutted carbide fissure bur at high speed

A

b.

223
Q

a typical polymer- reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement contains approximatelly 20 % by weight of ____ in the powder component.

a. silica
b. alumina
c. ethoxybenzoicacid
d. poly (methyl methacrylate)
e. zinc

A

d.

224
Q

in radiograph of an incipient carious lesion limited to the enael on proximal surfaces of a posterior tooth, the lesion appears

a. as a radiopaque area
b. as a triangle with the apex at the tooth surface
c. larger in the radiograph thn actually exist clinically
d. all of the bove
e. none of the above

A

e.

225
Q

exmination of a patient with a hypersensitive tooth reveals an abviously leaking temporary restoration that, when removed, discloses a good cavity preparation of average depth with no carious debris and no pulpal exposure. suspecting a possible hypeemic pulp, the dentist should place ana anodyne dressing of

a. ZOE
b. zinc phosphate cement
c. a varnish followed by zinc oxide eugenol
d. a varnish followed by zinc phosphate cement
e. calcium hydroxide followed by zinc phosphate cement

A

a.

226
Q

a patient returns to the dentit two weeks after a gold onlay was cemented with zinc phosphate cement. the patient complains of moderate sensitivity to cold. occlusion is evaluated and the onlay is not in hyperocclusion. the dentist should

a. take the restoration out of occlusion
b. remove the onlay and place a sedative dressing
c. take and evaluate a periapical radograph
d. advise the patient to avid extreme temperature and that the sensitivity to cold will gradually decrease
e. advise the patient to expose the tooth to extreme heat

A

d.

227
Q

within an hour after cementation of a cast gold onlay on an unanesthetized tooth, the patient complains of a SHOOTING PAIN everytime the teeth come together. the MOST probable explaination is

a. supraocclusion of the restoration
b. excess acid in the cement mix
c. retained cement in the gingival sulcus
d. galvanic currrent caused by the gold onlay occluding with a large amalgam restoration
e. none of the above

A

d.

228
Q

use of a gold casting instead of dental amalgam should be considered in the restoration of an MOD carious lesion on a maxillary second molar when

a. greater sealing of the cavity is desired
b. the preparation is wider than a third of the intercuspal distance.
c. esthetics is the primary concern of the patient
d. the praparation is narrower than a third of the intercuspal distance
e. all of the above

A

b.

229
Q

a zinc oxide eugenol cmeent base is contraindicated for use with self-curing resin restorative materials because

a. the compressive stregnth of the cement is too low
b. cement interferes with the polymerization of the resi
c. zinc oxide and BIS-GMA form a soluble compound
d. the cement increases the polymerization shrinkage of the resin
e. cement does not interfere with the polymerization o the resin

A

b.

230
Q

in differentiating predisposing and inducing factor in the genesis of pulpal pain, an exmaple of an inducing factor is

a. caries
b. rauma
c. a hermal change
d. a defective restoration
e. all of the above

A

c.

231
Q

the FIRST step in fitting a gold inlay casting in the mouth is to

a. seat the casting
b. adapt accessible margins
d. adjust the occlusion
d. adjust the proximal conatct areas
e. consider using a dental amalgam instead

A

d.

232
Q

clinically, a maillary left first molar shows an extensive proximal carious lesion . hot beverages trigger a sharp , momentary pain in the carious molar. which of the ff conditions can be eliminated as a cause of the patiens complaint?

a. acute pulpitis
b. exposed sensitive dentin
c. acute amxillary sinusitis
d. partial necrosis of the pulp tissue without periapical involvement
e. noneof the above

A

c.

233
Q

the principal mechanism of the systemic action of fluoride in reducing caries activity is probably the result of

a. an increase in hardness of the surface of teeth
b. inhibition exercised by a specific group of proteolytic enzymes
c. deposition of calcium fluoride in areas of susceptible enamel
d. reduction of solubility of the enamel as its content of fluoride increases
e. an enzymatic reduction of the biotransformation of carbohydrate in the oral cavity

A

d.

234
Q

a deficient margin at a proximogingival cavosurface angle of a freshly condensed clas II amalgam restoration may have been caused by
I. poor condensation of the amalgam
II. neglecting to wedge the matrix band
III. use of too large an initial increment of amagam
IV. debris in the corne of the proximal box
V. use of hand condensation rather than mechanical condensation
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, III, IV
d. I, III, V
e. II, IV, V

A

c.

235
Q
which of the ff factors govern the rate of set  of zinc phosphate cement?
I. powder - liquid ratio
II. rate of poweder incorporation
III. particle size of the powder
IV. manner of spatulation
V. water content in the liquid
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, II, IV, V
d. I, III, IV, V
e. I, II,  III, IV, V
A

c.

236
Q

which of the ff apply when using a light to cure light activated composite resin?
I. the light should be held as close to the resin surface as possible
II. the light should be held at least 5.0mm from the resin surface
III. a shiel should be placed between the light tip and the operators eyes
IV. curing time should be increased with darker resin shades
V curing time should be increased with lighter resin shades
the correct answer is
a. I, III, IV
b. I, III. V
c. I, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. II, III, V

A

a.

237
Q
proper proximal contour is given to an amalgam restoration placed  in a cass II cavity preparation by
I. carving the restoration
II. the matrix retainer
III. adapting a contoured matrix
IV. heavy condensation of the restorative material
V. overfilling the cavity prearation with the restorative material
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. II, IV
d. II, IV
e. III, V
A

b.

238
Q

the high copper dental amalgam are superir to other amalgams because high copper dental amalgams
I. are less likely to corrode
II.have less marginal breakdown
III. are workable at lower Hg -alloy ratios
IV. generally have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III
d. I, Iv
e. II only

A

a.

239
Q
when a type III dental casting alloy is heated to a cherry red color andquenched immediately, hich of the ff are increased?
I. surface hardness
II.malleability
III. proportional limit
Iv. ductility
V. strength
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. II, III
d. II, IV
e. III, V
A

d.

240
Q
which of the ff  properties are so nealy equal in magnitude that they maybe used interchnagebly even though defined differently?
I. strain
II. elastic limit
III yield strength
IV.  proportional limit
V. modulus of elasticity
the correct answer is
a.  I, II, III
b. I, IV
c. I, V
d. II, IV
e. III, IV, V
A

d.

241
Q

enamel is etched , usually with buffered phosphoric acid, prior to placing a resin restorative to
I. allow a chemical bon to form between enmel and resin
II.allow for increased retention of the resin restoration
III. allow for better sealing of th margins of the resin restoration
IV. produce enamel irregularities ranging from 5-30 micrometers in depth
the correct answer is
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III
c. II, III, Iv
d. II, IV
e. I, II, III, IV

A

e.

242
Q

acid ethcing of enamel increases retention and adaptation of resin restorations by
I. increasing the surface area
II. conditioning the surface for betterv wetting
III. creting surface irregularities for better mechanical locking
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c II, III
d. I, III
e. I, II, III

A

e.

243
Q

the jaws of a rubber dam retainer should NOT extend beyond the line angles of he anchor tooth in order to prevent
I. possible breaking of the retainer
II. impingement on the interdental papille
III. possible interferences with placement of a wedge
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I,II
c. I, III
d. II only
e. II, III

A

e.

244
Q
resistance to proximal displacement in the ideal class II  restoration is provided by
I. the adjacent tooth 
II. occlusal dovetail
II. converging proximal walls
IV. retention grooves in proximoaxial line angles
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III
d. II, III
e. II, IV
A

e.

245
Q

compared with self cured resins, light cured composite rens provide denser restorations because o mixing is required that introduces air bubble porosity

a. both statements and reason is correct and related
b. both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the staement is correct but the reason is NOT.
d. the statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct

A

a.

246
Q

use of water spray and high volume evacuation is recommended when removing old amalgam or polishing dental amalgam restoration because mercury vapor is released during these prcedures

a. both statements and reason is correct and related
b. both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the staement is correct but the reason is NOT.
d. the statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct

A

a.

247
Q

good oral hygiene and fluoridaton will LEAST protect

a. groove defects
b. inaccessible areas
c. facial smooth surfaces
d. proximal mooth surfaces
e. color of teeth

A

a.

248
Q

when preparing a tooth for an MOD onlay, occlusal reduction is influenced by all of the ff EXCEPT

a. ideal location of subsequent centric contacts
b. amount of clearance existing before reduction
c. thickness of enamel present on the occlusal surface
d. minimal thickness needed to satisfy physical requirements of the restorative material
e. one of the above

A

c.

249
Q

which of the ff has the LEAST density?

a. gold
b. dentin
c. enamel
d. amalgam
e. porcelain

A

b.

250
Q

the glass slab is chilled prior to mixing silicate cement powder and liquid PRIMARILY to

a. allow more powder to be incorporated into the liquid
b. dissipate the heat of reaction
c. allow greater gel formatio
d. increase the pH of the mix
e. none of the above

A

a.

251
Q

pulp capping has the MOST favorable prognosis when there is

a. an accidental exposure in a clean, dry field in a matured tooth
b. an accidental exposure in a clean, dry field in a developing tooth
c. assurance of vitality evidence by heat hypersensitivity
d. serious moisture present at the exposure site
e. no hemorrhage from the exposure

A

b.

252
Q
radiographic sign of trauma from occlusio include
I. hypercementosis
II.  root resorption
III. alteration of the lamina dura
IV. alteration of the periodontal space
V. vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament
 the correct aswer is
a. I, II, III, Iv
b. I, II, IV 
c. I, III, V
d.III, IV, V
e.I, II, III, IV, V
A

a.

253
Q
the periapical film is is the film of choice in evaluating 
I. root surfaces
II. occlusal caries
III. proximal caries
IV.  supporting bone
V. the periodontal ligament space
the correct answeris
a. I, II, V
b. I, III, iV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, IV, V
e.  I, II, III, IV, V
A

c.

254
Q
saliva helps prevent caries by
I.diluting acid
II. flushing away plaque
III. acting as reservoir for Ca and Po4 ions for reminirelization
IV. acting as reservoir for Ca, Po4, fluoride and other ions for hyperemineralization of the enamel surface
V. supressing growth of strep. mutans
VI. suppresing growth of lacobacillus 
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, V
b. I, II, V
c. I, III, IV
d. I, IV, V
e. II, III, VI
A

c.

255
Q

the marginal ridges of posterior teeth are frequently involved incast restorations. it is usually necessary that the restored mrginal ridges be.
I. in conatct with opposing fossae
II. out of contact with opposing teeth
III. in contact with the cusps of opposing teeth
IV. in contact with the marginal ridges of opposing teeth
V. rounded to help form the occlusal embrasures
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, V
c. II, V
d. III, IV
e. III, V

A

e.

256
Q

the dangers of using air as a coolant while cutting with ultra high speed are tht it may
I. dehydrate the tooth
II. cool thepulp below the danger point
III. cause the tooth to be hypersensitive
IV. allow the cutting to proceed toot quickly
V. draw the odontoblast into the dentinaltubules
the correect answeri s
a. I, III, V
b. I, IV
c. II, III
d. III, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V

A

a.

257
Q
signs of an adverse systemic reaction to gingival retraction cord impregnated with aluminum chloride include
I. tachycardia
II. bradycardia
III. increased respiration
IV. elevated blood pressure
the correct answer is 
a.  I, II, III
. b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. none of the above
A

e

258
Q

the application of a rubber dam for a class V facial preparation to include a #212 clamp on a mandibular second premolar requires the hole for the second premolar punched
I. larger than usual
II. smaller than usual
III. slightly to the lingual of the other holes in the arch
IV. slightly to the facial of the other holes in the arch

A

c

259
Q
which of the ff faults in class II restoration maybe predisposing factors to periodontal disease?
I. gingival overhang
II. weak proximal contact
III. broad contact faciolingually
IV. contact in gingival third
V. improperly shaped occlusal embrasure
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, Iv
b. I, II, III, V
c.  I, III, V
d.  II, IV, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V
A

e

260
Q
Inclusion of pins in an amalgam restoration results in an increase in
I. retention
II. reinforcement
III. tensile strength
IV. compressive strength
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, III, IV
d. I, IV
e. II only
A

a

261
Q
which of the ff influenced tooth temperature during a cutting procedure?
I. diameter of he bur
II. sharpness of the bur
III. bur/ tooth contact time
IV. type of coolant used
V. amount of force applied to the bur
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III,V
c. I, II, IV
d.  II, III, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V
A

e

262
Q

when preparing an MO cavity for an inlay on a maxillary first molar, the oblique should be crossed when
I. the ridge has a defective fissure
II. it is undermined by the carious lesion
III. there is incipient caries in the distal pit
IV. extension ino the distal pit is necessary for retention of the mesial restoration
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV

A

b

263
Q
when sealants are placed and maintained over pits of fissures, the effect on progression of carious lesions is the \_\_\_ lesions.
I. increased development of new
II. decreased development of new
III. no effect on development of new
IV. progression of pre-existing
V. decreased progression of pre-existing
VI.no effect on pre-existing
the correct answer is
a. I, IV
b. I, V
c. I, VI
d. II, IV
e. II, V
A

e

264
Q

the bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the oclussal aspect of a class II preparation on a mandibular first premolar in order to
I. removed unsupported enamel
II. prevent encroachment in the facial pulp horn
III. prevent encrachement on the lingual horn
IV. maintain dentinal supportof the lingual cusp
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. II, IV
d. III, IV
e. IV only

A

c

265
Q

threaded pins used in a dental amalagam restoration should be placed
I. at the dentinoenamel junction
II. approx. 1mm in depth at a position axail to the dentinoenamel junction
III. approx. 2mm in depth at a position axial to the dentinoenamel junction
IV. parallel to the external surface between the pulp and the tooth surface
V. occlusal to the bifurction to avoid entering the pulp
the correct answer is
a. I, II, V
b. I, III, IV
c. I, III, V
d. II, IV
e. III, IV

A

e

266
Q

the correct technique of enamel etching prior to placement of a composite resin restoration includes
I. etching with 60-70% phosphoric acid
II. etching with 30-50% phosphoric acid
III. rinsing thoroughly with water and drying with cotton pellets and air
IV. rinsing thorougly with water and drying with air only
V. rinsing thoroughly with water, drying with air, and applying a cavity-drying agent
the correct answer is
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. I, V
d. II, III
e. II, IV

A

e

267
Q

bevelling the enamel margin of a composite resin prearation is accomplished in order to
I. improve esthetics
II. improve wettablility of the surface during bonding
III. smooth the enamel and cavosurface margins
IV. expose the ends of the enamel rods for acid attact
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, IV
d. II, III
e. II, IV

A

c

268
Q

hyperemia is a state of pulp involvement characterized histologicallyby dilatation of blood vessels. when tooth has a hyperemic pulp, which of the ff is CORRECT?
I. pain of short duration may occur
II. tooth may respond ant low levels (decreased current ) to an electrical pup test
III. radiographs do not aid directly in diagnosis
IV. the condition is graviated by cold water
V. the condition is reversible
the correct answer is
a. I,II. III
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. III, IV, V
e. all of the above

A

e.

269
Q
which of the ff factor must be considered during treatment planning?
I. plaque control
II. age of the patient
III. caries susceptibility
IV. occlusion
V. fluoridation of the water supply
VI. economic status of the patient
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV 
d. II, IV, V
e. II, V, VI
f. all of the above
A

f.

270
Q
the use of  transilluminator is helpful in the detection of
I.  anteior proximal caries
II. occlusal caries
III. fracture lines in anteriors
IV. maxillary sinusitis
V. alveolar bone loss
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, III, IV
d. III, IV, V
e. all of the above
A

c.

271
Q
composite resins hve an advantage over conventional acrylic resin restoratives in
I. lower polymerization shrinkagge
II. bonding with enmel 
III. lower coefficient in thermal expansion
IV. lower solubility in oral fluids
V. greater strength
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III, V
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, IV
e. III, IV, V
f. all of the above
A

b.

272
Q
a porcelain jacket crown is CONTRAINDICATED when
I.  esthetics is essentials
II. strength is needed
III.patient is very young
IV. only incisal angle involving enamel is missing
V.  rreproduction of anatomic form is desirred
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b.I, III, IV, V
c. II, III
d. II, III, IV
e. II, IV, V
f. all of the above
A

d.

273
Q
when pins are included in an amalagam restoration,  there is an increase in
I. retention
II. compressive stregnth
III. tensile strength
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, III
d. all of the above
A

a.

274
Q
strength properties of zinc oxide eugenol cements for permanent centation are upgraded by which of the ff agents?
I. feldspar
II. polymers
III. ortho-ethozybenzoic acid
IV. zinc acetate
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III 
c. II, III
d. II, IV
e. III, IV
A

c.

275
Q

a porcelain fused to metal crown which has had the porcelain fracuredoff at the porcelain to metal interface may have had what technical or clinical problems?
I. trauma to the crown in the mouth with no laboratory errors
II. degrassing metal at a temperature which was too low
III.fusing opaque coat of porcelain at too low temperture or for too short time
IV. fusing metal conditioning agent at too low temperature or too short time
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III
e. II, III, IV
f. all of the above

A

e

276
Q
cavity varnish functions in which of the ff ways in the amalgam restoration?
I. improves margin seal
Ii. prevents discoloration of dentin
III. provides thermal protection
IV.  has a direct medicinal benefit on pulp tissue
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
A

a

277
Q
dental carries incidence may be expected to increase in  a given patient if
I.in between meal eating increases
II. pateint becomes pregnant
III. child moves from an eastern state to a southern state
IV. patient begins eating honey daily
V. patient has a remonvabl partial denture placed
VI. pateint get married
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, IV
d.  I, IV, V
e.I, IV, VI
f. all of he above
A

d.

278
Q

a tooth with a deep carious lesion and suspectted pulpal exposure is asymptomatic and test vital. the treatment for a teenager would be to
I. remove all carious dentin, culp cp exposed area if it is not too large
II. removal all carious dentin, do vital pulpectomy or pulpotomy with appropriate canal and chamber fills
III. allow some carious dentin to remain over the potential exposure area, protect the pulp
IV. immediately place amalgam as the permanent restoration
V. place a strong temporary , allowing a minimum of 12 weeks prior to comlete carious dentin removal
the correct answer is
a. I, IV
b. II, IV
c. III, IV
d. III, V
e. any of the above are acceptable treatment

A

d

279
Q
the pulp has several defense mechanisms to protect it from irritation. these include
I. sclerotic dentin
II. interglobular dentin
III. reparative dentin
IV. vascularity
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
A

c

280
Q

which of the ff factors wold tend to favor true adhesion of restorative materials to a tooth surface?
I. a restorative material with a high capacity of water resorption
II. little deffennce in the coefficient of thermal expansion between the tooth and restorative material
III. a clean tooth surface
IV. tooth readily wetted by restorative material
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II
c. I, IV
d. I, II, IV
e. II, III, IV

A

e

281
Q
placing cords in the gingival sulcus and removing them prior to makig impressions for cast gold restorations should accomplish which of the ff?
I. gingival margins of cavity preparations should be visible
II. the gingival tissues should be slightly away from the cavity margins to allow a bulk impression
III. blanching of the tissue
IV. control of bleeding from the crevice
V.  desiccation of gingival tissue
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, II,IV
d. I, II, IV, V
e. all of the above
A

c

282
Q

what effect does contamination by moisture during mixing or condensation have on amalgam containing zinc?
I. a marked expansion
II. a sharp decrease in flow
III. acceleration of the setting reaction
IV. no appreciable effect on the physical properties except susceptibility to tarnish
V. loss of compressive strength
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. I, II, III
c. I, V
d. IV only

A

c

283
Q

powdered gold offers the advantage of reduced chair time for placement over gold foil. this can be attributed to its GREATER

a. pellet size
b. malleability
c. cohesiveness
d. a mass per unit volume

A

d

284
Q

basically, the faciolingual plane of the axial wall of a class II cavity preparation should be

a. parallel t the dentino-enamel junction
b. placed at the dentini-enamel junction
c. straight
d. concave

A

a

285
Q

various techniques of pin placement area used with amalgam, reports suggest the optimal length of a pin into the amalgam is 2mm. it is geneally recogized the optimum retention of a self-threading pin in dentin is about ___mm.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b

286
Q

in cases of deep penetration of dental caries in maxillary posterior teeth, pulp pthology in BEST diagnsed radiographically by using a (n)

a. occlusal exposure
b. panoramic exposure
c. wet reading of a bitewing film
d. long cone bitewing exposure
e. long cone periapical exposure
f. short cone bitewing exposure
g. short cone periapical exposure

A

e

287
Q

in a class II cavity prepared for amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal walls should be formed

a. approx. parallel to each other
b. at right angles to th gingival floor
c. slight diverging as the walls pproach th eproximal surface
d. slightvdiverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface

A

c.

288
Q

shrinkage porosity in dental gold alloy casting is assoiated with the

a. sprue diameter
b. use of too much flux
c. inadequate casting pressure
d. oxidation of alloy during melting

A

a.

289
Q

which of the ff statements relating tot instruments for local anesthesia is (are ) CORRECT?
I. the anesthetic syringe is designed to support solution from commercially prepared glass carpules
II. the different cartridge type syringes are available for local anesthesia. these are the harpoon and the thumb- ring
III. anesthetic needles are supplied in lengths of 1 inch and 1 7/8 inch and are fastened to the syringe by threaded metal hubs of two lengths.
IV. difference in needle length make anesthetic needles are suitabe for injectons in different parts of the mouth
V. disposable needles are always sterile, always sharp, and less likely to break than other needles.
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. V only
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV, V

A

e.

290
Q

which o the ff statements relating to root elevators is (are)CORREC?
I. root elevators are instruments designed to loosen or remove roots, root fragments, or teeth
II. as with forceps, a variety of designs are available to suit different teeth, techniques and locatons in the mouth
III. the stout A elevator has a nib which is flat on one side and rounded on the other. the nib has stright tapering walls and a rounded end.
IV. the stright elevator No. 34s is straight and shaped like a gouge. in cross section, its nib is cresent shaped and one of the most commonly used elevators
V. straight elevator No. 301 is similar in shaped but smaller than No. 34s
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. V only
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV, V

A

e.

291
Q

which of the ff statements relating to curette is ( are ) CORRECT?
I.currretes are instruments designed to remove extraneous material frm toth sockets and other spaces in the alveolar bone.
II. their nibs are spoon shaped and their shanks are angles to reach different area in the mouth
III.standard currets includes Molt currettes 1, 2, 4, 5,L ,6R, 9L and 10R
IV.rongeur forceps are cutting insruments designed to cut and contour bone. springs located between their handes separate their breaks when closing pressure is not being applied.
V. rongeur No. 1A is a side and end-cutting instruments; Rongeur No. 4A is a side-cutting instrument.
the correct answer is
a. I only
b. V only
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV, V

A

e.