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Endoperio 1 Flashcards

1
Q

a type of periapical diagnosis wherein its sign and symptom is that there is painful response to biting and percussion

A

Acute Apical Periodontitis (AAP)

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2
Q

(9) Ovoid root canal opening

A

maxillary: LI, Canine, 1PM and 2PM
mandibular: CI, LI, Canine, 1PM and 2PM

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3
Q

aka non vital or internal bleaching

A

intracoronal bleaching

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4
Q

removal of the entire root, leaving the crown intact

A

root resection

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5
Q

separation of a multirooted tooth through the furcation in such a way that a root and the associated portion of the crown may be removed

A

hemisection

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6
Q

a vital pulp therapy procedure performed to allow continued physiologic development and formation of the root

A

apexogenesis

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7
Q

when the apical protion of the root with periradicular pathosis cannot be cleaned, shaped and obturated

A

root-end resection

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8
Q

the most apical end of the root

A

anatomical apex

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9
Q

locate about 0.5mm from the apical foramen in the area of DCJ

A

apical constriction

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10
Q

termed as the “natural stop”

A

apical constriction

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11
Q

instrument usd to remove pulp tissue from wide root canals

A

broach

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12
Q

his tightly spiraled cutting edges that cut either in reaming or a push-and-pull filing motion

A

K-files

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13
Q

manufactured by cutting the spiral flutes into the shaft of a tapered wire to produce elevated cutting edges that appear to form a series of intersecting cones

A

hedstrom file

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14
Q

file that is used in pulling strokes only (withdrawal stroke)

A

hedstrom file

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15
Q

manufactured by cutting the spiral flutes into a round wire of superelastic nickel titanium alloy

A

NiTi file

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16
Q

a bisbiguanide antiseptic agent is used to kill or inhibit microorganism

A

Chlorhexidine (CHX)

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17
Q

this aqueous solution removes inorganic ions such as calcium to demineralize and soften the dentin

A

EDTA

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18
Q

EDTA is short for?

A

ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

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19
Q

half turn twist and pull (clockwise) file

A

reamer

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20
Q

manufactured by twisting a tapered, triangular or square wire to for, an instrument with sharp cutting edges
used to enlarge the root canal

A

reamer

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21
Q

distance between apical foramen and apical apex = 0.5mm

A

apical foramen

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22
Q

what root is usually the most difficult to locate?

A

MB root of Max 1st molar

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23
Q

is the displacement of the tooth from its original position in the alveolus, without total avulsion, resulting from acute trauma

A

luxation

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24
Q

used to fill the discrepancies between the canal walls and core materials

A

sealers

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25
Q

used to obturate root canals in conjunction with sealers

A

gutta percha

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26
Q

odorless, basic, white powder

A

calcium hydroxide

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27
Q

for calcification and inhibit resorption

A

calcium hydroxide

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28
Q

complete dislodgement of a tooth out of its socket by traumatic injury

A

avulsion

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29
Q

partial axial displacement out of its socket

A

extrusive luxation

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30
Q

fractured alveolar socket

A

lateral luxation

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31
Q

partial axial displacement into the socket and can be accompanied by fractured alveolar socket

A

intrusive luxation

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32
Q

sensitivity to percussion but little or no mobility and no displacement

A

subluxation

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33
Q

treatment for concussion

A

no treatment 😝

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34
Q

treatment for subluxation

A

flexible splint can be placed for the px’s comfort 7-10 days

RCT if the tooth becomes symptomatic or it shows necrosis, periodontitis or resorption

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35
Q

treatment for extrusion

A

reposition the tooth

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36
Q

treatment for lateral luxation

A

stabilize the tooth with a flexible splint for 3 weeks

RCT if the tooth becomes symptomatic or it shows necrosis, periodontitis, ankylosis or resorption

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37
Q

treatment for intrusive luxation

A

slightly luxate the tooth with forceps
spontaneous reposition if incomplete root formation or orthodontic repositioning if complete root formation or surgical repositioning
perform prophylactic RCT = 1-3 weeks after injury

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38
Q

part of the masticatory mucosa which cover the attachment apparatus

A

gingiva

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39
Q

color of gingiva

A

coral pink

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40
Q

consistency of gingiva

A

resilient and fibrotic in nature

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41
Q

texture of gingiva

A

stippling of the attached gingiva (least favorable factor) should be present

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42
Q

contour of the gingiva

A

gingival margins should be scalloped in form and firmly attached (healthy gingiva)

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43
Q

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium in the gingiva

A

oral epithelium

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44
Q

nonkeratinized thin squamous epithelium without presence of rete pegs

A

sulcular epithelium

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45
Q

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

collar like band of stratified squamous epithelium

A

junctional epithelium

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46
Q

how many cells are present in the junctional epithelium near the sulcus?

A

10-29 cells

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47
Q

how many cells are present in the junctional epithelium at the apical end?

A

2-3 cells

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48
Q

junctional epithelium are attached via?

A

hemidesmosomes

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49
Q

transudate that emerges from the gingival sulcus

A

GCF

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50
Q

GCF stands for?

A

gingivocrevicular fluid

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51
Q

it will become exudate if there is an inflammation

A

GCF

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52
Q

gingival fibers are composed of what type of collagen?

A

type I collagen

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53
Q

refers to the irregular surface texture of the attached gingiva similar to the surface of an orange peel

A

stipplings

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54
Q

stipplings are not usually visible at the age of?

A

6 years old

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55
Q

result from the absence of stipplings

A
  1. edema pf the underlying connective tissue
  2. inflammatory degradation of gingival collagen fibers
  3. normal variation in gingival topography
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56
Q

collar tissue that is not attached to the tooth or alveolar bone

A

free gingiva

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57
Q

most coronal portion of the gingiva

A

gingival margin

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58
Q

demarcation of the free gingiva to attached gingiva

A

free gingival groove

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59
Q

shallow groove between the marginal gingiva and the tooth surface

A

gingival sulcus

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60
Q

bound by sulcular epithelium lateral and JE (junctional epithelium) apically

A

gingival sulcus

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61
Q

the gingiva that occupies the interdental space coronal to the alveolar crest

A

interdental gingiva

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62
Q

present between the free gingiva and alveolar mucosa

A

attached gingiva

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63
Q

separates attached gingiva from the alveolar mucosa

A

mucogingival junction

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64
Q

radiographic evident which is most accurate for bone loss assessment

A

bitewing

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65
Q

measurement in mm from the gingical margin down to the deepest point reached by the probe

A

periodontal pocket depth

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66
Q

probing force

A

25g

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67
Q

measurement in mm from the CEJ down to the deepest point reached by the probe

A

attachment loss

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68
Q

allows slight movement of tooth to accomodate masticatory forces

A

physiologic tooth mobility

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69
Q

increased mobility as a result of connective tissue attachment loss

A

pathologic mobility

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70
Q

Miller’s classification wherein there is > or = 1mm mobility

A

grade II

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71
Q

Miller’s classification wherein there is horizontal mobility

A

grade I

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72
Q

Miller’s classification wherein there is > 2mm and vertical mobility

A

grade III

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73
Q

Glickman furcation classification (Naber’s probe) wherein there is incipient bone loss. furcation probe can feel the depression of the furcation opening

A

grade I

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74
Q

Glickman furcation classification (Naber’s probe) wherein there is partial bone loss. probe enters under the roof ofthe furcation

A

grade II

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75
Q

Glickman furcation classification (Naber’s probe) wherein there is total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation. not visible clinically

A

grade III

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76
Q

Glickman furcation classification (Naber’s probe) wherein it is like grade III furcation but it is visible clinically

A

grade IV

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77
Q

hard bristle toothbrush is capable of causing gingival recession and abrasion

A

toothbrush trauma

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78
Q

v shaped notches inthe cervical area of the teeth and gingival cleft

A

toothbrush trauma

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79
Q

most prominent teeth in the dental arch that acquires toothbrush trauma

A

canines and premolars

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80
Q

drugs that causes gingival overgrowth

A

(1)phenytion, (2) nifedipine, (3) cyclosporine

others:
Ca channel blockers (verpamil, felodipine, diltazem, amlodipine)
Mycophenolate (immunosuppressant)
Sertraline (antidepressant)
Pimozide (antipsychotic)
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81
Q

condition where pocketing occurs without attachment loss

A

pseudopocketing

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82
Q

there is an expansion of gingival coronally NOT apically

A

pseudopocketing

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83
Q

vascular phase of inflammation

A

initially starts with VASOCONSTRICTION
-> complement system activation and mediator release: c3b -> c5a -> histamine -> vasodilation -> hyperemia -> increased vascular permeability

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84
Q

cellular phase of inflammation

A

adhesion -> margination -> diapedesis -> chemotaxis -> phagocytosis
neutrophils -> macrophages -> lymphocytes/eosinophils

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85
Q

its objective is to provide a smooth, clean, hard polished root surface

A

scaling and root planing

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86
Q

best criterion for the succes of scaling and root planing is?

A

no evidence of bleeding on probing (BOP)

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87
Q

narrow, delicate instrument having either one or two cutting edges or working surfaces
end of the edges: rounded
smaller than scalers
provide atraumatic entry to the subgingival space

A

peridontal curette

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88
Q

peridontal pockets are NOT caused by Occlusal Trauma

A

walang sagot. additional information lang. hihihihi 😊😁😬💁🏻

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89
Q

excessive force applied applied to the teth with normal structures

A

primary occlusal trauma

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90
Q

excessive force to the teeth with inadequate support

A

secondary occlusal trauma

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91
Q

eliminate prematurities first in centric relation -> protrusive movements -> lateral excursive movements

A

selective grinding

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92
Q

aggressive, repetitive and continuous grinding, gritting or clenching of the teeth

A

bruxism

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93
Q

treatment for bruxism

A

nightguard

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94
Q

etiology of gingiva and periodontal diseases

A

microbial plaque

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95
Q

functions as a protective barrier against dessication and also substrate for bacterial attachment

A

pellicle

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96
Q

what are the process of plaque formation?

A
  1. molecular adsorption
  2. bacterial adhesion
  3. sequential adsorption
  4. growth of extracellular matrix
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97
Q

indicated on permanent teeth with IMMATURE APICES
no particular pathoses
6-8 months
application of calcium hydroxide or MTA

A

indirect pulp capping

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98
Q

what type of bacteria adheres in the initial colonization in plaque formation?

A

gram (+) facultative anaerobic cocci

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99
Q

in sequential adsorption in the process of plaque formation, gram (+) bacteria shift to?

A

gram (-) bacteria obligate anaerobic bacteria

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100
Q

what bacteria are present in the growth of extracellular matrix in the process of plaque formation?

A

gram (+) rods particularly actinomycetes

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101
Q

how does plaque cause disease?

day 0? day 2-4? day 6-10?

A

day 0: gram (+) cocci and rods
day 2-4: cocci still present but RODS and FILAMENTS increase
day 6-10: presence of VIBRIOS and SPIROCHETES

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102
Q

mineralized plaque formed by bathing in a highly concentrated solution of calcium and phosphorus

A

calculus

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103
Q

how much inorganic components are present in calculus?

A

70-90%

2/3 of inorganic is made up of crystalline in structure

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104
Q

deposits found below the free gingival margin

A

subgingival calcular deposits

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105
Q

deposits found above the free gingival margin

A

supragingival calcular deposits

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106
Q

deposits are usually white or pale yellow

A

supragingival calcular deposits

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107
Q

deposits are usually dark due to pigments

A

subgingival calcular deposits

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108
Q

58% hydroxyappatite crystals are usually detected in?

A

in all supragingival calculus

109
Q

magnesium whitelock (21%) are usually located in?

A

posterior areas

110
Q

octocalcium phosphate (12%) are detected in?

A

supragingival calculus

111
Q

9% brushite are located in?

A

mandibular anterior region

112
Q

associated with plaque
no loss of attachment
no bone loss

A

gingivitis

113
Q

stages of developing gingivitis

A
  1. transient stage
  2. developing stage
  3. chronic stage
  4. advance stage
114
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein it occurs within 2-4 days after cessation of oral hygiene

A

transient stage

115
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein PMN are predominant cells

A

transient stage

116
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein LYMPHOCYTES are the predominant cells

A

developing stage

117
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein area of collagen destruction becomes larger and is occupied by fluid that contains proteins (fibrin, IgA)

A

developing stage

118
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein the cytologic characteristics of the inflammatory infiltrate in the gingival lamina propria are changed

A

chronic stage

119
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein plasma cells are the predominant cells

A

chronic stage

120
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein the initial stage of periodontitits starts

A

advance stage

121
Q

stage in gingivitis wherein changes within the supportive bone occurs as the inflammatory process continues

A

advance stage

122
Q

most common complaint of pregnancy gingivitis

A

gingival bleeding

123
Q

etioloy of pregnancy gingivitis

A

increase circulation levels of estrogen, and progesterone

124
Q

treatment of pregnancy gingivitis

A

oral hygiene and scaling

125
Q

characterized by interproximal necrosis and pseudomembrane formation on marginal tissue

A

ANUG (acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)

126
Q

other terms for ANUG? (2)

A

vincent’s infection/ vincent’s stomatitis

trench mouth

127
Q

affects only the gingiva

soreness, bleeding gums and FETID ODOR

A

ANUG

128
Q

treatment for ANUG

A

debridement, hydrogen peroxide rinses and antibiotic therapy

129
Q

most superficial layer consisting of bacteria in the histopathology of gingivitis

A

bacterial zone

130
Q

dead cells and a fibrin meshwork predominate in the histopathology of gingivitis

A

necrotic zone

131
Q

connective tissue inflammation because of spirochetes in the histopathology of gingivitis

A

zone of spirochetal infiltration

132
Q

gingivitis infected with HIV

A

HIV gingivitis

133
Q

gingivitis characterized by a defined linear marginal gingival erythema

A

HIV gingivitis

134
Q

inflammation of the periodontium

A

periodontitis

135
Q

histologically, it is marked by apical migration of the junctional epithelium from the CEJ, loss of CT attachment, loss of periodontal ligament and destruction of bone

A

periodontitis

136
Q

type of peridontitis wherein there are

A

localized periodontitis

137
Q

type of peridontitis wherein there are >30% of the sites involved

A

generalized periodontitis

138
Q

range of clinical attachment loss of slight periodontitis

A

1 or 2mm

139
Q

range of clinical attachment loss of moderate periodontitis

A

3-4mm

140
Q

range of clinical attachment loss of severe periodontitis

A

> 5mm

141
Q

stages of periodontitis

A
  1. early
  2. moderate
  3. advanced
142
Q

stage of periodontitis wherein there are areas of localized erosion of the alveolar bone crest

A

early

143
Q

stage of periodontitis wherein there is rounding of the junction between the crest and lamina dura in posterior region

A

early

144
Q

stage of periodontitis wherein there is destruction of alveolar bone beyond early changes

A

moderate

145
Q

stage of periodontitis wherein it may include the buccal or lingual plate, generalized horizontal or vertical defects and possible tooth mobility

A

moderate

146
Q

stage of periodontitis wherein bone loss is extensive that the remaining teeth show excessive mobility and drifting

A

advance

147
Q

2 bacteria that predominate generalized aggressive periodontitis

A

prevotella

eikenella corrodens

148
Q

type of aggressive periodontitis that occurs between ages 12-25 and is characterized by rapid, severe periodontal destruction

A

generalized AP

149
Q

type of aggressive periodontitis which has a weak serum response

A

generalized AP

150
Q

type of aggressive periodontitis which has a strong serum response

A

localized AP

151
Q

2 bacteria that are present in the localized aggressive periodontitis

A

AA and capnocytophagia

152
Q

slow progressive disease

formerly known as adult periodontitis

A

chronic periodontitis

153
Q

type of chronic periodontitis that occures in 30% or more of the sites

A

generalized CP

154
Q

type of chronic periodontitis that occures in less than 30% of the sites

A

localized CP

155
Q

eliminate periodontal pockets by changing the existing bony topography

A

osseous surgery

156
Q

peridontal surgery that DOES NOT CURE PERIODONTAL DISEASE

A

osseous surgery

157
Q

bone taken from patient’s own body

A

autograft

158
Q

bone taken from another person, same species

A

allograft

159
Q

bone taken from another species like Bovine bone

A

xenograft

160
Q

termed as synthetic bone

A

alloplast

161
Q

reshape the gingiva and papilla of a tooth for correction of deformities

A

gingivoplasty

162
Q

procedure in which pocket depth is eliminated by resecting the tissue coronal to the pocket base

A

gingivectomy

163
Q

contraindications of gingivectomy

A

infrabone pockets and lack of keratinized tissue

164
Q

Okay?

A

Okay. 🌠🌠🌠

165
Q

creates a space via placement of nonresorbable or resorbable barrier over a bony defect

A

guided tissue regeneration (GTR)

166
Q

periodontal flap surgery before scaling and root planing (SRP)

A

modified widman flap

167
Q

full thickness flap used for debridement

A

modified widman flap

168
Q

heals by repair usually via long JE and CT adhesion or attachment

A

modified widman flap

169
Q

periodontal surgery used for gaining access in underlying roots

A

modified widman flap

170
Q

full thickness flap is elevated and necessary

A

apical positioned flap

171
Q

the gingiva is reposition at the crest of the bone

A

apical positioned flap

172
Q

it requires vertical incision

to ensure that there will be no pocket remains

A

apically positioned flap

173
Q

reduces excess tissue and provides access for underlying bone

A

distal wedge procedure

174
Q

performed in maxillary tuberosity, retromolar triangle and distal to the last tooth in the arch

A

distal wedge procedure

175
Q

prevents ingrowth of long junctional epithelium and gingival connective tissue
retrieved after 6-10 weeks

A

GTR

176
Q

in guided tissue regeneration (GTR), is polyetrafluoroethylene resorbable or nonresorbable?

A

nonresorbable

177
Q

in guided tissue regeneration (GTR), is collagen, calcium sulfate and polyacetic acid resorbable or nonresorbable?

A

resorbable

178
Q

reshaping or recontouring of the bone

does not provide attachment for the perio fibers

A

osteoplasty

179
Q

removal of bone defects or infrabony pockets

A

ostectomy

180
Q

root amputation is indicated for what teeth?

A

max molars usually 1st and 2nd

181
Q

should root amputation be done with RCT or not?

A

root amputation MUST BE done with RCT

182
Q

vertical splitting of the tooth

A

hemisection

183
Q

should hemisection be done with RCT or not?

A

hemisection MUST BE done with RCT

184
Q

hemisection is indicated for what teeth?

A

mandibular molar teeth

185
Q

donor tissue is in edentulous region or palatal area

A

autogenous free gingival graft

186
Q

the greatest amount of shrinkage of autogenous free gingival graft occurs within how many weeks?

A

within the first 6 weeks

187
Q

complications of autogenous free gingival graft?

A

disruption of vascular supply and infection

188
Q

procedure is indicated whenever the clinical crown length is inadequate for the restoration

A

crown lengthening

189
Q

in crown lengthening, it should have _____ between the margin of the preparation and the crest of the bone to ensure adequate crown

A

3mm

190
Q

in crown lengthening, it should maintain the biological width of how many millimeters?

A

2.04mm

191
Q

if there is presence of inflammation in the PDL, what kind of physical examination should you use?

A

percussion test

192
Q

what kind of physical examination should you use if inflammation spreads to the overlying periodontium?

A

palpation

193
Q

provides information if there is a root fracture or pathosis of pulpal in origin

A

periodontal probing

194
Q

long term progression of cracked tooth

A

split tooth

195
Q

endodontically treated teeth are more susceptible to this fracture

A

vertical root fracture

196
Q

MD in direction

pain in chewing and thermal stimulus is common

A

cracked tooth

197
Q

most common teeth to be affected in cracked tooth?

A

mandibular molars

198
Q

diagnostic tests to be used in cracked tooth?

A

tactile examination

“tooth slot” bite test

199
Q

how would you execute tactile examination in cracked tooth?

A

scratch the tooth surface with a sharp explorer = elicit painful response

200
Q

treatment indicated on permanent teeth with IMMATURE APICES
no periradicular pathoses
6-8 months

A

indirect pulp capping

201
Q

what will you apply in indirect pulp capping?

A

calcium hydroxide or MTA

202
Q

mechanical or traumatic vital exposure as long as hemorrhage is easily controlled

A

direct pulp capping

203
Q

both indirect and direct pulp capping will induce the formation of?

A

reparative dentin

204
Q

surgical removal of the coronal portion of a vital pulp

A

pulpotomy

205
Q

treatment used if there is irreversible pulpitis of primary teeth
if in permanent, it may cause canal obliteration

A

pulpotomy

206
Q

procedural complication that arises when there is inadequate use of irrigant and lack of attention to preparation of glide path

A

ledge

207
Q

procedural complication wherein there is mechanical or pathologic communication between the root canal system and the external tooth surface

A

perforation

208
Q

persistent periradicular pathosis following RCT

A

root-end resection

209
Q

most widely used intracoronal bleaching agent

A

superoxol

210
Q

procedure of intracoronal bleaching

A
  1. rubber dam isolation
  2. application of cement barrier in the cervical area
  3. bleaching
  4. temporary restoration
  5. monitor for color change in 3-4 days
  6. if +, remove!
211
Q

in intracoronal bleaching, you may also use ________ mixed with saline

A

sodium perborate

212
Q

removal of tooth discoloration using chemical oxidizing agents

A

intracoronal bleaching

213
Q

create an apical barrier in a necrotic tooth with an open apex

A

apexification

214
Q

application of what paste will you use in apexification?

A

CALCIUM HYDROXIDE PASTE

other method: MTA

215
Q

how many months will apexification usually last?

A

3-6 months

216
Q

procedure in apexogenesis

A
  1. coronal access
  2. pulp amputation
  3. control the hemorrhage
  4. place CaOH over the radicular pulp stump
  5. place coronal filling
  6. recall every 3 months
  7. there should be dentinal bridge and continued apical development
  8. then RCT is indicated
217
Q

(3) triangular root canal anatomy

A

maxillary: CI, 1st molar, 2nd molar

218
Q

(2) trapezoidal root canal anatomy

A

mandibular: 1st molar, 2nd molar

219
Q

root canal instrumentation and obturation should stop about _____ short of the radiographic apex

A

1.0 mm

220
Q

cut aggressively than K-files BUT MORE PRONE TO BREAKAGE

A

hedstrom file

221
Q

composed of a slender stainless steel shank with a cutting bulb and pilot-tip

A

gates-glidden bur

222
Q

designed so that a fracture occurs near the hub rather than between the shank and the cutting bulb

A

gates-glidden bur

223
Q

size of the cutting bulb of the gates-glidden bur

A

0.5-1.5 mm in diameter

224
Q

clear, pale, greenish yellow, strongly alkaline liquid with a chlorine order

A

sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)

225
Q

has a solvent action in organic tissue and debris and is a potent ANTIMICROBIAL agent

A

sodium hypochlorite

226
Q

concentration of irrigating solution of choice

A

0.5-5.25%

227
Q

bleaching effect percentage

A

> 5.25%

228
Q

irrigating solution less toxic than NaOCl

A

chlorhexidine (CHX)

229
Q

brand name of chlorhexidine

A

peridex (12%)

230
Q

also used for removing smear layer before obturation

A

EDTA

231
Q

active ingredient in root canal preparation

A

EDTA

232
Q

interappointment dressing

A

calcium hydroxide

233
Q

an odorless, basic white powder for calcification and inhibiting resorption

A

calcium hydroxide

234
Q

used to obturate root canals in conjunction with sealers

A

gutta percha

235
Q

gutta percha is pliable at room temp and plastic at ____F

A

140F

236
Q

gutta percha is dissolved in solvents such as

A

chloroform, xylol, eucalyptol

237
Q

used to fill the discrepancies between the canal walls and core materials

A

sealers

238
Q

if extra oral dry time is >60 minutes, what would you do?

A

DO NOT REPLANT!

239
Q

what is the function of metallic salts in gutta percha?

A

to make the gutta percha radiopaque in the radiograph

240
Q

best medium for avulsed tooth re implantation

A

hank’s balanced salt solution or milk

241
Q

other medium used for avulsed tooth to be reimplanted

A

saline and saliva

242
Q

normal intrapulpal pressure

A

5-14mmHg

243
Q

irreversible pulpitis pressure

A

35 mmHg

244
Q

when patient is lying down, there is pain elicited on the tooth. this indicates?

A

irreversible pulpitis

245
Q

percussion per cusp

A

tooth sloth bite test

246
Q

if cracked tooth is left untreated, it may lead to

A

split tooth

247
Q

complication that may arise in lateral compaction

A

vertical root fracture

248
Q

also known as apicoectomy

A

root end resection

249
Q

tx for direct and indirect pulp capping

A

CaOH or MTA (mineral trioxide aggregate)

250
Q

depth to pulpal horn in pulpotomy

A

1.8mm

251
Q

removing specific pulp infected

A

CVEK’S PULPOTOMY

252
Q

if there is profused bleeding in pulpotomy

A
  1. cut small portion of periradicular pulp
  2. observe if there is still bleeding
  3. if there is still bleeding, cut again
253
Q

for pulpotomy

A

Buckley’s formocresol

under formocresol:

  1. formaldehyde
  2. tricresol
  3. glycerine
254
Q

pulpotomy for permanent

A

CaOH

255
Q

pulpotomy for primary teeth

A

formocresol

256
Q

calcium hydroxide may lead to

A

internal root resorption

257
Q

other term for internal root resorption

A

pink tooth of mummary

258
Q

poorest prognosis in perforation

A

perforation in bifurcation

259
Q

apicoectomy procedure

A
  1. flap
  2. bone
  3. trephination
  4. MTA
260
Q

aka hemisection

A

premolarization

261
Q

bleaching agent for non viral

A

sodium perborate

262
Q

bleaching agent for vital teeth

A

hydrogen peroxide

263
Q

most common adverse effect of RCT

A

discoloration

264
Q

2 types of bleaching techniques

A

in-office

walk-in

265
Q

other term for in-office non vital bleaching

A

thermocatalytic bleaching

266
Q

other term for in-office vital bleaching

A

power bleaching

267
Q

mechanism of hydrogen peroxide in bleaching

A

oxidation of organic pigments

268
Q

rubber dam while bleaching to avoid

A

cervical resorption or external cervical resorption

, .supercram (16 decks)

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