Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

, .supercram > orthopedo super review > Flashcards

orthopedo super review Flashcards

1
Q

maxillary canine lies between the mandibular canine and 1st premolar

A

class I / neutrocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

other term for class I classification of occlusion

A

neutrocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar falls between the mandibular 1st molar and the 2nd premolar

A

class II / distocclusion / retrognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

maxillary canine is mesial to the mandibular canine

A

class II / distocclusion / retrognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

other term for class II classification of occlusion

A

distocclusion/retrognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

classification of occlusion wherein the maxillary incisor is in extreme labioversion (protruded)

A

class II division I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

classification of occlusion wherein the maxillary incisor is tipped palatally and in retruded position. the maxillary lateral are typically tipped labially or mesially

A

class II division II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar falls between the mandibular 1st molar and the 2nd molar

A

class III / mesiocclusion / prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the maxillary canine is distal to the mandibular canine

A

class III / mesiocclusion / prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the overjet of a class III classification of occlusion is ____ or ____

A

0mm or negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

other term for class III classification of occlusion

A

mesiocclusion/ prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

situation in which the patient adopts a js position upon closure which is forward to normal

A

pseudo class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a pseudoclass III usually exhibits what type of bite

A

edge-to-edge bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the normal overjet

A

1-2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

normal overbite

A

2-3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

speech difficulties related to malocclusion wherein there is anterior open bite, large gap between incisors

A

S, Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

speech difficulties related to malocclusion wherein there are irregular incisors (lingual position of maxillary incisors)

A

T, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

speech difficulties related to malocclusion wherein skeletal class III is present

A

F, V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

speech difficulties related to malocclusion wherein there is presence of anterior open bite

A

Th, Sh, Ch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

signs of incipient malocclusion

A
  1. lack of interdental spacing in th primary dentition
  2. crowding of permanent incisors the mixed dentition
  3. premature loss of primary canine (mandibular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

causes tipping, migration, and rotation of adjacent teth into edentulous space

A

molar uprighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

long term loss of _________ causes molar uprighting

A

mandibular permanent 1st molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

best treatment for molar uprighting

A

tipping the crown of 2nd molar distally and opening up space for a pontic to replace 1st molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bracket slot size for molar uprighting treatment

A

0.022 inches (0.018inches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

time frame for molar uprighting treatment

A

6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

used to diagnose tooth-to-tooth, bone-to-bone and tooth-to-bone relationships

A

cephalometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

used to show the amount and direction of craniofacial growth to analyze treatment results

A

lateral cephalometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

dentition analysis to predict the size of the unerupted 345 through calculations

A

MDA (mixed dentition analysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

dentition analysis for the ratio of total mandibular versus total maxillary tooth size; estimate overbite and overjet

A

Bolton’s analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

dentition analysis to determine if crowding is due to inadequate apical bases based on measurement on apical base width at premolar

A

Howe’s analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

dentition analysis tests if FL > MD = broader contact areas which will result in more stable and resistant crowding

A

peck and peck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

dentition analysis suggests ideal maxillary 456 arch form based on MD diameter of maxillary 21/12

A

Pont’s index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

dentition analysis classified teeth into small, medium and large

A

Sanim-Savarra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary 1st molar lines up with the buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar

A

class I / neutrocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

it is the highest point in the concavity behind the occipital condyle

A

Bolton (Bo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the most forward and highest point of the anterior margin of foramen magnum

A

Basion (Ba)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the point of intersection of the contour of the posterior cranial base and the posterior cranial base and the posterior contour of the condylar process

A

Articulare (Ar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

outer upper margin of the external auditory canal

A

Portion (Po)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the midpoint of sella turcica

A

Sella (S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

lowest point of the inferior margin of the orbit

A

orbitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

innermost point of contour or premaxilla between the incisor and ANS

A

point A (subspinale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

innermost on the contour of the mandible between incisor and bony chin

A

point B (supramentale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the most anterior point of the contour of the chin

A

pogonion (Pog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

most inferior part of the manndibular symphysis

A

mention (Me)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lowest most posterior point on the mandible with the teeth in occlusion

A

gonion (Go)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

plane from porion to orbitale

A

Frankfurt horizontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

best horizontal orientation from which to asses the lateral representation of the skull

A

Frankfurt horizontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

plane from nasion to pogonion

A

facial plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

plane from gonion and mention

A

mandibular plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Angle from the mandibular plane to the sella-nasion line (SN plane)

A

mandibular plane angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

mandibular plane angle with long vertical dimension and ANTERIOR OPEN BITE

A

steep mandibular plane angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mandibular plane angle with short anterior facial vertical dimension and DEEP BITE

A

flat mandibular plane angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

if the SNA angle is >84 degrees, it indicates

A

maxillary prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

if the SNB angle is

A

mandibular retrognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

if the ANB is 2-4 degrees, it indicates

A

class I skeletal pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

indications of a removable, functional and fixed appliance

A
  1. limited tipping movement
  2. retention after comprehensive movements
  3. growth modification during the mixe dentition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

major components of removable appliance

A
  1. retentive components like Adams clasp, ball clasp, c clasp, and arrow clasp
  2. framework or baseplate - made up of acrylic and provides anchorage
  3. active component or tooth moving component - consists of springs, jack screws or elastics
  4. anchorage component - this resists force of active component
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

usually used in skeletal class II growing patients to hold growth of maxilla back and to allow mandible to catch up

A

headgears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how many hours per day should you use a headgear?

A

10-14 hours/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

treatment length of headgear?

A

6-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

headcap connected to Facebow. DISTAL and INTRUSIVE force on the maxillary molars and maxilla

A

high pull headgear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

neck strap connect to the Facebow. DISTAL and EXTRUSIVE force on maxillary teeth and maxilla

A

cervical pull headgear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Same as cervical pull headgear. DISTAL direction ONLY

A

straight pull headgear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

skeletal class III malocclusion to protract maxilla

A

reverse-pull headgear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

designed to modify growth during mixed dentition for both dental and skeletal effects

A

functional appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

tooth-borne appliance that advances the mandible to an edge-to-edge position to stimulate mandibular growth for class II

A

bionator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

tooth-borne appliance wherein maxillary and mandibular framework are splinted together via pin and tube that holds the mandible forward

A

herbst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ONLY tissue-borne appliance

A

frankel functional appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

it alters both mandibular posture and contour of facial soft tissue

A

frankel functional appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

4 basic components of fixed appliance

A
  1. bands
  2. brackets
  3. archwires
  4. auxiliaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

it is a horizontally positioned slot

A

edgewise appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

double wings for increased rotational and tip control of roots

A

Siamese twin brackets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

vertically positioned slot

A

Begg appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

it is a variation of edgewise appliance

A

straight-wire appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

bracket thickness should be equal to

A

thickness of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

angulation of the bracket should be equal to?

A

long axis of the tooth angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

the torque in the bracket slot should be equal to

A

the inclination of facial surface of the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

before bonding, tooth should be etched with?

A

35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

______ are used to cement bands because of their fluoride release

A

GI cements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

advantages of bands from brackets

A
  1. better resist breakage, especially in areas of heavy mastication
  2. teeth need both lingual/palatal and buccal attachments
  3. teeth with short clinical crowns
  4. teeth with diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

properties of archwires

A
  1. high strength
  2. low stiffness
  3. high range
  4. high formability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

alloy composition of archwires

A

a. stainless and cobalt chromium alloy
b. Ni-Ti
c. beta-Ti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

clinically when teeth are on the wrong side of the opposing dentition
it can be skeletal, dental or functional in origin

A

crossbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

crossbite origin wherein it has a smooth closure to centric occlusion

A

skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

origin of crossbite wherein it demonstrates a deviation in maxillary and mandibular midlines as the patient closes

A

functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

crossbite may be associated with

A

a. heredity
b. Max/mand jaw size discrepancies
c. bad oral habits
d. labially situated supernumerary tooth, trauma, or arch length discrepancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what may result if there is prolonged retention of primary teeth?

A

anterior crossbite of one or more permanent incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

anterior crossbite = ???

A

skeletal or developing class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

posterior crossbite = ???

A

mandibular shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tx for anterior crossbite

A

skeletal - protraction of facemask (if not managed earlier before growth, orthognatic surgery!)
dental - bonded-resin composite slopes and reverses stainless steel crowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

tx for posterior crossbite

A

palatal expansion 2x a day (0.25mm each turn)

after activation, expander remains in the mouth for 3-6 months = for midpalatal suture region will be formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

opposite arches cannot be brought into occlusion

skeletal or dental in origin

A

open bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

usually caused by finger habit

maxillary constriction due to pressure on buccinator muscle

A

anterior open bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

tx for early manifestation of open bite

A

habit control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

orthodontic appliance for open bite

A

a. tongue crib
b. bluegrass
c. transpalatal bar - to reduce vertical eruption
d. high pull facebows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is the best space maintainer?

A

NATURAL TOOTH!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

prevents mesial migration of the primary 2nd molar

A

band and loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

when the primary second molar is lost prior to the eruption of ther permanent 1st molar, this is the space maintainer preferred

A

distal shoe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

this is used after multiple primary teeth are missing and the permanent incisors are erupted

A

lingual arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

used for bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars

A

nance appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

prevents mesial rotation and drift of the permanent maxillary molars

A

nance appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

bilateral posterior space maintenance prior to eruption of permanent incisors

A

partial denture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

recommended appliance for thumb/finger sucking

A

palatal crib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

recommended appliance for hyperactive mentalis

A

lip bumper/ plumber/ Mayne/ Denholtz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

recommended appliance for cheek/lip biting

A

oral screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

recommended appliance for tongue thrusting

A

tongue crib

107
Q

recommended appliance for mouth breathing

A

oral vestibular screen/shield

108
Q

it determines the future antero-posterior position of the permanent 1st molars

A

primary molar relationships

109
Q

normal relationship

cause cusp-to-cusp relation of permanent maxillary and mandibular molars

A

flush terminal plane

110
Q

distal step = Angle class ___

A

Angle class II

111
Q

mesial step = Angle class ___

A

Angle class I

112
Q

primate space in maxillary arch

A

between lateral and canine

113
Q

primate space in mandibular arch

A

between canine and 1st molar

114
Q

diastema causes:

A

a. tooth size discrepancy
b. mesiodens
c. abnormal frenal attachment

115
Q

if diastema is _____ or less the lateral incisors are in good position

A

2mm

116
Q

treatment if diastema is caused by abnormal frenal attachment

A

align the teeth first then frenectomy after canines have erupted

117
Q

normal change that may result in increase or decrease in size

A

growth

118
Q

the change from generalized cells or tissues to more specialized kind

A

differentiation

119
Q

means change in position

A

translocation

120
Q

means encompasses the normal sequential events between fertilization and death

A

development

121
Q

the qualitative change which occurs with aging

A

maturation

122
Q

indirect bone formation

A

endochondral bone formation

123
Q

endochondral bone formation is due to

A

hyaline cartilage

124
Q

direct bone formation

A

intramembranous bone formation

125
Q

in intramembranous bone formation, there is constant?

A

deposition and resorption

126
Q

means facing the direction of growth

inner side

A

deposition

127
Q

means facing away the direction of growth

outer side

A

resorption

128
Q

deposition + resorption =

A

DRIFT

129
Q

gradual movement of the growing area of the bone

A

Drift

130
Q

most of the facial bones are V-shaped

A

Enlow’s V principle of growth

131
Q

theory wherein growth is controlled by genetic influence

A

genetic theory

132
Q

theory wherein suture growth is the proliferation of the connective tissue between two bones

A

Sicher’s theory

133
Q

theory wherein growth depends on the cartilage and periosteum

A

Scott’s theory

134
Q

is the major contributor in mandibular growth

A

condylar growth

135
Q

is the major contributor in maxillary growth

A

nasal septum

136
Q

theory wherein it discussed on functional matrices

A

Moss’ theory

137
Q

he supported all of the theories

A

Van Limborg’s theory

138
Q

Servosystem theory

A

Patrovic’s theory

139
Q

formed directly by intramembranous bone

NO CARTILAGE

A

cranial vault

140
Q

primarily cartilage growth; initially cartilage and transformed to bone

A

cranial base

141
Q

area of cellular hyperplasia

A

synchondroses

142
Q

intraoccipital synchondroses closes _____ years old

A

3-5 yo

143
Q

spheno-occipital synchondroses are until ______ years old

A

20 yo

144
Q

growth direction of maxilla

A

DOWNWARD and FORWARD

145
Q

growth direction of mandible

A

UPWARD and BACKWARD

146
Q

major site of growth of mandible

A

condylar cartilage

147
Q

at age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs _______

A

distal to the first molar

148
Q

usual size of the maxillary arch

A

128 mm

149
Q

usual size of the mandibular arch

A

126mm

150
Q

used in predicting the time of the pubertal growth spurt

can be used to judge physiologic age

A

hand wrist radiograph

151
Q

can be used to evaluate whether the growth has stopped or continuing

A

lateral cephalon ram

152
Q

most common supernumerary teeth

A

MESIODENS

153
Q

conditions associated with supernumerary teeth

A

a. gardner’s syndrome
b. Down’s syndrome
c. cleidocranial dysplasia
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome

154
Q

“CD4”

A

serial extraction

155
Q

extract _____ before permanent canine erupt

A

1st PM (serial extraction)

156
Q

difference between MD width of primary canine + 1st molar + 2nd molar and permanent canine + 1st premolar + 2nd premolar

A

leeway space

157
Q

CDE - 245 = _______ for upper and ________ for lower

A

2-2.5mm for upper

3-4mm for lower

158
Q

displacement of a tooth from the socket in the direction of eruption

A

extrusion

159
Q

displacement of the tooth into the socket

A

intrusion

160
Q

the crown moves in one direction; tip of the root in opposite direction

A

tipping

161
Q

same direction of force of crown and root

A

translation

162
Q

controlled root movement labiolingually or mesiodistally

A

torque

163
Q

revolving the tooth around its long axis

A

rotation

164
Q

present on the side toward which the tooth is being moved

osteoclast or osteoblasts?

A

osteoclast

165
Q

present on the side of the root from which the tooth is moved
osteoclast or osteoblast?

A

osteoblast

166
Q

when should you have your first dental visit?

A

on or after 6 months, no later than first birthday

167
Q

mandibular incisor region

hypocalcified

A

natal teeth

168
Q

teeth present within the first 30 days after birth

hypocalcified

A

neonatal teeth

169
Q

characteristics of primary teeth:

A
  1. uniform enamel thickness
  2. short crowns
  3. exaggerated buccal and lingual cervical ridges
  4. narrow FACIOLINGUAL from occlusal view
  5. prominent cervical ridge
170
Q

only teeth that ha a greater width than height

A

primary maxillary central incisors

171
Q

“pot-belly” in appearance

A

primary mandibular molar

172
Q

doesn’t resemble any teeth
no central fossa
big MB cervical ridge

A

primary mandibular molar

173
Q

all anterior teeth have __ lobes

A

4

174
Q

all premolar have 4 lobes EXCEPT ______

A

mandibular 2nd premolar

175
Q

first molars have __ lobes

A

5

176
Q

second molars have __ lobes

A

4

177
Q

stage wherein they are still dependent on parents

A

infancy

178
Q

ideal stage for first dental appointment

A

infancy

179
Q

shift rapidly from one thing to another

brief attention span

A

toddlerhood

180
Q

vocabulary words 500-2000 words
child’s passion runs high
separation anxiety

A

pre-school year

181
Q

peer influence
teacher: first significant authoritive adult
asserts independence

A

school years

182
Q

“awkward stage”

still immature

A

adolescence

183
Q

type of play wherein there is no peer involvement

A

solitary

184
Q

type of play wherein you observe others play

A

on-looking

185
Q

type of play wherein they play activity alongside

A

parallel play

186
Q

type of play with interaction

A

associative play

187
Q

this is the highest form of play

A

cooperative

188
Q 
type of patient that:
lack opportunity to meet people outside
too little affection
only child
overcritical parents
A

timid, shy, bashful

189
Q

type of patient that has an overprotective parents

A

defiant

190
Q

type of patient that overindulge and reject some cases and is spoiled

A

incorrigible

191
Q

Frankl behavioral rating scale

Rating 1: ??

A
  • -
192
Q

Frankl behavioral rating scale

Rating 2: ??

A

-

193
Q

Frankl behavioral rating scale

Rating 3: ??

A

+

194
Q

Frankl behavioral rating scale

Rating 4: ??

A

+ +

195
Q

used for prevention and control of caries

most effective way is systemic

A

fluoride

196
Q

use of fluorine ______mg/day can inhibit the important enzyme phosphatase

A

20-40mg/day

197
Q

needed for calcium metabolism

A

phosphatase

198
Q

recommended dosage of phosphatase for heartburn and pain in extremities

A

40-70mg/day

199
Q

will topical fluoride cause fluorosis?

A

NO

200
Q

excretion of fluoride is in

A

kidney

201
Q

optimal fluoride = _________ for public water

A

0.7-1.2ppm

202
Q

adult lethal dose of fluoride

A

4-5g

203
Q

child lethal dose of fluoride

A

15mg/kg

204
Q

treatment for fluoride toxicity

A

syrup of ipecac

milk of magnesia

205
Q

hereditary form of enamel

teeth appear yellow to brown

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

206
Q

gray-brown appearance “opalescent hue”

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

207
Q

type of dentinogenesis imperfecta associated with O.I.

A

type I

208
Q

most common type of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

type II

209
Q

type of dentinogenesis imperfecta that have multiple pulpal exposure in primary dentition

A

type III

210
Q

rampant caries that results from sleeping with feeding bottle
maxillary incisors

A

ECC (early childhood caries)

211
Q

aka baby bottle tooth decay

A

ECC (early childhood caries)

212
Q

bacteria associated with ANUG

A

fusiform, spirochetes

213
Q

its symptoms are:

painful hyperemic gingival punched out erosions covered by gray pseudomembrane, fetid odor

A

ANUG

214
Q

achondroplasia will develop to class _____

A

class III

215
Q

enlarged tongue, mandibular prognathism, and loner root

A

gigantism

216
Q

sorted of mouth and gingiva

A

gingivostomatitis

217
Q

sequelae of gingivostomatitis

A

recurrent herpes labialis

218
Q

painful white/yellow ulcers with bright red

causes aphthous ulcers

A

cosxackie virus

219
Q

rucurrent ulcers are primary on _____ while herpetic lesions on the _____

A

mucosa; periosteum

220
Q

recurrent aphthous minor: ____ than 1cm in diameter; lasts for ____ weeks

A

less; 2

221
Q

recurrent aphthous major: ____ than 1cm in diameter; lasts for ____ weeks and heal with _____

A

over; more than 2; healing

222
Q

frequent recurrences of ulcers should be screened for ___ and ___

A

DM and Bechet’s syndrome

223
Q

underdeveloped mandible
enlarged tongue
retained primary teeth

A

cretinism

224
Q

cleft palate occurs during ______ weeks in utero

A

6th-8th

225
Q

cleft lip occurs during ____ weeks in utero

A

5th-6th

226
Q

facial cleft common in females

A

cleft palate

227
Q

facial cleft common in males

A

cleft lip

228
Q

associated syndromes of facial clefts

A
  1. stickler’s
  2. Vander Woude’s
  3. DiGeorge syndrome
229
Q

treatment for facial clefts

A 
rule of 10!
cleft lip repair
cleft palate repair 
pharyngloplasty
alveolar reconstruction
cleft orthognatic surgery
cleft rhinoplasty
cleft lip revision
230
Q

cleft lip repair should be done _____ after birth

A

10weeks

231
Q

cleft palate repair should be done _____ after birth

A

9-18 months

232
Q

pharyngoplasty should be done _____ or later

A

3-5 years

233
Q

alveolar reconstruction should be done ______ based on dental development

A

6-9 years

234
Q

cleft orthognatic surgery should be done _____ in girls and _____ in boys

A

14-16 years; 16-18 years

235
Q

cleft lip revision should be done anytime best after age __

A

5

236
Q

in trisomy 21, first primary tooth appear at the age of

A

2

237
Q

in trisomy 21, dentition is completed at the age of

A

5

238
Q

in trisomy 21, primary teeth are retained up to age __

A

15

239
Q

in cleidocranial dysplasia, primary dentition is completed at the age of ___

A

15

240
Q

dentition is delayed in all stages

A

hypothyroidism

241
Q

delayed eruption of dentition

primary teeth do not resorb

A

hypopituitarism

242
Q

most common hemophilia in children

males

A

hemophilia A

243
Q

factor VIII deficiency

A

hemophilia A

244
Q

no injury of supporting structures
no evidence of displacement
no signs of mobility
clinically, tooth will be tender

A

concussion

245
Q

injury to supporting structures
have loosening of tooth
no displacement
sulcular hemorrhage

A

subluxation

246
Q

displacement of tooth beside in an axial direction
torn PDL with contusion of alveolar bone
non tender and non mobile
increased PD space

A

lateral luxation

247
Q

apical displacement into alveolar bone
compression of PDL
fracture of socket
clinically, tooth appears short

A

intrusion

248
Q

partial displacement out of the socket
torn PDL
clinically, elongated tooth and mobile

A

extrusion

249
Q

complete displacement out of socket

missing tooth!

A

avulsion

250
Q

used drugs to induce a cooperative yet CONSCIOUS state

A

conscious sedation

251
Q

patent airway independently maintained

respond to physical stimulation or verbal command

A

conscious sedation

252
Q

General anesthesia

A

deep sedation

253
Q

incomplete, partial or total loss of reflexes

does not respond to stimulus

A

deep sedation

254
Q

mild, odorless, easily irritated and reversible

produces LIMITED analgesia

A

nitrous oxide

255
Q

most common adverse effect of nitrous oxide

A

nausea

256
Q

maintaining concentration of nitrous oxide

A

30:70

257
Q

routes of administration of anesthesia

A
  1. oral sedation
  2. IM
  3. submucosal
  4. IV
258
Q

IM could be done on:

A

a. vastus lateralis
b. gluteus maximus
c. deltoid

259
Q

most universally accepted type of administration of anesthesia

A

oral sedation

260
Q

most efficient type of administration of anesthesia

A

IV

261
Q

onset of oral sedation

A

30-60 minutes

262
Q

onset of IV administration of anesthesia

A

20-25 seconds

263
Q

submucosal sedation is done on

A

buccal vestibule

, .supercram (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions