Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 > Respiratory System (Exam Two) > Flashcards

Respiratory System (Exam Two) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

The cilia are responsible for what?

A

The movement of different substances in and out of the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveolar sacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The left lung has how many lobes?

A

2 lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The right lung has how many lobes?

A

3 lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A child’s airway is ______ and ______.

A

Shorter and narrower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which sinuses are present at birth?

A
  • Ethmoid sinus

- Maxillary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are periods of apnea normal or abnormal in the newborn?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Because a child’s metabolic rate is higher, they require what?

A

Higher oxygen demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Newborns are obligatory ____ _____.

A

Nose breathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How big is a child’s airway?

A

4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How big is an adult’s airway?

A

20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do a child’s eustachian tubes differ from an adults?

A
  • Shorter

- More horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you position a child’s ear when assessing the eustachian tube?

A

Pull down and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the normal blood pH and normal oxygen pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A low pH is referred to as what?

A

Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A high pH is referred to as what?

A

Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal range for PCO2?

A

35 - 45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal range for HCO3?

A

22 - 26 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does PCO2 measure?

A

Partial pressure of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does HCO3 measure?

A

Waste from metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, what is the pH, PCO2, and HCO3?

A

pH: Low
PCO2: High
HCO3: Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, what is the pH, PCO2, and HCO3?

A

pH: Low
PCO2: Normal
HCO3: Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In uncompensated respiratory alkalosis, what is the pH, PCO2, and HCO3?

A

pH: High
PCO2: Low
HCO3: Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In uncompensated metabolic alkalosis, what is the pH, PCO2, and HCO3?

A

pH: High
PCO2: Normal
HCO3: High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is associated with what?

A
  • Hyperventilation

- Keeping in excess PCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Respiratory acidosis is associated with what?

A
  • Hypoventilation

- Giving off excess PCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Metabolic acidosis is associated with what?

A
  • DKA

- Kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is associated with what?

A
  • Antacid medications

- Loss of gastric contents (i.e. vomiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Complete the acid-base balance example:
pH = 7.3
CO2 = 50
HCO3 = 25

A

Respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Complete the acid-base balance example:
pH = 7.5
CO2 = 40
HCO3 = 35

A

Metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Complete the acid-base balance example:
pH = 7.47
CO2 = 30
HCO3 = 22

A

Respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complete the acid-base balance example:
pH = 7.27
CO2 = 38
HCO3 = 20

A

Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If the pH in an ABG returns to normal, what does this indicate?

A

Compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the effects of aging on the respiratory system?

A
  • Decreased force of cough
  • Air trapping
  • Decreased gas exchange
  • Increased risk for respiratory infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is included in inspection of the respiratory system?

A
  • Symmetry
  • Dyspnea
  • Accessory muscle use
  • Color
  • Cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are retractions?

A

Area between the ribs and in the neck will sink in during inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

A

Respirations that gradually become faster and deeper, then slower with alternating periods of apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are Kussmaul’s respirations?

A

Faster and deeper respirations without pauses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is crepitus?

A

Rattling or creaking noise of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are coarse crackles? Coarse crackles are most commonly found in what disease(s)?

A
  • Fluid in airway
  • Bubbling sound
  • Pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are fine crackles? Fine crackles are most commonly found in what disease(s)?

A
  • Alveoli popping
  • Velcro sound
  • Heart failure or atelectasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What adventitious breath sound may dissipate with a cough?

A

Ronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What diagnostic test is most common regarding the respiratory system?

A

Chest x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the nursing priority following a bronchoscopy?

A

Assess for bronchospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most important intervention for preventing and treating respiratory diseases?

A

Smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are therapeutic measures for the respiratory system?

A
  • Deep breathing and coughing
  • Huff coughing
  • Breathing exercises
  • Positioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Huff coughing is a common therapeutic measure for patients with what disease?

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When is pursed-lip breathing encouraged?

A

During shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When are Venturi masks used?

A

When a precise oxygen percentage is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A child cannot be administered a metered dose inhaler without what?

A

Spacer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An incentive spirometer is used to prevent what two diseases?

A
  • Atelectasis

- Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is an alternative to chest physiotherapy?

A

Posey vest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a posey vest?

A

Inflatable vest placed over the patient to vibrate and remove secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drainage systems always need to be what?

A
  • Upright

- Below the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How often should the patient and the lungs be assessed in a patient with a tracheotomy?

A

Every four hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

______ technique is utilized during cleaning of a tracheostomy?

A

Sterile technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the nursing priority if mechanical ventilation fails?

A

Bag the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Nose bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the causes of epistaxis?

A
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • Trauma
  • Hypertension
  • Hemophilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the proper positioning for a patient with epistaxis?

A

-Sitting up and leaning slightly forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nasal polyps occur most often with what?

A

Allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Patients with a deviated septum is at an increased risk for what?

A

Sinus infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What should be monitored following a nasoseptoplasty?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Vital signs
  • Dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the most common misdiagnosed disease in children?

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the most common reason a child receives antibiotics?

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is one of the most common childhood illnesses?

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can cause reflux into the eustachian tube?

A

Bottle feeding/propping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of otitis media?

A
  • Absence of landmarks
  • Yellow/green purulent drainage
  • Fever
  • Anorexia
  • Sleep disturbances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is otitis media with effusion (OME)?

A

Collection of fluid in middle ear with or without signs and symptoms of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is otitis externa (OE)?

A
  • Inflammation of the external ear canal

- “Swimmer’s ear”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the hallmark sign of otitis externa (OE)?

A

Tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the priority education that the nurse should teach parents for a child with otitis media?

A

Avoid bottle propping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Sinusitis is only diagnosed in a child after they have had persistent drainage for how many days?

A

10 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea?

A
  • Obesity
  • High palate
  • Receded mandible
  • Smoking
75
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?

A
  • Snoring
  • Daytime sleepiness
  • Headache
  • Memory and attention problems
  • Childhood behavior problems
76
Q

What is viral rhinitis?

A

Common cold

77
Q

What is rhinitis?

A

Inflammation of the nasal mucous membranes

78
Q

Bacterial pharyngitis is also known as what?

A

Strep throat

79
Q

Pharyngitis may be _____ or _____.

A

Bacterial or viral

80
Q

What is associated with strep throat?

A

Vomiting

81
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of laryngitis? Which of these is the most common

A
  • Hoarse voice is the most common
  • Cough
  • Dysphagia
  • Fever
82
Q

What is the common therapeutic measure for laryngitis?

A

Rest

83
Q

Spasmodic croup can only be diagnosed during what ages?

A

3 months to 3 years

84
Q

What does croup sound like? When does it appear to be the worst?

A
  • Seal-like cough/barking seal

- Worse at night

85
Q

What are the three main viruses that cause croup?

A
  • Parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • Influenza
86
Q

Croup is CAUSED by a _____.

A

Virus

87
Q

Multiple diagnosis of croup in a child may be indicative of what disease?

A

Asthma

88
Q

What part of the airway is affected with croup?

A

Upper airway

89
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention associated with croup?

A
  • Cool mist

- Cold air

90
Q

What medication is commonly prescribed for croup?

A

Dexamethasone

91
Q

Epiglottitis is most commonly due to what?

A

Type B influenza

92
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?

A
  • Tripod position
  • Drooling
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysphonia
  • Distressed air movement (stridor)
93
Q

If the nurse believes a child to have epiglottitis, what should they NOT do? What should the nurse do instead?

A
  • Should NOT look in the mouth or attempt to assess the airway
  • Notify the health care provider ASAP
94
Q

Epiglottitis is considered what?

A

Life-threatening, EMERGENCY!!

95
Q

What are the primary nursing interventions for a patient with epiglottitis?

A
  • Prepare to intubate
  • Encourage child not to cry
  • Medications
  • Hydrate
  • Emotional support for parents
96
Q

What family education should be provided regarding epiglottitis?

A
  • Proper administration of antibiotics
  • Encourage oral hydration
  • Encourage vaccines
97
Q

Why are vaccines encouraged with epiglottitis?

A

Routine vaccines prevent epiglottitis

98
Q

Describe grade 1+ tonsillitis.

A

Tonsils extend to arches

99
Q

Describe grade 2+ tonsillitis.

A

Tonsils extend to just beyond arches

100
Q

Describe grade 3+ tonsillitis.

A

Tonsils approximate the uvula

101
Q

Describe grade 4+ tonsillitis.

A

Tonsils meet midline

102
Q

Grade 4+ tonsillitis is also referred to as what?

A

Kissing tonsils

103
Q

What nursing management is provided to a patient who has undergone a tonsillectomy?

A
  • Suction at bedside!
  • No red drinks!
  • Semi-fowlers
  • Hydration/cool fluids
  • Humidifier
104
Q

What nursing management is priority for a tonsillectomy?

A

Suction at bedside!

105
Q

How is influenza prevented?

A
  • Yearly vaccination
  • Handwashing
  • Avoidance of infected people
  • Do not share drinks/food
106
Q

Can the patient get the flu from the flu vaccine?

A

No

107
Q

What is the most common complication of influenza?

A

Pneumonia

108
Q

How is influenza differentiated from a normal virus?

A

Body aches are indicative of flu

109
Q

Sore throat is more common in what types of viruses?

A

Regular viruses

110
Q

What is the primary nursing diagnosis for upper respiratory infections?

A

-Risk for secondary infection! (i.e. pneumonia, ear infection)

111
Q

Cancer of the larynx can spread to what other parts of the body?

A
  • Lungs
  • Liver
  • Lymph nodes
112
Q

Where will the tumor develop if a patient has cancer of the larynx?

A

Mucosal epithelium

113
Q

What is the most common symptom of cancer of the larynx?

A
  • Hoarseness of the voice

- Change in voice

114
Q

What is the main postoperative nursing diagnosis for larynx cancer?

A

Ineffective airway clearance

115
Q

How long does chronic bronchitis occur? How long can it last?

A
  • More than 3 months out of the year

- Up to 2 years

116
Q

Bronchiolitis is diagnosed in what age group?

A

Children under 2 years of age

117
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

-RSV

118
Q

What is atelectasis?

A
  • Reduced lung compliance
  • Hypoxemia/hypercapnia
  • Risk for pneumonia
119
Q

Patients are only hospitalized for RSV if it is accompanied by what?

A

Bronchiolitis

120
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis? What must the nurse specifically assess for?

A
  • Wheezing
  • Crackles
  • Apnea
  • Must assess for retractions
121
Q

What does a PCR assay diagnose?

A

RSV

122
Q

What is the number one cause of death from infection?

A

Pneumonia

123
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia?

A
  • Bacteria

- Streptococcus pneumoniae

124
Q

What diagnostic test should be done if pneumonia is suspected?

A

Culture and sensitivity

125
Q

Yellow, rusty, or blood-tinged sputum is indicative of what illness?

A

Pneumonia

126
Q

List the signs and symptoms of pneumonia in the elderly?

A
  • Confusion
  • Lethargy
  • Fever
  • Dyspnea
127
Q

What diagnostic tests should be monitored in a patient with pneumonia?

A
  • CBC

- ABG’s

128
Q

What is pertussis? What is it known as?

A
  • Highly contagious, bacterial infection

- Whooping cough

129
Q

What are the three stages of whooping cough?

A
  • URI symptoms
  • Coughing fits
  • Chronic cough
130
Q

What education should be provided to the caregivers of a child with whooping cough?

A
  • Importance of vaccine
  • Prevent spread of infection
  • Cough may be present for up to 10 weeks
  • Entire antibiotic must be finished before child returns to daycare/school
131
Q

Who is most at risk for tuberculosis?

A
  • AIDS/HIV
  • Drug users
  • Homelessness/crowded conditions
132
Q

Blood-tinged or rust colored sputum is evidentiary of what disease?

A

Tuberculosis

133
Q

What is considered the final diagnosis of tuberculosis?

A

Sputum culture

134
Q

How long are medications prescribed for tuberculosis?

A

6 to 24 months

135
Q

How long must the antibiotics for tuberculosis be taken before the patient is no longer considered contagious?

A

2 to 3 weeks

136
Q

What is the most common problem associated with tuberculosis?

A

Patient compliance

137
Q

How many sputum cultures must be negative before a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis can return to work?

A

3 negative sputum cultures

138
Q

What is pleuritis?

A

Inflammation of visceral and parietal pleurae

139
Q

Friction between the pleurae upon inspiration is indicative of what?

A

Pleuritis

140
Q

What are the causes of pleuritis?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Tuberculosis
  • Tumor
  • Trauma
141
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pleuritis?

A
  • Sharp pain upon inspiration
  • Shallow breathing
  • Fever, elevated WBC
  • Friction rub
142
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Fluid between the lungs and the sac surrounding the lung

143
Q

Fluid is not _______ with pleural effusion.

A

Reabsorbed

144
Q

Pleural effusion may cause what?

A

Collapsed lung

145
Q

What are the transudative causes of pleural effusion?

A
  • Heart failure

- Liver/kidney disease

146
Q

What are the exudative causes of pleural effusion?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Tuberculosis
  • CA
147
Q

What is the main diagnostic test for a pleural effusion?

A

Thoracentesis

148
Q

What is a thoracentesis?

A

Culture and sensitivity of the fluid surrounding the lung

149
Q

The nurse should anticipate a thoracentesis being done on the patient if the patient becomes what?

A

Short of breath

150
Q

Once the pleural effusion is resolved, the nurse knows the patient will feel what?

A

Immediate relief of dyspnea

151
Q

What is pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • Injury to alveoli
  • Scarring
  • Impaired gas exchange
152
Q

Why is an ANA titer performed on a patient with pulmonary fibrosis?

A

To see if the disease is hereditary or autoimmune

153
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Collapse of the alveoli

154
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of atelectasis?

A
  • Fine crackles
  • Diminished breath sounds
  • Dyspnea
155
Q

When does atelectasis most commonly occur?

A

Post-operation

156
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for atelectasis?

A

Prevention

157
Q

Why do patients with COPD have impaired gas exchange?

A
  • Because of air trapping

- Loss of elasticity in alveoli

158
Q

What is the expected ratio of the thoracic cage in a patient with COPD?

A

2:2 ratio

159
Q

How is the chest cavity described in a patient with COPD?

A

Barrel chest

160
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of COPD with chronic bronchitis?

A
  • Wheezing, crackles
  • Chronic cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Thick, tenacious sputum
  • Mucous plugs
161
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of COPD with emphysema?

A
  • Diminished breath sounds
  • Chronic cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Progressive activity intolerance
162
Q

What medications are commonly used in a patient with COPD?

A
  • Bronchodilators
  • Corticosteroids
  • Expectorants
163
Q

What occurs if the patients O2 is too high?

A

Hypoxic drive

164
Q

What causes asthmatic symptoms?

A

Inflammation of the lining of the airways

165
Q

If the patient is having an asthma attack, the would want to hear what?

A

Wheezing

166
Q

What is status asthmaticus?

A

Severe, sustained asthma attack

167
Q

What occurs during status asthmaticus?

A

Respiratory alkalosis progresses to respiratory acidosis

168
Q

Intermittent episodes of asthma are often treated with what medication?

A
  • Albuterol

- SABA

169
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Exocrine gland disorder

- Thick, tenacious sputum

170
Q

What is indicative of cystic fibrosis using the “Kiss Your Baby” test?

A

Infant will taste salty

171
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

Blood clot in the lungs

172
Q

What is used to prevent a pulmonary embolism?

A

-Anticoagulants (i.e. heparin)

173
Q

What should the nurse monitor in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?

A
  • Breathing

- Bleeding

174
Q

What is the most common symptom of pulmonary embolism?

A

Sudden onset dyspnea

175
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax usually occurs in individuals who are what?

A
  • Tall
  • Thin
  • Smokers
176
Q

What nursing care should be provided to a patient with a pneumothorax?

A
  • Monitor respiratory staus
  • Monitor chest drainage system
  • Report changes promptly
177
Q

What are the nursing diagnoses for chest trauma?

A
  • Risk for infection
  • Risk for gas exchange (breathing)
  • Pain
178
Q

Acute respiratory failure and acute respiratory distress is…

A

Respiratory acidosis

179
Q

What is the number one cause of lung cancer?

A
  • Smoking

- Inhalation of radon gas

180
Q

What is stage one of lung cancer?

A

In lung with no spread to lymph nodes

181
Q

What is stage two of lung cancer?

A

In lung and nearby lymph nodes

182
Q

What is stage three of lung cancer?

A

In lung, lymph nodes and mediastinum

183
Q

What is stage four lung cancer?

A

In both lungs and pleurae or in distant areas

184
Q

What should the nurse monitor in a post-op thoracic surgery patient?

A
  • Vital signs
  • Bleeding (decrease in blood pressure)
  • ABGs
  • Lung sounds

Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions