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Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 > Neurological System (Exam One) > Flashcards

Neurological System (Exam One) Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A
  • Central Nervous System

- Peripheral Nervous System

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2
Q

What is included in the central nervous system?

A
  • Brain

- Spinal cord

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3
Q

What is included in the peripheral nervous system?

A

Includes the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

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4
Q

What is nerve tissue comprised of?

A
  • Neurons

- Support cells

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5
Q

List the six different parts of a neuron.

A
  • Soma
  • Dendrites
  • Axon
  • Myelin Sheath
  • Nodes of Ranvier
  • Synaptic Knob
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6
Q

What part of the neuron is considered the control center?

A

Soma (cell body)

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7
Q

What part of the neuron contains the nucleus?

A

Soma (cell body)

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8
Q

What part of the neuron receives transmissions and sends out impulses to other cells in the body?

A

Dendrites

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9
Q

What part of the neuron carries nerve signals away from the soma?

A

Axon

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10
Q

What part of the neuron encases the axon and increases and conducts speed?

A

Myelin sheath

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11
Q

What are the gaps in between the myelin sheath called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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12
Q

What is present at the end of axon branches?

A

Synaptic knob

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13
Q

What do synaptic knobs contain?

A

A neurotransmitter

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14
Q

What are the different types of neurons?

A
  • Sensory
  • Motor
  • Interneurons
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15
Q

Sensory neurons are responsible for what?

A
  • Detecting stimuli

- Sending information about the stimuli to the CNS

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16
Q

Motor neurons are responsible for what?

A

Relay messages from the brain to the body so the muscle or gland can respond to the stimulus

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17
Q

What do the interneurons do?

A

Connect the incoming sensory messages with the outgoing motor messages

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18
Q

What is a nerve?

A

Group of axons and blood vessels wrapped in connective tissue

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19
Q

Most nerves are _____.

A

Mixed

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20
Q

Where is the spinal cord located?

A

In the vertebral column

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21
Q

List the components of the spinal cord.

A
  • White matter
  • Gray matter
  • Epidural space
  • Subarachnoid space
  • Central canal
  • Anterior horn
  • Posterior horn
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22
Q

List the vertebral column or spinal nerves.

A
  • Cervical
  • Thoracic
  • Lumbar
  • Sacral
  • Coccygeal
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23
Q

How many cervical nerves are there?

A

8

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24
Q

How many thoracic nerves are there?

A

12

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25
Q

How many lumbar nerves are there?

A

5

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26
Q

How many sacral nerves are there?

A

5

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27
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are there?

A

1

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28
Q

Are reflexes voluntary or involuntary movements?

A

Involuntary movements

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29
Q

What is the largest portion of the brain?

A

Cerebrum

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30
Q

What is the second largest portion of the brain?

A

Cerebellum

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31
Q

What does the brainstem consist of?

A
  • Midbrain
  • Pons
  • Medulla oblongata
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32
Q

What are meninges?

A

Three layers of connective tissue that cover the central nervous system

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33
Q

What is the function of the cerebral spinal fluid?

A
  • Permits exchange of waste and nutrients between blood and neurons
  • Shock absorber
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34
Q

What is the primary reflex center?

A

Midbrain

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35
Q

What is the primary respiratory center?

A

Pons

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36
Q

The medulla is responsible for what? Give examples.

A

-Responsible for vital life functions

  • Heart rate
  • Blood pressure
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37
Q

The cerebellum is responsible for what?

A
  • Coordination
  • Posture
  • Balance
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38
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

Thermoregulation or body temperature

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39
Q

The anterior hypothalamus controls heat _____. Give examples of how this mechanism is carried out within the body.

A

Heat loss

  • Sweating
  • Vasodilation
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40
Q

The posterior hypothalamus controls heat _____. Give examples of how this mechanism is carried out within the body.

A

Heat production

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Muscle contraction and shivering
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41
Q

List the four different lobes of the brain.

A
  • Frontal lobe
  • Temporal lobe
  • Occipital lobe
  • Parietal lobe
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42
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve I?

A

Olfactory

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43
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve II?

A

Optic

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44
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve III?

A

Oculomotor

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45
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve IV?

A

Trochlear

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46
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve V?

A

Trigeminal

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47
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve VI?

A

Abducens

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48
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve VII?

A

Facial

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49
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve VIII?

A

Vestibulocochlear

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50
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve IX?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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51
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve X?

A

Vagus

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52
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve XI?

A

Accessory

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53
Q

What is the name of cranial nerve XII?

A

Hypoglossal

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54
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

A
  • Sympathetic Nervous System

- Parasympathetic Nervous System

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55
Q

The sympathetic nervous system is also known as what?

A

Fight-or-flight

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56
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system is also known as what?

A

Rest-or-digest

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57
Q

What neurotransmitters are in the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  • Acetylcholine

- Norepinephrine

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58
Q

Are extreme forgetfulness and confusion a normal part of aging?

A

No

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59
Q

Decreased blood flow to brain because of aging causes what?

A
  • Increased syncope

- Decreased mental function

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60
Q

In relation to aging, the deposition of aging pigment lipofuscin in nerve cells and amyloid in blood vessels causes what?

A

Impairment in cognition, reasoning, judgement, and orientation

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61
Q

Decreased norepinephrine due to aging results in what?

A

Altered sleep patterns

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62
Q

Decreased acetylcholine and progressive loss of dendrites due to aging causes what?

A

Impaired short-term memory

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63
Q

A decrease in dopamine due to aging causes what?

A
  • Decreased motor function

- More accidents and falls

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64
Q

Decreased postural stability due to aging leads to what?

A

More accidents and falls

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65
Q

Describe Babinski’s sign. List a normal and abnormal sign.

A
  • Firmly stroking sole of foot
  • Normal response is flexion of the great toe
  • Abnormal if the great toe extends and the other toes fan out (patient >6 months old)
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66
Q

Describe Romberg’s test.

A
  • Patient stands feet together and eyes closed
  • Patient will have minimal swaying in a negative Romberg test
  • A patient who sways or leans to one side has a positive Romberg test
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67
Q

When is Romberg’s test often utilized?

A

In concussion patients

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68
Q

Why is the Glasgow Coma Scale used?

A

Used to assess the patients level of consciousness

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69
Q

Using the Glasgow Coma scale, at what score is the patient considered comatose?

A

7

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70
Q

Using the Glasgow Coma scale, at what score is the patient considered severe?

A

8 and below

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71
Q

A Glasgow Coma scale score of 15 indicates what?

A

Patient is fully alert and oriented

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72
Q

What is decorticate posturing? What does this indicate?

A
  • Flexion of body

- Indicates significant cerebral impairment

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73
Q

What is decerebrate posturing? What does this indicate?

A
  • Extension of body

- Indicates brainstem damage

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74
Q

FOUR Score Coma Scale assesses patients who are in what type of state?

A

Comatose state

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75
Q

What four components are assessed during the FOUR Score Coma scale?

A
  • Eye responses
  • Motor responses
  • Brainstem reflexes
  • Respirations
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76
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Pupils are unequal in size

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77
Q

What is nystagmus? What type of nystagmus is most common?

A
  • Involuntary eye movement

- Horizontal nystagmus

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78
Q

Why is B12 assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?

A

To rule out fatigue or tiredness

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79
Q

Why are hormone levels assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?

A

To identify problems in the pituitary gland or hypothalamus

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80
Q

Why are liver and kidney function assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?

A

Problems with the brainstem

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81
Q

A lumbar puncture is most commonly used to assess what disease?

A

Meningitis

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82
Q

What nursing management should be provided to a post-operative lumbar puncture patient?

A
  • Maintain flat bedrest for 6 to 8 hours
  • Encourage fluids
  • Monitor puncture site
  • Monitor movement, sensation, headache
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83
Q

Why should a post-operative patient be kept on flat bedrest for 6 to 8 hours following a lumbar puncture?

A

Prevent spinal headache

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84
Q

What must the nurse assess before obtaining a CT scan with contrast dye?

A

Assess for shellfish allergy

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85
Q

What must the nurse assess before obtaining an MRI?

A
  • Presence of pacemaker
  • Metal within the body
  • *Absolutely NO metal can enter the machine**
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86
Q

What must the nurse assess before obtaining a myelogram with contrast dye?

A
  • Assess for shellfish allergy

- Assess for history of seizures

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87
Q

What does an electroencephalogram (EEG) assess?

A

Seizure activity

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88
Q

What is meningitis? Is it bacterial or viral?

A
  • Infection or inflammation of the brain and spinal cord

- Can be either bacterial or viral

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89
Q

Is viral or bacterial meningitis more common? Is it considered a serious disease?

A
  • Viral meningitis (enterovirus)

- Rarely considered serious

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90
Q

When can brain damage occur with bacterial meningitis?

A

With the onset of a fever

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91
Q

Bacterial meningitis can kill an individual within _____ hours.

A

24

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92
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of meningitis?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Nuchal Rigidity
  • Positive Kernig’s sign
  • Positive Brudzinski’s sign
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93
Q

What is the LPN/RN’s responsibility when a lumbar puncture is performed?

A

Hold the patient in position

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94
Q

Why might codeine products be contraindicated in a patient with meningitis?

A

Codeine may impair neurological assessment

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95
Q

What precaution is in place for 24 hours after antibiotics have been administered to a patient with bacterial meningitis?

A

Droplet isolation

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96
Q

What is encephalitis? What might it cause?

A
  • Inflammation of brain tissue
  • Cause increased intracranial pressure
  • Cause possible herniation of the brain
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97
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Viruses

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98
Q

What particular virus is related to encephalitis? Who will this virus most negatively affect?

A
  • West nile virus

- Affects infants and children

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99
Q

How would the fontanel look in a child who has encephalitis?

A

Bulging fontanel

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100
Q

Increased intracranial pressure results from an increase in what three components?

A
  • Brain
  • Blood
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
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101
Q

What is a classic late sign of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Cushing’s Triad

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102
Q

What results if Cushing’s Triad is present?

A
  • Increased systolic blood pressure
  • Decreased heart rate
  • Decreased respirations
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103
Q

What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure?

A
  • Decreased LOC
  • Confusion
  • Slurred speech
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104
Q

What measures prevent increased intracranial pressure?

A
  • HOB at 30 degrees
  • Avoid neck and hip flexion
  • Prevent strenuous activities
  • Promote rest
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105
Q

List examples of a primary headache.

A
  • Migraine
  • Tension
  • Cluster
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106
Q

What is a secondary headache?

A

Caused by trauma, infection, or other disease

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107
Q

What education should be provided to a patient who has headaches or seizures?

A

Keep a diary with trigger, timing, symptoms

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108
Q

What are the two classifications of seizures?

A
  • Partial

- Generalized

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109
Q

What is involved in a partial seizure?

A
  • Involves one side of the cerebral cortex

- Can become generalized

110
Q

What is involved in a generalized seizure?

A

Involves both sides of the cerebral cortex

111
Q

What is an aura? When does this occur?

A
  • Visual distortion
  • Odor
  • Sound
  • Occurs right before a seizure
112
Q

How long are partial seizures?

A

Usually < 1 minute

113
Q

How long are complex partial seizures? Will the patient lose consciousness

A
  • 2 to 15 minutes

- Yes

114
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of absence or petit mal seizures?

A

Staring

115
Q

What can an electroencephalogram (EEG) tell the nurse about seizure activity?

A
  • Where seizure starts
  • Frequency
  • Duration
  • Presence of asymptomatic seizures
116
Q

The nurse knows they should not restrain a seizure patient because?

A

It can cause injury to the patient or the nurse

117
Q

What is the priority nursing care for a patient who is actively having a seizure?

A
  • Monitor and maintain airway
  • Suction and oxygen
  • Observe and document
118
Q

Status epilepticus is considered what?

A

EMERGENCY!

119
Q

What causes status epilepticus?

A

Abruptly stopping anti-seizure medication

120
Q

What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injuries?

A

Motor vehicle accident

121
Q

Describe the acceleration mechanism of injury.

A

Moving object strikes a stationary head

122
Q

Describe the deceleration mechanism of injury.

A

Moving head strikes a stationary object

123
Q

Describe the acceleration-deceleration mechanism of injury.

A

A mobile object strikes a stationary head and then the head strikes a stationary object

124
Q

Describe the rotational mechanism of injury.

A
  • Shifting/shearing of the head
  • Results from direct blow
  • Results from vehicle getting hit from the side
125
Q

Twisting of the brainstem can cause what?

A

Loss of consciousness

126
Q

Where does a subdural hematoma occur?

A

Between the dura and arachnoid space

127
Q

Where does an epidural hematoma occur?

A

Between the dura and the skull

128
Q

If the patient presents with a hematoma, the nurse knows they need to do what? Why?

A
  • Be prepared to prep the patient for a craniotomy

- To relieve intracranial pressure

129
Q

What is post-concussion syndrome?

A
  • When the symptoms of a concussion exceed three weeks

- May last up to 12 months

130
Q

Patients who are ______ with a suspected concussion will require an immediate _______.

A
  • Vomiting

- CT scan

131
Q

What is paresthesias?

A

Feeling of pins and needles

132
Q

What is autonomic dysreflexia? When will autonomic dysreflexia occur?

A
  • Complication of a spinal injury
  • When injury is above T6
  • Life threatening
  • Impairs equilibrium between SNS and PNS
133
Q

What is the priority vital sign that the nurse will monitor in a patient with a spinal cord injury? How often is it evaluated?

A
  • Blood pressure

- Every five minutes

134
Q

What factors might cause the blood pressure to rise in a patient with a spinal cord injury?

A
  • Full bladder
  • Constipation
  • Pressure sores
  • Improper positioning
135
Q

When is it safe for the nurse to remove a c-collar?

A
  • IT IS NOT!

- Can only be done with a physicians order

136
Q

Why is logrolling performed on a patient for a spinal cord injury?

A

To maintain body alignment

137
Q

What does a neurodegenerative disorder cause?

A

Degeneration, or wasting, of the neurons

138
Q

What does a neurocognitive disorder cause?

A

Cognitive decline

139
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a dementia patient?

A

Prolong a good quality of life

140
Q

What is the primary nursing diagnosis for dementia patients?

A

Risk for injury

141
Q

What is delirium?

A

Temporary mental disturbance

142
Q

Is delirium considered a medical emergency?

A

Yes

143
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of delirium?

A
  • Disorganized thinking

- Difficulty staying focused

144
Q

What is the primary cause of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Decreased dopamine production

145
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Shuffling gait
  • Pill-rolling tremor
  • Difficulty swallowing
  • Muscular rigidity
  • Bradykinesia
146
Q

What might the nurse instruct a Parkinson’s patient to do in order to initiate movement?

A

Rock from side-to-side

147
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

Progressive degeneration of parts of the brain

148
Q

Huntington’s disease is ________.

A

Incurable

149
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Dementia
  • Depression
  • Dysphagia
  • Death
150
Q

What nursing care should be provided to a patient with Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Palliative care

- Prolong a good quality of life

151
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Progressive, degenerative disease

152
Q

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Risk for injury

153
Q

Describe Stage One of Alzheimer’s disease.

A
  • 2 to 4 years

- Increased forgetfulness

154
Q

Describe Stage Two of Alzheimer’s disease.

A
  • 2 to 12 years
  • Progressive memory loss
  • Depression
  • Aphasia
  • Sleep disturbances
  • Hallucinations
  • Seizures
155
Q

Describe Stage Three of Alzheimer’s disease.

A
  • Complete dependency
  • Loss of bowel/bladder control
  • Loss of emotional control
  • Inability to recognize significant family members
  • Death
156
Q

What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

Temporarily blocks circulation from going through the brain

157
Q

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a forewarning for what condition?

A

Stroke

158
Q

Transient ischemic attacks (TIA) deprive the brain of what substances?

A
  • Glucose

- Oxygen

159
Q

What is a stroke? What does a stroke cause within the brain?

A
  • Disruption of blood flow to the brain

- Results in dead brain cells

160
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors of a stroke?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • TIA
  • Diabetes
161
Q

What are the warning signs of a stroke?

A
  • Sudden numbness or weakness
  • Sudden confusion
  • Sudden change in vision
  • Sudden dizziness/trouble walking
  • Sudden severe headache
162
Q

What is the acronym for a stroke?

A

F: ace
A: rms
S: peech
T: ime (call 911)

163
Q

What is expressive aphasia?

A

Patients knows what they want to say but have trouble saying or writing it

164
Q

What is receptive aphasia?

A

Patient is able to hear or see words but cannot make sense of the words

165
Q

If the patient has a left-sided infarction, which side of the body will be impaired?

A

Right side

166
Q

If the patient has a right-sided infarction, which side of the body will be impaired?

A

Left side

167
Q

Will a CT scan initially show a stroke?

A

No

168
Q

Following an ischemic stroke, thrombolytic therapy must be given within how many hours?

A

4.5 hours

169
Q

What question does the nurse need to ask while collecting the history of a patient who is experiencing symptoms of a TIA?

A

How long have the symptoms been going on?

170
Q

What are the priority nursing diagnosis with cerebrovascular accidents?

A
  • Safety
  • Decrease in sensation
  • Impaired skin integrity
171
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

Weakness in the artery wall

172
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Photophobia
  • Vomiting
  • Disorientation
  • IICP
  • Changes in LOC
  • Nuchal Rigidity
  • Pupil changes
173
Q

Which cranial nerves are most commonly affected in a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Cranial nerve III (3)

Cranial nerve VI (6)

174
Q

What are the complications of a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
  • Rebleed
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Vasospasm
175
Q

Picture boards are utilized in patients who have what?

A

Expressive aphasia

176
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve I?

A

Sense of smell

177
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve II?

A

Sense of sight

178
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve III?

A
  • Eyeball movement

- Pupil constriction

179
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve IV?

A

Eyeball movement

180
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve V?

A
  • Sensation in face, scalp, teeth

- Chewing

181
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve VI?

A

Eyeball movement

182
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve VII?

A
  • Taste
  • Contraction of facial muscles
  • Saliva secretion
183
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve VIII?

A
  • Sense of hearing

- Sense of equilibrium

184
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve IX?

A
  • Taste
  • Saliva secretion
  • Swallowing
  • Sensory input for cardiac, respiratory and blood pressure reflexes
185
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve X?

A
  • Sensory input for cardiac, respiratory and blood pressure reflexes
  • Sensory for speech
  • Decreased heart rate
  • Swallowing
  • Peristalsis
  • Increased digestive secretions
186
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XI?

A
  • Contraction of neck and shoulder muscles

- Speech

187
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve XII?

A

Movement of the tongue

188
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Degeneration of myelin sheath and destruction of nerve fibers

189
Q

What education should be provided to a patient with multiple sclerosis?

A

Fatigue will be increased in a hot environment

190
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Numbness
  • Fatigue
  • Vertigo
  • Dysphagia
  • Bowel/bladder problem (UTI)
191
Q

What might cause exacerbations of multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Stress
  • Illness
  • Hot environment
  • Urinary tract infection
192
Q

What occurs within the body of a patient who has myasthenia gravis?

A

Immune system destroys acetylcholine on the muscle receptors and becomes unable to stimulate muscle contraction

193
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Progressive muscle weakness
  • Fatigue with activity
  • Ptosis
  • Difficulty chewing, swallowing
  • Difficulty breathing
194
Q

What is a myasthenic crisis?

A

Sudden onset of muscle weakness

195
Q

What is a cholinergic crisis?

A
  • Overmedication with anticholinesterase drugs
  • Not administering correctly
  • Administering too much
196
Q

What is a Tensilon test?

A

Injection of IV anticholinesterase drug to see if muscle weakness improves

197
Q

Does ALS or Lou Gehrig’s disease affect involuntary or voluntary muscle movement?

A

Voluntary

198
Q

What are an EEG, nerve biopsy, and EMG used when diagnosing ALS or Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A

To rule out other illnesses

199
Q

What patient education should be provided to a patient with ALS or Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A
  • Support groups
  • Importance of avoiding infection
  • Teach family to provide care
200
Q

How can the nurse facilitate the expulsion of sputum in an ALS patient with pneumonia?

A

Suction at bedside

201
Q

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Inflammation of the spinal and cranial nerves

202
Q

In Guillain-Barre syndrome, demyelination occurs in what type of pattern? Where does this begin?

A
  • Ascending pattern

- In the legs

203
Q

In Guillain-Barre syndrome, remyelination occurs in what type of pattern?

A

Descending pattern

204
Q

Describe Stage One of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  • Hours to 3 weeks
  • Abrupt onset of weakness and paralysis
  • Respirations are affected
  • Autonomic nervous system is affected
205
Q

Describe Stage Two of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  • 2 to 14 days
  • Plateau
  • Progression stopped
206
Q

Describe Stage Three of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  • 6 to 24 months

- Recovery

207
Q

What is the most important assessment with a new onset of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Respiratory assessment

208
Q

What should be kept at the bedside of a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  • Oxygen
  • Intubation
  • Suction
209
Q

How long can post-polio syndrome affect polio victims?

A

10 to 40 years later

210
Q

List the nursing diagnosis for patients with neuromuscular disorders.

A
  • Ineffective airway clearance
  • Impaired physical mobility
  • Risk for imbalanced nutrition
  • Impaired verbal communication
211
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Irritation of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)

212
Q

What portion of the nerve is affected with trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Sensory portion

213
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Inflammation and edema of the facial nerve

214
Q

What function of the nerve is affected with Bell’s palsy?

A

Motor function

215
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A
  • One sided facial drooping
  • Weakness
  • Difficulty with speech/chewing
  • Forehead not wrinkled
216
Q

A patient with trigeminal neuralgia will experience what?

A

Pain

217
Q

A patient with Bell’s palsy will experience what?

A

Paralysis

218
Q

What percent of developmental delays occur in children within the United States?

A

17%

219
Q

What percent of children with a developmental delay will be diagnosed by school-age?

A

50%

220
Q

Once a milestone is missed, children _______ catch up _____.

A

DO NOT catch up QUICKLY

221
Q

When is spina bifida present in an infant?

A

At birth

222
Q

What is consumed during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?

A

Folic Acid

223
Q

How much folic acid should be consumed during pregnancy?

A

At least 400 mg

224
Q

What are the different types of spina bifida?

A
  • Myelomeningocele
  • Meningocele
  • Spina Bifida occulta
225
Q

Which form of spina bifida is most common?

A

Myelomeningocele

226
Q

What occurs during myelomeningocele?

A

Spinal cord and nerves are exposed and visible on the outside of the body

227
Q

Myelomeningocele will result in what?

A

Partial or complete paralysis

228
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A
  • Section of spinal vertebrae is malformed
  • Cord and nerves are normal
  • Tuft of hair may be only visible physical indication
229
Q

Does spina bifida occulta cause bowel and bladder problems or paralysis?

A

No

230
Q

What is involved in the protection of open spinal cord defects?

A
  • Must be covered and protected
  • Aseptic technique
  • Sterile dressing moistened with warn sterile saline
  • Position prone and lying on open diaper
231
Q

What is name of the neural tube defect where most of the brain does not develop?

A

Anencephaly

232
Q

What is encephalocele?

A

Portion of the brain protrudes through an opening in the skull

233
Q

What are the common locations of an encephalocele?

A
  • Groove in the middle of the skull
  • Between the forehead and nose
  • On the back side of the skull
234
Q

What is chiari malformation?

A

Structural defect of the cerebellum

235
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of type one chiari malformation? How is this diagnosed

A
  • No signs and symptoms

- Diagnosed through accidental finding

236
Q

When do congenital malformations occur?

A

During fetal development

237
Q

What is the most common brain malformation?

A

Agenesis of Corpus Callosum

238
Q

This condition is also known as “smooth brain”.

A

Lissencephaly

239
Q

Lissencephaly causes what?

A

Severe neurological impairment

240
Q

Microencephaly is present if what?

A

The circumference of the head is more than two standard deviations below normal

241
Q

What is schizencephaly?

A

Abnormal slit or cleft in the hemisphere(s) of the brain

242
Q

What will result if schizencephaly is in both hemispheres?

A
  • Developmental delays

- Paralysis

243
Q

What will result if schizencephaly is in one hemispheres?

A

Paralysis on one side

244
Q

Premature closing of skull sutures is known as what?

A

Craniosynostosis

245
Q

What is craniosynostosis associated with?

A

Facial deformities

246
Q

Closing of the skull sutures is considered to be premature if closure occurs before what age?

A

Two months old

247
Q

What is congenital hydrocephalus?

A

Blockage occurs before birth

248
Q

What is acquired hydrocephalus?

A

Blockage occurs after birth

249
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hydrocephalus symptoms?

A
  • Large head
  • Rapid increase in head circumference
  • Bulging fontanel
  • High-shrill
  • Sunsetting eyes
  • Opisthotonos
250
Q

What is the treatment option for hydrocephalus?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

251
Q

What risk is associated with a shunt?

A

Infection

252
Q

What is the most important factor when diagnosing sleep disorders in children?

A

Thorough sleep history

253
Q

What are the treatment options for sleep disorders in children?

A
  • Good sleep habits
  • No hypnotic sleep aids
  • Safety measures for sleepwalking
254
Q

What causes febriel seizures?

A
  • Body temperature accelerated or decreased too rapidly

- Body is unable to adjust

255
Q

List safety promotion for seizure prevention.

A
  • Helmet/protective gear
  • Bathe with supervision
  • No swimming without supervision
  • No sleeping on high bed
256
Q

At what age are febrile seizures most common? In what gender are they most common?

A
  • 3 months to 5 years

- Common in boys

257
Q

When are infantile spasms most likely to occur?

A
  • Upon awakening

- Going to sleep

258
Q

What type of syncope is most common?

A

Vasovagal syncope

259
Q

What is a common sign of Type 1 neurofibromatosis?

A

Cafe-au-lait spots

260
Q

Can infants have strokes in utero?

A

Yes

261
Q

What is the most common cause of pediatric strokes?

A

Neonatal hemorrhages

262
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of congenital zika syndrome?

A
  • Severe microcephaly
  • Congenital contractures
  • Hypertonia
263
Q

What are the causes of cerebral palsy in children?

A
  • Premature birth

- Very low birth weight

264
Q

What type of cerebral palsy is the most common?

A

Spastic

265
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Chronic disability impairing muscle movement and posture

266
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of spastic cerebral palsy?

A
  • Stiffness in legs

- Occurs on one side of body or quadriplegia

267
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of athetoid/dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A
  • Sudden, uncontrollable changes in muscle tone

- Difficulty controlling movements

268
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of ataxic cerebral palsy?

A
  • Problems with balance/coordination

- Problems with writing/reaching for objects

269
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of mixed cerebral palsy?

A

Some have more than one type

270
Q

Few spontaneous movements is associated with what pediatric disease?

A

Spinal muscle atrophy one (SMA1) (Werdnig-Hoffman disease)

Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 (12 decks)

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